AQA Physics Paper 2

391 questions with model answers · Physics Paper 2 · GCSE Physics revision

Forces & Their Effects

Common28
1.

Describe a method to investigate how the resultant force on a trolley affects its acceleration. Your method should include: the equipment needed, how you would change the force, how you would measure acceleration, and one way to make your results more reliable.

6 marks · standardCommon

Equipment: a trolley on a flat runway, a pulley fixed at the end of the runway, a length of string connecting the trolley to hanging masses over the pulley, two light gates connected to a data logger, a metre rule, and a set of masses. Method: Set up one light gate near the start of the trolley's path and a second light gate further along; measure the distance between them with the metre rule. Transfer masses from the trolley to the hanger to provide a known force — this keeps the total system mass constant, which is the control variable. Allow the trolley to accelerate from rest through both light gates. The data logger records the velocity at each gate; calculate acceleration as change in velocity divided by the time between gates. Repeat the measurement for each force setting three times and calculate the mean acceleration to improve reliability. Plot a graph of acceleration (y-axis) against force (x-axis) — a straight line through the origin confirms F = ma.

  • Level 3 (5-6 marks): Method produces a valid outcome. Equipment named (trolley, runway/ramp, pulley, string, hanging masses, light gates or data logger, metre rule). Force changed by transferring masses from trolley to hanger (keeping total system mass constant). Acceleration measured from light gate timings and measured distance between gates. At least one valid reliability improvement stated (repeat and mean). Steps logically sequenced. (6m)
  • Level 2 (3-4 marks): Most key steps identified but one significant element missing or not fully explained — e.g. method for changing force described but compensating masses not mentioned, OR acceleration measurement described but equipment not fully named. (4m)
  • Level 1 (1-2 marks): Some relevant steps identified but method would not produce valid results — e.g. only names equipment without describing the procedure, or describes measuring force only without describing how acceleration is found. (2m)

This is Required Practical RPA7 (F = ma trolley investigation). The key insight is that masses must be transferred from the trolley to the hanger — not simply added to the hanger — so the total system mass stays constant. This makes force the only independent variable. Acceleration is calculated from light gate data: a = (v2 - v1) / t. Repeating and averaging reduces random errors. The resulting acceleration-force graph should be a straight line through the origin, confirming Newton's Second Law.

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2.

A student wants to investigate how the extension of a spring varies with the force applied. Describe a method the student could use to carry out this investigation. Include the equipment needed, the measurements to take, and how to make the results more reliable. (6 marks - Level of Response)

6 marks · higherCommon

Equipment: hang a spring from a clamp stand, attach a pointer to the spring end, and use a metre rule fixed vertically alongside. Known masses are used as weights. Measure the natural length of the spring before adding any mass. The independent variable is the force applied (mass added), and the dependent variable is the extension of the spring. Add masses one at a time, recording the new length after each addition. Extension equals new length minus original length. Control variables include using the same spring throughout and keeping the temperature constant. To improve reliability, repeat each measurement at least twice and calculate a mean. Plot a graph of force (y-axis) against extension (x-axis). On the straight-line section the gradient equals the spring constant (k = F divided by extension).

  • Level 3 (5-6 marks): Describes a valid method with: equipment listed (spring, ruler/metre rule, masses/weights, clamp stand, pointer), measurements described (force in N, extension in m/cm), correct identification of IV and DV, control variable mentioned (same spring/temperature), describes repeating measurements and calculating a mean, and explains how to plot a force-extension graph. (6m)
  • Level 2 (3-4 marks): Describes most steps but may not fully identify variables or mention repeating, or may omit some key equipment. (4m)
  • Level 1 (1-2 marks): Some relevant steps but method is incomplete or lacks logical sequence; minimal reference to measurements or variables. (2m)

A complete method: hang the spring from a clamp stand, use a metre rule to measure its natural length. Add known masses (providing known forces) one at a time and measure the new length after each addition. Extension = new length - original length. Plot a force-extension graph; the gradient gives the spring constant. Repeat readings and calculate means to improve reliability. Keep the same spring and temperature as control variables.

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3.

Explain the difference between a scalar quantity and a vector quantity. Give one example of each and explain why forces must be represented as vectors when calculating a resultant force.

4 marks · higherCommon

A scalar quantity has only magnitude (size) but no direction. A vector quantity has both magnitude and direction. An example of a scalar is speed (just a number and unit, e.g. 10 m/s). An example of a vector is velocity (magnitude and direction, e.g. 10 m/s north). Forces must be represented as vectors because forces have both magnitude and direction. When calculating a resultant force, the direction of each force matters - forces in the same direction add together while forces in opposite directions partially or fully cancel each other out. Ignoring direction would give the wrong resultant.

  • Scalar: has magnitude (size) only, no direction - with correct example (speed, distance, mass, temperature, energy) (1m)
  • Vector: has both magnitude and direction - with correct example (force, velocity, acceleration, displacement, momentum) (1m)
  • Forces are vectors because they have direction; direction must be considered when adding forces (1m)
  • Same direction forces add; opposite direction forces subtract / cancel - giving correct resultant only if direction considered (1m)

Scalars have magnitude only (e.g. speed, mass, temperature). Vectors have both magnitude and direction (e.g. force, velocity, acceleration). Forces must be treated as vectors because 10 N right + 10 N left = 0 N (they cancel), but 10 N right + 10 N right = 20 N right.

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4.

A student plots a graph of acceleration (y-axis, m/s^2) against force (x-axis, N) for a trolley on a runway. The graph is a straight line through the origin with a gradient of 0.4 m/s^2 per N. What is the total mass of the trolley system? Show your working.

4 marks · higherCommon
  • State that gradient of acceleration-force graph = a/F = 1/m (from F = ma rearranged as a = F/m) (1m)
  • Correct relationship: mass = 1 / gradient (1m)
  • Correct substitution: mass = 1 / 0.4 (1m)
  • Correct answer: mass = 2.5 kg (1m)

Rearranging F = ma gives a = (1/m) x F. A graph of a against F is a straight line through the origin with gradient = 1/m. Therefore m = 1/gradient = 1/0.4 = 2.5 kg. This graph analysis skill tests whether students can connect the mathematical form of F = ma to the physical meaning of the gradient of an experimental graph.

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5.

Explain the difference between elastic and inelastic deformation. Include what happens to the object in each case when the force is removed.

3 marks · standardCommon

Elastic deformation occurs when an object is deformed by a force but returns to its original shape and size when the force is removed. Inelastic deformation occurs when an object is deformed and does not return to its original shape when the force is removed - the change in shape is permanent.

  • Elastic deformation: object returns to its original shape when the force is removed (1m)
  • Inelastic deformation: object does not return to its original shape / the change is permanent (1m)
  • Clear comparison or reference to what happens when force is removed in both cases (1m)

The key difference is reversibility. Elastic deformation is reversible - the object returns to its original shape. Inelastic (plastic) deformation is permanent - the object stays deformed.

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6.

A spring has a spring constant of 40 N/m. A force of 12 N is applied to the spring. Calculate the extension of the spring. Use the equation: force = spring constant x extension

3 marks · standardCommon
  • Correct rearrangement: extension = force / spring constant (1m)
  • Correct substitution: extension = 12 / 40 (1m)
  • Correct answer: 0.3 m (1m)

Using F = ke, rearrange to e = F/k. Substituting: e = 12 / 40 = 0.3 m. The spring extends by 0.3 m (or 30 cm).

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7.

In an investigation of F = ma using a trolley on a runway, why must the total mass of the system (trolley plus all masses) be kept constant when changing the force?

3 marks · standardCommon

If masses are simply added to the hanger to increase the force, the total mass of the system also increases. By F = ma, acceleration depends on both force and mass, so two variables would change at once. To make it a fair test, total mass must be kept constant. This is done by transferring masses from the trolley to the hanger — the total system mass stays the same, so any change in acceleration is caused only by the change in force.

  • Acceleration depends on both force and mass (F = ma), so if mass also changes, you cannot tell which variable is responsible for the change in acceleration (1m)
  • Keeping total mass constant makes it a fair test / ensures only one variable (force) changes at a time (1m)
  • Method: transfer masses from the trolley to the hanger so total system mass is unchanged (1m)

F = ma shows that acceleration is affected by both force and mass. If you simply add masses to the hanger, you increase both the force and the total system mass simultaneously — making the test unfair. Transferring masses from the trolley to the hanger keeps total mass constant, so force is the only independent variable.

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8.

Give three examples of forces and for each state whether it is a contact or non-contact force. Explain the difference between contact and non-contact forces.

3 marks · higherCommon

Friction is a contact force because it acts between surfaces that are touching. Gravity is a non-contact force because it acts between objects without them needing to touch, acting across a distance. Magnetic force is a non-contact force because it acts on magnetic materials at a distance without physical contact. Contact forces require objects to be physically touching; non-contact forces act at a distance through a field.

  • Any one contact force correctly named (e.g. friction, tension, normal contact force, air resistance) (1m)
  • Any one non-contact force correctly named (e.g. gravity / gravitational, magnetic, electrostatic) (1m)
  • Correct explanation: contact forces require objects to be touching; non-contact forces act at a distance (through a field) (1m)

Contact forces (friction, tension, normal contact force, air resistance) require physical contact between objects. Non-contact forces (gravity, magnetism, electrostatic) act through fields and do not require objects to touch.

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9.

A spring with spring constant 250 N/m is compressed by 0.08 m. Calculate the elastic potential energy stored in the spring.

3 marks · higherCommon
  • Correct equation recalled: Ee = 0.5 x k x e^2 (1m)
  • Correct substitution: Ee = 0.5 x 250 x 0.08^2 (1m)
  • Correct answer: 0.8 J (1m)

Ee = 0.5 x k x e^2 = 0.5 x 250 x (0.08)^2 = 0.5 x 250 x 0.0064 = 0.8 J.

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10.

A student stretches a spring and plots a force-extension graph. The graph is a straight line through the origin up to a certain point, after which it curves. Explain what the straight line region and the curved region tell us about the spring.

3 marks · higherCommon

The straight line region shows that the spring obeys Hooke's Law - the extension is directly proportional to the force applied. The gradient of this straight line equals the spring constant. The curved region shows that the spring has exceeded its limit of proportionality and Hooke's Law no longer applies. Beyond this point the spring may also undergo inelastic deformation and not return to its original shape.

  • Straight line through origin: extension is directly proportional to force / Hooke's Law is obeyed / spring constant is constant (1m)
  • Curved region: limit of proportionality has been exceeded / Hooke's Law no longer applies (1m)
  • Beyond the limit the relationship is no longer linear / extension increases more rapidly / spring may be permanently deformed (1m)

Straight line through origin = directly proportional relationship = Hooke's Law obeyed. Where it curves = limit of proportionality exceeded = Hooke's Law no longer applies. Beyond this the extension is greater for each unit of force increase.

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11.

Using the velocity-time graph, explain how you would calculate the distance travelled by the object.

3 marks · higherCommon

The distance travelled is equal to the area under the velocity-time graph. The graph can be split into a triangle (under the sloped section) and a rectangle (under the horizontal section). Calculate the area of each shape separately using the correct formulas, then add the two areas together to find the total distance.

  • Distance is equal to the area under the velocity-time graph (1m)
  • Split the area into recognisable shapes (triangle and rectangle) (1m)
  • Calculate the area of each shape and add them together to find total distance (1m)

On a velocity-time graph, distance = area under the graph. Break it into sections (triangles and rectangles), compute each area, then sum all the areas.

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12.

The velocity-time graph shows an object accelerating from 0 to 10 m/s in 5 s, then travelling at constant 10 m/s for another 10 s. Using the graph, calculate the total distance travelled.

3 marks · higherCommon

The total distance equals the area under the velocity-time graph. The area under the first section is a triangle: area = 0.5 x base x height = 0.5 x 5 x 10 = 25 m. The area under the second section is a rectangle: area = length x width = 10 x 10 = 100 m. Total distance = 25 + 100 = 125 m.

  • States that distance = area under the velocity-time graph (1m)
  • Correctly calculates area of triangle = 0.5 x 5 x 10 = 25 m AND area of rectangle = 10 x 10 = 100 m (1m)
  • Total distance = 125 m (correct addition of both areas) (1m)

Distance = area under v-t graph. Triangle: 0.5 x 5 s x 10 m/s = 25 m. Rectangle: 10 s x 10 m/s = 100 m. Total = 125 m.

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13.

The distance-time graph shows two sections, A and B. Section A has a steeper gradient than section B. Using the graph, compare the speeds of the object in sections A and B.

3 marks · higherCommon

The speed in section A is greater than the speed in section B. The gradient of a distance-time graph represents speed, so a steeper gradient means a higher speed. In section A the gradient (and therefore speed) is greater than in section B. Both speeds are constant because both lines are straight.

  • The speed in section A is greater than in section B (section A is faster) (1m)
  • This is because section A has a steeper gradient, and gradient = speed on a distance-time graph (1m)
  • Both sections show constant speed because both lines are straight (1m)

Gradient = speed on a d-t graph. Steeper gradient = higher speed. Both sections are straight lines, so both represent constant (but different) speeds.

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14.

Explain what is meant by the resultant force on an object.

2 marks · standardCommon

The resultant force is the single force that has the same effect as all the individual forces acting on an object combined. It is found by adding all the forces together, taking into account their directions. When forces act in the same direction they add together; when they act in opposite directions they subtract.

  • The resultant force is the single/overall/net force that represents the combined effect of all forces acting on the object (1m)
  • Found by adding forces taking direction into account - same direction forces add, opposite direction forces subtract (1m)

The resultant force is the net single force equivalent to all forces acting on an object. For forces along a line: add forces in the same direction and subtract forces in opposite directions.

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15.

A car experiences a driving force of 3000 N forwards and a friction force of 800 N backwards. Calculate the resultant force on the car. Use the equation: resultant force = driving force - friction force

2 marks · standardCommon
  • Correct substitution: resultant = 3000 - 800 (1m)
  • Correct answer: 2200 N forwards (1m)

Resultant force = driving force - friction = 3000 - 800 = 2200 N. The resultant is forwards because the driving force is larger.

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16.

Look at the velocity-time graph. Describe what happens to the velocity of the object during the first section of the graph.

2 marks · standardCommon

During the first section the velocity increases. The straight line shows the velocity increases at a constant rate, meaning the object has a constant acceleration.

  • The velocity increases / the object accelerates during the first section (1m)
  • The rate of increase is constant / the acceleration is constant (shown by the straight line) (1m)

A straight line with a positive gradient on a velocity-time graph means velocity is increasing at a constant rate — this is uniform (constant) acceleration.

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17.

Using the velocity-time graph, describe how you would calculate the acceleration of the object during the first 5 seconds.

2 marks · standardCommon

To find the acceleration, calculate the gradient of the straight section of the velocity-time graph. The gradient is found by dividing the change in velocity by the time taken: acceleration = change in velocity divided by time.

  • State that the gradient of the velocity-time graph gives the acceleration (1m)
  • Gradient = change in velocity divided by time (accept: correct reading from graph with correct division) (1m)

Acceleration = gradient of a velocity-time graph = change in velocity / time. Read off the velocity at 0 s and at 5 s, subtract, then divide by 5.

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18.

Using the distance-time graph, describe the motion of the object during the first section of the graph.

2 marks · standardCommon

During the first section the distance increases with time. The straight line shows the object is moving at constant speed (the distance increases by the same amount each second).

  • The distance is increasing / the object is moving forward (1m)
  • The object is moving at constant speed (accept: the rate of increase is constant / the line is straight so speed is constant) (1m)

A straight line with a positive gradient on a distance-time graph means the object moves with constant speed. A steeper straight line means a faster constant speed.

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19.

Using the distance-time graph, explain how you would calculate the speed of the object from the gradient of the graph.

2 marks · standardCommon

Speed is calculated from the gradient of the distance-time graph. The gradient equals the change in distance divided by the change in time: speed = change in distance / change in time.

  • The gradient of the distance-time graph gives the speed (1m)
  • Gradient = change in distance divided by change in time (accept correct formula or reference to rise over run) (1m)

Speed = gradient of a distance-time graph = change in distance / change in time. Choose two clearly separated points on the straight line and read off their coordinates.

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20.

What is a force?

  • A. A push or pull that can change the motion or shape of an object
  • B. The speed at which an object moves
  • C. The mass of an object in kilograms
  • D. The distance an object travels in one second
1 mark · foundationCommon

A force is a push or pull that acts on an object. Forces can change the speed, direction or shape of an object. They are measured in newtons (N) and are vector quantities.

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21.

A book rests on a table. The weight of the book is 5 N downwards and the normal contact force is 5 N upwards. What is the resultant force on the book?

  • A. 10 N upwards
  • B. 5 N downwards
  • C. 0 N
  • D. 5 N upwards
1 mark · foundationCommon

When forces are equal in size but opposite in direction, they are balanced. The resultant force is found by adding the forces, taking direction into account: 5 N down + 5 N up = 0 N. A resultant force of zero means the book does not accelerate.

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22.

Look at the velocity-time graph. What does a horizontal line on a velocity-time graph represent?

  • A. Acceleration
  • B. Constant velocity
  • C. Deceleration
  • D. Stationary
1 mark · foundationCommon

A horizontal line on a velocity-time graph means velocity is not changing with time, so the object is travelling at constant (steady) velocity.

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23.

Look at the flat section of the velocity-time graph. What does this section tell you about the motion of the object?

1 mark · foundationCommon

The flat horizontal section shows the object is travelling at constant velocity (constant speed in a constant direction).

  • The object is moving at constant velocity / constant speed (the velocity is not changing) (1m)

A horizontal line on a velocity-time graph means velocity is not changing with time. The object is at constant velocity — no acceleration, no deceleration.

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24.

Look at the velocity-time graph. What does the gradient of a velocity-time graph represent?

  • A. Distance travelled
  • B. Speed
  • C. Acceleration
  • D. Displacement
1 mark · foundationCommon

The gradient (slope) of a velocity-time graph equals acceleration. A steeper gradient means greater acceleration. A horizontal line (zero gradient) means zero acceleration — constant velocity.

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25.

Look at the distance-time graph. What does a horizontal line on a distance-time graph represent?

  • A. Constant speed
  • B. Acceleration
  • C. Stationary (not moving)
  • D. Deceleration
1 mark · foundationCommon

A horizontal line on a distance-time graph means distance is not changing with time — the object is stationary. The distance stays the same, so the object is not moving.

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26.

Which of the following is a non-contact force?

  • A. Friction
  • B. Tension
  • C. Normal contact force
  • D. Gravity
1 mark · standardCommon

Gravity is a non-contact force because it acts on objects without them needing to touch. Friction, tension, and normal contact force all require physical contact between objects.

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27.

A spring is stretched and returns to its original length when the force is removed. What type of deformation is this?

  • A. Inelastic deformation
  • B. Plastic deformation
  • C. Elastic deformation
  • D. Permanent deformation
1 mark · standardCommon

Elastic deformation occurs when an object returns to its original shape and size after the deforming force is removed. Inelastic (plastic) deformation is permanent - the object does not return to its original shape.

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28.

Look at the distance-time graph. What does a steeper gradient on a distance-time graph indicate?

  • A. A slower speed
  • B. Deceleration
  • C. A higher (faster) speed
  • D. The object is stationary
1 mark · standardCommon

A steeper gradient on a distance-time graph means the distance changes more quickly with time — the object is moving faster. Gradient = speed, so a steeper line = greater speed.

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Stopping Distances

Common15
1.

A road safety campaign states: 'Doubling your speed more than doubles your stopping distance.' Explain in detail why this statement is true, considering both thinking distance and braking distance.

6 marks · higherCommon

Stopping distance equals thinking distance plus braking distance. Thinking distance equals speed multiplied by reaction time. If speed doubles, thinking distance also doubles. Braking distance depends on how much kinetic energy must be removed by the brakes. Kinetic energy equals one-half times mass times velocity squared. If speed doubles, velocity squared quadruples (2 squared equals 4). This means kinetic energy quadruples. The brakes must do four times as much work to remove this kinetic energy. Using work done equals force times distance, if the braking force stays the same, the braking distance quadruples. So thinking distance doubles but braking distance quadruples. The total stopping distance more than doubles, confirming the statement.

  • Thinking distance = speed x reaction time. Doubling speed doubles thinking distance. (1m)
  • Braking distance depends on kinetic energy: Ek = 0.5mv^2 (1m)
  • Doubling speed quadruples kinetic energy (2^2 = 4) (1m)
  • Brakes must do 4 times more work to remove the kinetic energy (1m)
  • With the same braking force, braking distance quadruples (W = Fd) (1m)
  • Overall stopping distance more than doubles because the braking distance contribution quadruples, even though thinking distance only doubles (1m)

Thinking distance doubles when speed doubles. Braking distance quadruples because kinetic energy is proportional to v^2. Combined, the total stopping distance more than doubles.

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2.

A car of mass 1200 kg is travelling at 25 m/s. The braking force is 6000 N. Calculate the braking distance. Use the equations: kinetic energy = 0.5 x mass x speed^2 and work done = force x distance.

4 marks · higherCommon
  • Correct kinetic energy calculation: Ek = 0.5 x 1200 x 25^2 = 375,000 J (1m)
  • Equation: work done = braking force x braking distance (1m)
  • Rearrangement: braking distance = kinetic energy / braking force (1m)
  • Correct answer: 375,000 / 6000 = 62.5 m (1m)

Ek = 0.5 x 1200 x 625 = 375,000 J. Work done by brakes = 375,000 J. Distance = 375,000 / 6000 = 62.5 m.

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3.

During emergency braking, very large braking forces are applied. Explain how the braking force decelerates a car, and evaluate why very large braking forces could be dangerous.

4 marks · higherCommon

The braking force is produced by friction between the brake pads and the wheel disc. The braking force acts in the opposite direction to motion, producing a deceleration (Newton's second law: F = ma, so a = F/m). A very large braking force produces a very large deceleration. This is dangerous because the large deceleration can cause the wheels to lock (stop rotating) leading to loss of control and skidding. The driver and passengers may also experience large forces due to their inertia, which could cause injury.

  • Braking force opposes motion and causes deceleration (F = ma referenced) (1m)
  • Larger braking force produces larger deceleration (F = ma) (1m)
  • Very large deceleration can cause wheels to lock / skidding / loss of control (1m)
  • Large deceleration produces large forces on passengers due to inertia / risk of injury (1m)

Braking force decelerates the car via F=ma. Very large braking forces cause very large decelerations, which can lock wheels causing skidding. Passengers are also at risk from the large forces due to inertia.

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4.

A driver's stopping distance depends on both thinking distance and braking distance. Evaluate how tiredness and icy road conditions each affect stopping distance, explaining the physics behind your answer. [4 marks]

4 marks · challengeCommon

Tiredness increases the driver's reaction time, which increases thinking distance. Thinking distance = speed × reaction time, so a longer reaction time at any given speed directly increases thinking distance. Tiredness does not affect braking distance (assuming road and vehicle conditions are unchanged). Icy road conditions reduce the friction force between the tyres and the road surface. A smaller friction force means a smaller deceleration force is available when braking, so the vehicle takes longer to decelerate to rest — braking distance increases. Ice does not affect the driver's reaction time, so thinking distance is unchanged. Together, a tired driver on an icy road would have both a longer thinking distance and a longer braking distance, making overall stopping distance much larger.

  • Tiredness increases reaction time, which increases thinking distance (thinking distance = speed × reaction time) (1m)
  • Tiredness does not affect braking distance (braking distance depends on friction/deceleration not reaction time) (1m)
  • Icy roads reduce friction between tyres and road surface, reducing the braking force available (1m)
  • Smaller braking force means smaller deceleration, so the car takes longer to stop / braking distance increases; ice does not affect reaction time / thinking distance (1m)

Stopping distance = thinking distance + braking distance. Thinking distance depends only on reaction time (thinking distance = speed × reaction time) — tiredness slows reaction time and so increases thinking distance. Braking distance depends on the deceleration available, which in turn depends on the friction force between tyres and road. Ice reduces this friction force, reducing deceleration and increasing braking distance. Icy conditions do not affect the driver's reaction time, so thinking distance is unaffected. Tiredness does not affect road friction, so it does not increase braking distance. The two factors therefore affect different components of stopping distance.

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5.

Explain, using ideas about kinetic energy and work done, why braking distance increases much more than proportionally when vehicle speed increases. [4 marks]

4 marks · challengeCommon

Kinetic energy = ½mv². This means kinetic energy is proportional to the square of speed. If speed doubles, kinetic energy quadruples. When the brakes are applied, the braking force does work to remove all of the vehicle's kinetic energy. Work done = force × distance. If the braking force stays the same, a vehicle with four times the kinetic energy needs four times the braking distance to bring it to rest. Therefore, doubling the speed quadruples the braking distance, not doubles it — braking distance increases disproportionately with speed.

  • Kinetic energy = ½mv² — kinetic energy is proportional to speed squared / squaring speed multiplies KE by the square (1m)
  • Doubling speed quadruples kinetic energy (or appropriate numerical example showing non-proportional increase) (1m)
  • Work done by brakes = braking force × braking distance — must equal kinetic energy to bring vehicle to rest (1m)
  • With constant braking force, braking distance is proportional to kinetic energy / quadrupling KE requires quadrupling braking distance / braking distance increases with speed squared (1m)

The non-proportional relationship between speed and braking distance comes directly from two equations working together: KE = ½mv² (kinetic energy proportional to speed squared) and work done = force × distance. When a vehicle brakes, the braking force does work equal to the vehicle's kinetic energy. If braking force is fixed, braking distance must equal KE ÷ force. Since KE scales as speed², braking distance also scales as speed². Doubling speed → ×4 braking distance; tripling speed → ×9 braking distance. This is why high-speed crashes are so much more severe than low-speed ones.

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6.

A driver has a reaction time of 0.7 s. A car is travelling at 20 m/s. Calculate the thinking distance. Use the equation: thinking distance = speed x reaction time.

3 marks · standardCommon
  • Correct substitution: thinking distance = 20 x 0.7 (1m)
  • Correct calculation shown (1m)
  • Correct answer: 14 m (1m)

Thinking distance = speed x reaction time = 20 x 0.7 = 14 m.

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7.

Explain why a car travelling at higher speed has a greater braking distance than a car travelling at lower speed, assuming the same braking force.

3 marks · standardCommon

A car travelling at higher speed has more kinetic energy (Ek = 0.5mv^2, so Ek increases with speed squared). The brakes must transfer all this kinetic energy to thermal energy in the brake pads and tyres. Since the braking force is the same, more work must be done by the brakes, which requires a greater distance (work done = force x distance). Therefore the braking distance is greater.

  • Higher speed means greater kinetic energy (Ek is proportional to v^2) (1m)
  • Brakes must do more work to remove the greater kinetic energy (1m)
  • Since braking force is constant, greater distance is needed (work = force x distance) (1m)

Braking distance is greater at higher speeds because kinetic energy is proportional to v^2. Greater kinetic energy requires more work done by the brakes (W = Fd), and with the same braking force, a longer distance is needed.

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8.

Explain why a car's braking distance is greater on a wet road than on a dry road at the same speed.

3 marks · standardCommon

On a wet road, there is less friction between the tyres and the road surface. The braking force is produced by friction between the tyres and the road. With less friction, the braking force is reduced. Since work done = force x distance, a smaller force acting over a greater distance is needed to remove the same amount of kinetic energy, so the braking distance increases.

  • Wet road reduces friction between tyres and road surface (1m)
  • Reduced friction means smaller braking force (1m)
  • Smaller force requires greater distance to do the same work / remove the same kinetic energy (1m)

Wet road reduces friction, which reduces the braking force. Less braking force means a greater distance is needed to do the same amount of work to remove the kinetic energy.

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9.

A student uses the falling ruler test to measure their reaction time. Describe how this experiment would be carried out and how the reaction time is calculated from the results.

3 marks · higherCommon

One person holds a ruler vertically with the 0 cm mark at the bottom. The other person holds their fingers near the bottom of the ruler without touching it. Without warning, the first person releases the ruler and the second person catches it as quickly as possible. The distance the ruler falls is measured. This distance is used to calculate the reaction time using the equation: d = 0.5 x g x t^2, rearranged to t = sqrt(2d/g).

  • Ruler held vertically at zero end, subject's fingers positioned to catch without touching (1m)
  • Ruler released without warning; distance the ruler falls before being caught is measured (1m)
  • Reaction time calculated using d = 0.5 x g x t^2 rearranged as t = sqrt(2d/g) (1m)

In the falling ruler test, the distance fallen before catching is measured and t = sqrt(2d/g) gives the reaction time.

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10.

A car travels at 30 mph. The driver's thinking distance is 9 m and the braking distance is 14 m. Calculate the total stopping distance. Use the equation: stopping distance = thinking distance + braking distance.

2 marks · foundationCommon
  • Correct substitution: stopping distance = 9 + 14 (1m)
  • Correct answer: 23 m (1m)

Stopping distance = thinking distance + braking distance = 9 + 14 = 23 m.

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11.

Give two factors that can increase a driver's reaction time.

2 marks · foundationCommon

A driver's reaction time can be increased by tiredness (fatigue) and by the influence of alcohol or drugs.

  • Tiredness / fatigue / being distracted (1m)
  • Alcohol / drugs / medication (1m)

Factors that increase reaction time include tiredness/fatigue, alcohol, drugs, distractions (e.g. mobile phone), and some medications.

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12.

What is the correct definition of stopping distance?

  • A. The distance the car travels while the brakes are applied only
  • B. The distance the car travels during the driver's reaction time only
  • C. Thinking distance plus braking distance
  • D. The speed of the car divided by the braking force
1 mark · foundationCommon

Stopping distance = thinking distance + braking distance. Thinking distance is the distance travelled during the driver's reaction time. Braking distance is the distance travelled from when the brakes are applied until the car stops.

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13.

Which of the following would INCREASE a driver's thinking distance?

  • A. Driving on a wet road
  • B. Having worn tyres
  • C. Driving faster
  • D. Worn brake pads
1 mark · foundationCommon

Thinking distance = speed x reaction time. A higher speed means more distance is covered during the same reaction time, so thinking distance increases. Wet roads and worn tyres/brakes affect braking distance, not thinking distance.

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14.

A car doubles its speed. What happens to its braking distance (assuming the same braking force)?

  • A. It stays the same
  • B. It doubles
  • C. It triples
  • D. It quadruples (becomes 4 times larger)
1 mark · standardCommon

Kinetic energy = 0.5mv^2. Doubling speed quadruples kinetic energy (2^2 = 4). Since braking force is constant, the brakes must do 4 times more work, requiring 4 times the distance. So braking distance quadruples.

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15.

A driver is tired and has an increased reaction time. How does this affect their stopping distance at a given speed?

  • A. Thinking distance increases; braking distance stays the same
  • B. Braking distance increases; thinking distance stays the same
  • C. Both thinking distance and braking distance increase
  • D. Neither thinking distance nor braking distance is affected
1 mark · standardCommon

Reaction time affects thinking distance (distance = speed x reaction time). If reaction time increases, thinking distance increases. Braking distance depends on speed, braking force, and road/tyre conditions, not reaction time.

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Newton's Laws of Motion

Common24
1.

A skydiver jumps from a plane. Describe and explain the motion of the skydiver from the moment they jump until they reach terminal velocity. Your answer should include reference to the forces acting, how the forces change, and what happens to the velocity and acceleration at each stage. (6 marks - Level of Response)

6 marks · higherCommon

When the skydiver first jumps, weight is greater than air resistance. There is a resultant force downwards so the skydiver accelerates downwards (Newton's Second Law: F = ma). As speed increases, air resistance increases because drag depends on speed. The resultant force decreases because the difference between weight and air resistance gets smaller. Since resultant force decreases, the acceleration also decreases (Newton's Second Law). The skydiver continues to speed up but with decreasing acceleration. Eventually air resistance becomes equal to weight. The resultant force is now zero, so acceleration is zero. The skydiver moves at a constant velocity — this is terminal velocity (Newton's First Law).

  • Level 3 (5-6 marks): Logically sequenced account covering: (1) Initially weight > air resistance so resultant force is downward and skydiver accelerates. (2) As speed increases, air resistance increases. (3) The resultant force decreases as air resistance approaches weight. (4) Acceleration decreases as resultant force decreases. (5) At terminal velocity, weight = air resistance, forces balanced, resultant = 0, acceleration = 0, constant velocity. Uses Newton's Laws throughout. (6m)
  • Level 2 (3-4 marks): Identifies most stages but may not fully explain the changing resultant force or may not clearly link force changes to acceleration changes. (4m)
  • Level 1 (1-2 marks): Some relevant statements about forces or motion but not logically sequenced or linked. (2m)

Stage 1: Weight > air resistance. Resultant force downwards. Skydiver accelerates downwards (Newton's 2nd Law). Stage 2: As speed increases, air resistance increases. Resultant force decreases. Acceleration decreases. Stage 3: Terminal velocity reached when air resistance = weight. Resultant force = 0. Acceleration = 0. Constant velocity (Newton's 1st Law).

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2.

A rocket of mass 2000 kg accelerates upwards at 15 m/s^2. The gravitational field strength is 9.8 N/kg. Calculate the thrust force produced by the rocket engines. (Hint: the resultant force = thrust - weight)

4 marks · higherCommon
  • Correct calculation of weight: W = mg = 2000 x 9.8 = 19600 N (1m)
  • Correct calculation of resultant force: F = ma = 2000 x 15 = 30000 N (1m)
  • Correct rearrangement: thrust = resultant + weight = 30000 + 19600 (1m)
  • Correct answer: 49600 N (1m)

Weight = mg = 2000 x 9.8 = 19600 N. Resultant force = ma = 2000 x 15 = 30000 N. Since resultant = thrust - weight: thrust = 30000 + 19600 = 49600 N.

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3.

Explain the factors that affect the stopping distance of a car. Include both thinking distance and braking distance in your answer.

4 marks · higherCommon

Stopping distance is the sum of thinking distance and braking distance. Thinking distance is the distance the car travels while the driver reacts and applies the brakes. It increases if the driver's reaction time is longer - caused by tiredness, alcohol, drugs, or distractions. Braking distance is the distance the car travels after the brakes are applied until it stops. It increases with greater speed, reduced friction (wet/icy roads, worn tyres), greater mass of the car, and reduced braking force.

  • Stopping distance = thinking distance + braking distance (or both terms correctly defined) (1m)
  • Factors affecting thinking distance: reaction time increased by tiredness / alcohol / drugs / distractions (any one valid factor) (1m)
  • Factors affecting braking distance: increased speed / reduced friction (wet/icy roads, worn tyres) (any one valid factor) (1m)
  • Correct explanation of why the factor increases stopping distance (e.g. less friction means less deceleration so car takes longer to stop) (1m)

Stopping distance = thinking distance + braking distance. Thinking distance increases with longer reaction time (tiredness, alcohol, drugs, distractions). Braking distance increases with higher speed, reduced friction (ice, wet roads, worn tyres), and higher vehicle mass.

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4.

A satellite orbits Earth at a radius of 7000 km from Earth's centre with an orbital period of 100 minutes. Calculate the centripetal force on the satellite if its mass is 500 kg. Use: speed = 2 x pi x radius / period, and F = mv^2 / r

4 marks · higherCommon
  • Convert radius to metres: r = 7000 x 10^3 = 7 x 10^6 m; convert period to seconds: T = 100 x 60 = 6000 s (1m)
  • Calculate speed: v = 2 x pi x 7 x 10^6 / 6000 = 7330 m/s (accept 7330 to 7340 m/s) (1m)
  • Substitute into F = mv^2 / r: F = 500 x 7330^2 / 7 x 10^6 (1m)
  • Correct answer: F ≈ 3838 N (accept 3800–3850 N depending on π approximation) (1m)

Convert: r = 7 × 10^6 m, T = 6000 s. Calculate speed: v = 2π × 7 × 10^6 / 6000 = 7330 m/s. Calculate force: F = mv²/r = 500 × 7330² / 7,000,000 = 500 × 53,728,900 / 7,000,000 ≈ 3838 N. The centripetal force is directed toward Earth's centre. Accept answers in the range 3800–3850 N depending on how π is approximated.

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5.

A car of mass 1500 kg is travelling at 20 m/s and comes to rest in 4 seconds when the brakes are applied. Calculate the braking force. Show your working clearly.

4 marks · challengeCommon
  • Correct calculation of deceleration: a = (v - u) / t = (0 - 20) / 4 = -5 m/s^2 (or 5 m/s^2 deceleration) (1m)
  • Correct application of F = ma: F = 1500 x 5 (1m)
  • Correct answer: 7500 N (1m)
  • Correct direction stated (braking force acts backwards/in opposite direction to motion) (1m)

a = (0 - 20) / 4 = -5 m/s^2 (deceleration of 5 m/s^2). F = ma = 1500 x 5 = 7500 N (acting backwards to oppose motion).

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6.

An object decelerates uniformly from 20 m/s to rest over a displacement of 50 m. Calculate (a) the deceleration, and (b) the time taken to stop. Use: v^2 = u^2 + 2as and v = u + at

4 marks · challengeCommon
  • Part a: Correct substitution into v^2 = u^2 + 2as: 0 = 400 + 2a x 50, giving 100a = -400 (1m)
  • Part a: Correct deceleration: a = -4 m/s^2 (magnitude 4 m/s^2) (1m)
  • Part b: Correct substitution into v = u + at: 0 = 20 + (-4)t, giving 4t = 20 (1m)
  • Part b: Correct time: t = 5 s (accept answer to part b only if part a method is correct) (1m)

Part a: Using v² = u² + 2as: 0 = 20² + 2a × 50, so 0 = 400 + 100a, giving a = -4 m/s² (deceleration = 4 m/s²). Part b: Using v = u + at: 0 = 20 + (-4)t, so 4t = 20, giving t = 5 s. Take care with signs: deceleration means acceleration is negative when taking the initial direction as positive.

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7.

A resultant force of 600 N acts on a car of mass 1200 kg. Calculate the acceleration of the car. Use the equation: resultant force = mass x acceleration

3 marks · standardCommon
  • Correct rearrangement: a = F / m (1m)
  • Correct substitution: a = 600 / 1200 (1m)
  • Correct answer: 0.5 m/s^2 (1m)

Rearranging F = ma: a = F / m = 600 / 1200 = 0.5 m/s^2.

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8.

A bicycle and rider have a combined mass of 80 kg. The cyclist accelerates at 2.5 m/s^2. Calculate the resultant force on the cyclist. Use the equation: resultant force = mass x acceleration

3 marks · standardCommon
  • Correct substitution: F = 80 x 2.5 (1m)
  • Correct calculation: F = 200 (1m)
  • Correct answer with unit: 200 N (1m)

F = ma = 80 x 2.5 = 200 N.

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9.

A car starts from rest and accelerates at 2.5 m/s^2 for 8 seconds. Calculate the distance travelled. Use the equation: s = ut + 1/2 x a x t^2

3 marks · standardCommon
  • Correct identification: u = 0 m/s, a = 2.5 m/s^2, t = 8 s and correct substitution into s = ut + 1/2 at^2 (1m)
  • Correct working: s = 0 + 1/2 x 2.5 x 64 = 1.25 x 64 (1m)
  • Correct answer: s = 80 m (1m)

u = 0 (starts from rest). s = ut + ½at^2 = 0 + ½ x 2.5 x 8^2 = ½ x 2.5 x 64 = 1.25 x 64 = 80 m.

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10.

Explain Newton's Third Law using a person standing on the ground as an example. Why do action-reaction force pairs not cancel each other out?

3 marks · higherCommon

Newton's Third Law states that when object A exerts a force on object B, object B exerts an equal and opposite force on object A. For a person standing on the ground: the person exerts a downward force (their weight) on the ground; the ground exerts an equal force upward on the person (the normal contact force). These forces do not cancel out because they act on different objects - the weight acts on the ground and the normal contact force acts on the person.

  • Newton's Third Law: for every action there is an equal and opposite reaction / forces come in equal and opposite pairs that act on different objects (1m)
  • Correct example: person pushes down on ground (weight/gravity), ground pushes up on person (normal contact force) - forces equal in size (1m)
  • They do not cancel because they act on different objects (not the same object) (1m)

Action-reaction pairs are equal and opposite but act on DIFFERENT objects, so they cannot cancel. Cancellation requires forces to act on the SAME object. The person's weight acts on the Earth; the Earth's normal contact force acts on the person.

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11.

A skydiver jumps from a plane. Explain why the skydiver reaches a terminal velocity and state the forces acting at terminal velocity.

3 marks · higherCommon

When the skydiver first jumps, their weight (downward force) is greater than air resistance (drag), so there is a resultant force downward and they accelerate. As their speed increases, the air resistance increases. Eventually the air resistance equals the weight - the forces are balanced and there is no resultant force. The skydiver then falls at a constant velocity called terminal velocity.

  • Initially weight greater than air resistance/drag so there is a resultant force downwards and the skydiver accelerates (1m)
  • As speed increases, air resistance/drag increases (1m)
  • At terminal velocity, air resistance/drag equals weight - forces are balanced/resultant is zero - constant velocity (1m)

Terminal velocity occurs when weight = air resistance (balanced forces, no resultant). Before this, weight > drag so acceleration occurs. As speed increases, drag increases until balance is achieved.

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12.

A car of mass 1200 kg travels around a roundabout at a speed of 15 m/s. The radius of the roundabout is 50 m. Calculate the centripetal force acting on the car. Use the equation: F = mv^2 / r

3 marks · higherCommon
  • Correct substitution: F = 1200 x 15^2 / 50 = 1200 x 225 / 50 (1m)
  • Correct intermediate step: F = 270000 / 50 (1m)
  • Correct answer: F = 5400 N (1m)

F = mv^2 / r = 1200 x 15^2 / 50 = 1200 x 225 / 50 = 270000 / 50 = 5400 N. This inward (centripetal) force is provided by friction between the car tyres and the road surface.

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13.

Explain how a banked road allows a car to travel around a bend at higher speed without relying on friction from the tyres.

3 marks · higherCommon

A banked road is tilted inwards at an angle. The normal contact force from the road on the car acts perpendicular to the road surface. On a banked road this normal force is tilted, so it has a horizontal component that points towards the centre of the curve. This horizontal component provides the centripetal force needed for circular motion. Because the banking supplies centripetal force, the car can corner at higher speed without needing friction to provide it.

  • The road is banked/tilted so the normal contact force acts at an angle (not straight upward) (1m)
  • The normal force has a horizontal component directed towards the centre of the bend (1m)
  • This horizontal component provides the centripetal force, reducing the need for friction and allowing higher speeds (1m)

On a flat road, friction provides the centripetal force for cornering. On a banked road, the tilted normal force has a horizontal inward component that provides some or all of the centripetal force instead. This reduces (or eliminates) the need for friction, allowing higher cornering speeds.

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14.

A ball is thrown vertically upward at 15 m/s. Using g = 9.8 m/s^2, calculate the maximum height reached before the ball stops. Use the equation: v^2 = u^2 + 2as

3 marks · higherCommon
  • Correct identification: v = 0 m/s, u = 15 m/s, a = -9.8 m/s^2 and rearrangement: s = (v^2 - u^2) / 2a (1m)
  • Correct substitution: s = (0 - 225) / (2 x -9.8) = -225 / -19.6 (1m)
  • Correct answer: s = 11.5 m (accept 11.4 to 11.5 m) (1m)

Taking upward as positive: initial velocity u = +15 m/s, acceleration a = -10 m/s² (gravity acts downward), final velocity v = 0 m/s (at maximum height). Using v² = u² + 2as: 0 = 15² + 2 × (-10) × s, so 0 = 225 - 20s, giving s = 225/20 = 11.25 m ≈ 11.3 m. Common mistake: forgetting that g acts downward (negative) when upward is positive.

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15.

A spaceship is travelling through deep space far from any planets. The engines are switched off. Explain what will happen to the motion of the spaceship and why.

2 marks · standardCommon

The spaceship will continue to move at constant velocity - it will not slow down or change direction. This is because in deep space there is no resultant force acting on it (no friction, no air resistance, no gravity from nearby planets). According to Newton's First Law, an object with no resultant force acting on it continues at constant velocity.

  • The spaceship continues at constant velocity / same speed and direction / does not slow down (1m)
  • No resultant force acts on it (no friction / no air resistance in space) so Newton's First Law applies (1m)

In deep space there is no air resistance or friction, so no resultant force acts on the spaceship. By Newton's First Law, it continues at constant velocity indefinitely.

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16.

A car travels around a bend at a constant speed. Explain why a tighter bend (smaller radius) requires a larger centripetal force.

2 marks · standardCommon

Centripetal force is given by F = mv^2 / r. If the radius r is smaller and the speed stays the same, the centripetal force must increase because force and radius are inversely proportional. A tighter bend requires a larger inward force to keep the car on the circular path.

  • Centripetal force and radius are inversely proportional (from F = mv^2 / r) — as radius decreases, force increases (1m)
  • A larger inward/centripetal force is needed to maintain circular motion on a tighter bend (1m)

The equation F = mv^2/r shows that centripetal force and radius are inversely proportional. At constant speed and mass, halving the radius doubles the centripetal force. A tighter bend means the direction of travel must change more sharply, requiring a greater inward force.

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17.

Explain the difference between distance and displacement, and between speed and velocity.

2 marks · standardCommon

Distance is a scalar quantity — it has only magnitude (size) and no direction. Displacement is a vector — it has both magnitude and direction, describing how far an object has moved in a specific direction from its starting point. Speed is a scalar — it is the rate of change of distance. Velocity is a vector — it is the rate of change of displacement and includes direction.

  • Displacement has direction, distance does not / displacement is a vector, distance is a scalar (1m)
  • Velocity has direction, speed does not / velocity is a vector, speed is a scalar (1m)

Scalar quantities have magnitude only; vector quantities have magnitude AND direction. Distance and speed are scalars. Displacement and velocity are vectors — they specify both how much and in which direction.

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18.

According to Newton's First Law, what happens to an object when there is no resultant force acting on it?

  • A. It accelerates in the direction of motion
  • B. It remains at rest or continues moving at constant velocity
  • C. It decelerates and eventually stops
  • D. It changes direction
1 mark · foundationCommon

Newton's First Law states that an object at rest stays at rest, and an object in motion stays in motion at constant velocity, unless acted upon by a resultant (unbalanced) force. This is the principle of inertia.

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19.

Which equation correctly represents Newton's Second Law?

  • A. Force = mass / acceleration
  • B. Force = mass x acceleration
  • C. Force = mass + acceleration
  • D. Force = acceleration / mass
1 mark · foundationCommon

Newton's Second Law states that the resultant force on an object equals its mass multiplied by its acceleration: F = ma. Force is measured in newtons (N), mass in kilograms (kg), and acceleration in m/s^2.

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20.

A swimmer pushes backwards on the water with a force of 200 N. According to Newton's Third Law, what is the reaction force?

  • A. The water pushes the swimmer forwards with 200 N
  • B. The water pushes the swimmer backwards with 200 N
  • C. The water pushes the swimmer forwards with 100 N
  • D. There is no reaction force because the swimmer is moving
1 mark · standardCommon

Newton's Third Law states that for every action there is an equal and opposite reaction. The swimmer pushes the water backwards (action), so the water pushes the swimmer forwards with an equal force of 200 N (reaction). The forces are equal in size, opposite in direction, and act on different objects.

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21.

Which of the following best describes inertia?

  • A. The force that makes objects slow down
  • B. The tendency of an object to resist changes in its motion
  • C. The tendency of an object to resist changes in its state of motion, which increases with mass
  • D. The energy stored in a moving object
1 mark · standardCommon

Inertia is the tendency of an object to resist changes in its state of motion (whether at rest or moving). Objects with greater mass have greater inertia and require a larger resultant force to produce the same acceleration (F = ma). Kinetic energy is the energy of a moving object - this is a different concept.

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22.

An object is moving in a circle at constant speed. What is the direction of the centripetal force acting on the object?

  • A. Towards the centre of the circle
  • B. Away from the centre of the circle
  • C. Tangential to the circle in the direction of motion
  • D. Along the radius outward from the centre
1 mark · standardCommon

The centripetal force always points towards the centre of the circle. This inward force is what keeps the object moving in a circular path rather than flying off in a straight line. Without it, the object would travel in a straight line (Newton's First Law). The force is centripetal (centre-seeking), not centrifugal.

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23.

A ball rolls from rest and you know its acceleration and the time it has been rolling. Which equation would you use to find how far it has travelled?

  • A. v = u + at
  • B. v^2 = u^2 + 2as
  • C. s = ut + 1/2 at^2
  • D. F = ma
1 mark · standardCommon

The equation s = ut + ½at² links displacement (s), initial velocity (u), acceleration (a) and time (t). It is one of the kinematic (SUVAT) equations. Option A links v, u, a, t but not displacement. Option B links v, u, a, s but not time. F = ma is Newton's Second Law, not a kinematic equation.

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24.

A ball on a string is swung in a horizontal circle. The string suddenly breaks. Which direction does the ball travel immediately after the string breaks?

  • A. Towards the centre of the circle
  • B. Away from the centre along the radius
  • C. Straight downward due to gravity only
  • D. Tangentially — in a straight line in the direction it was moving at that instant
1 mark · higherCommon

When the string breaks, the centripetal force disappears. By Newton's First Law, the ball continues in a straight line at the velocity it had at the instant of breaking — which is tangential to the circle (at right angles to the radius). This is why mud flies off a spinning wheel tangentially, and why objects on a roundabout feel thrown outward.

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Momentum

Common13
1.

A 2 kg ball travelling at 3 m/s to the right collides with a 1 kg ball travelling at 2 m/s to the left. After the collision, the 2 kg ball travels at 0.33 m/s to the right. Calculate the velocity of the 1 kg ball after the collision. Determine whether this is an elastic or inelastic collision by comparing the total kinetic energy before and after. Show all your working clearly.

6 marks · higherCommon

Taking right as positive: momentum of 2 kg ball before = 2 x 3 = 6 kg m/s. Momentum of 1 kg ball before = 1 x (-2) = -2 kg m/s. Total momentum before = 6 + (-2) = 4 kg m/s. By conservation of momentum, total momentum after = 4 kg m/s. Momentum of 2 kg ball after = 2 x 0.33 = 0.66 kg m/s. Momentum of 1 kg ball after = 4 - 0.66 = 3.34 kg m/s. Velocity of 1 kg ball = 3.34 / 1 = 3.34 m/s to the right. KE before = 0.5 x 2 x 3 squared + 0.5 x 1 x 2 squared = 9 + 2 = 11 J. KE after = 0.5 x 2 x 0.33 squared + 0.5 x 1 x 3.34 squared = 0.11 + 5.58 = 5.69 J. Since KE after (5.69 J) is less than KE before (11 J), kinetic energy is not conserved. This is an inelastic collision.

  • Total momentum before = (2 x 3) + (1 x -2) = 6 - 2 = 4 kg m/s (to the right) (1m)
  • Momentum after: 2 x 0.33 = 0.66 kg m/s. Momentum of 1 kg ball = 4 - 0.66 = 3.34 kg m/s (1m)
  • Velocity of 1 kg ball = 3.34 / 1 = 3.34 m/s to the right (accept answers consistent with conservation) (1m)
  • KE before: 0.5 x 2 x 9 + 0.5 x 1 x 4 = 9 + 2 = 11 J (1m)
  • KE after: 0.5 x 2 x 0.33^2 + 0.5 x 1 x 3.34^2 = 0.11 + 5.58 = 5.69 J (approximately) (1m)
  • KE after < KE before, so kinetic energy is not conserved - this is an inelastic collision (1m)

Total p before = 4 kg m/s. After: 1 kg ball velocity ≈ 3.34 m/s right. KE before = 11 J, KE after ≈ 5.69 J. KE is not conserved, so this is an inelastic collision.

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2.

A gun of mass 2.5 kg fires a bullet of mass 0.010 kg. The bullet leaves the barrel at 400 m/s. Before firing, both are stationary. Calculate the recoil velocity of the gun after firing.

4 marks · higherCommon
  • States total momentum before = 0 (both stationary) (1m)
  • Momentum of bullet after = 0.010 x 400 = 4 kg m/s (1m)
  • Gun momentum = -4 kg m/s (opposite direction to bullet) (1m)
  • Recoil velocity = 4 / 2.5 = 1.6 m/s (in opposite direction to bullet) (1m)

Total momentum before = 0. Bullet momentum = 0.010 x 400 = 4 kg m/s. Gun momentum = -4 kg m/s. Recoil velocity = 4 / 2.5 = 1.6 m/s in the opposite direction to the bullet.

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3.

Two identical balls, each of mass 0.5 kg, collide. Ball A moves at 6 m/s and ball B is stationary. After the collision, ball A stops completely. Explain whether momentum is conserved and whether kinetic energy is conserved in this collision.

4 marks · higherCommon

Momentum before: ball A has p = 0.5 x 6 = 3 kg m/s; ball B has p = 0. Total = 3 kg m/s. After collision: ball A is stationary (p = 0), so ball B must have p = 3 kg m/s, giving velocity = 3/0.5 = 6 m/s. Total momentum after = 3 kg m/s. Momentum is conserved. Kinetic energy before: Ek = 0.5 x 0.5 x 36 = 9 J. After: Ek = 0.5 x 0.5 x 36 = 9 J. Kinetic energy is also conserved, so this is an elastic collision.

  • Momentum before = 3 kg m/s; after collision ball B must have momentum 3 kg m/s (1m)
  • Ball B velocity after = 6 m/s; total momentum after = 3 kg m/s, so momentum is conserved (1m)
  • Kinetic energy before = 0.5 x 0.5 x 36 = 9 J; kinetic energy after = 9 J (1m)
  • Kinetic energy is conserved; this is an elastic collision (1m)

Momentum: 3 kg m/s before and after (conserved). KE: 9 J before and after (conserved). This is an elastic collision.

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4.

A 3 kg trolley moving at 4 m/s collides with a stationary 1 kg trolley and they stick together. Calculate their combined velocity after the collision. Use the principle of conservation of momentum: total momentum before = total momentum after.

3 marks · standardCommon
  • Correct total momentum before: 3 x 4 = 12 kg m/s (1m)
  • Correct equation after: (3 + 1) x v = 12 (1m)
  • Correct answer: v = 3 m/s (1m)

Total momentum before = 3 x 4 + 1 x 0 = 12 kg m/s. After: (3 + 1) x v = 12, so v = 12 / 4 = 3 m/s.

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5.

A stationary firework rocket explodes and splits into two pieces that fly apart in opposite directions. Explain why this is consistent with conservation of momentum.

3 marks · standardCommon

Before the explosion, the total momentum of the stationary rocket is zero. After the explosion, the two pieces fly apart in opposite directions. Their momenta are equal in magnitude but opposite in direction, so they cancel out. The total momentum after the explosion is also zero. This equals the total momentum before, so momentum is conserved.

  • Total momentum before explosion is zero (rocket stationary) (1m)
  • After explosion, pieces move in opposite directions with equal and opposite momenta (1m)
  • Total momentum after = zero, which equals total momentum before, so momentum is conserved (1m)

Before: total momentum = 0. After: two pieces with equal and opposite momenta, total = 0. Momentum is conserved.

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6.

Newton's second law can be written as: force = change in momentum / time taken. Explain how this equation relates to the more familiar form F = ma.

3 marks · higherCommon

Change in momentum = m x change in velocity = m x (v - u). Dividing by time: F = m(v - u)/t. Since (v - u)/t is the definition of acceleration (a = change in velocity / time), this gives F = ma. So Newton's second law written using momentum is equivalent to F = ma when mass is constant.

  • Change in momentum = mass x change in velocity (m x delta v or m(v-u)) (1m)
  • Dividing by time: F = m(v-u)/t (1m)
  • Identifies (v-u)/t as acceleration, giving F = ma (1m)

Change in momentum = m(v-u). F = m(v-u)/t = ma, since a = (v-u)/t.

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7.

A car of mass 1500 kg is travelling at 20 m/s. Calculate the momentum of the car. Use the equation: momentum = mass x velocity.

2 marks · foundationCommon
  • Correct substitution: p = 1500 x 20 (1m)
  • Correct answer: 30,000 kg m/s (1m)

p = mv = 1500 x 20 = 30,000 kg m/s.

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8.

Explain what is meant by saying momentum is a vector quantity.

2 marks · standardCommon

Momentum is a vector quantity because it has both magnitude and direction. The direction of the momentum is the same as the direction of the velocity. When calculating with momenta in opposite directions, one must be given a positive sign and one a negative sign.

  • Momentum has both magnitude and direction (1m)
  • Direction of momentum is the same as the direction of velocity / opposing momenta have opposite signs (1m)

Momentum is a vector - it has both magnitude (mass x speed) and direction (same as velocity). Objects moving in opposite directions have momenta with opposite signs.

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9.

What is the equation for momentum?

  • A. momentum = mass / velocity
  • B. momentum = mass + velocity
  • C. momentum = mass x velocity
  • D. momentum = force x time
1 mark · foundationCommon

Momentum (p) = mass (m) x velocity (v). The unit of momentum is kg m/s. Note that option D describes impulse, not momentum.

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10.

What is the unit of momentum?

  • A. kg m/s
  • B. Newtons (N)
  • C. Joules (J)
  • D. Watts (W)
1 mark · foundationCommon

The unit of momentum is kg m/s (kilogram metres per second). This comes from the equation p = mv, where m is in kg and v is in m/s.

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11.

State the law of conservation of momentum.

1 mark · foundationCommon

In a closed system, the total momentum before an event equals the total momentum after the event.

  • Total momentum before = total momentum after (in a closed system / no external forces) (1m)

Conservation of momentum: total momentum before = total momentum after, provided the system is closed (no net external forces).

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12.

Two ice skaters (A and B) stand still on a frictionless surface. Skater A pushes skater B. What can be said about their momenta after the push?

  • A. Both skaters have the same momentum in the same direction
  • B. Both skaters have zero momentum
  • C. The momenta are equal in magnitude but opposite in direction, so total momentum is zero
  • D. Skater A has greater momentum than skater B
1 mark · standardCommon

By conservation of momentum, the total momentum before (zero, as both were stationary) must equal the total momentum after. So the momenta of A and B must be equal and opposite, summing to zero.

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13.

A 2 kg ball moving east at 5 m/s has a momentum of +10 kg m/s. It bounces off a wall and moves west at 5 m/s. What is its momentum after the bounce?

  • A. +10 kg m/s
  • B. 0 kg m/s
  • C. -10 kg m/s
  • D. The sign depends on the direction chosen as positive, but magnitude is 10 kg m/s
1 mark · standardCommon

Momentum is a vector. If east is positive, momentum before = +10 kg m/s, momentum after = -10 kg m/s (moving west). The change in momentum = -10 - (+10) = -20 kg m/s. The sign depends on which direction is defined as positive.

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Moments & Levers

Common13
1.

A student investigates levers by balancing objects on a metre rule pivoted at its centre. They place a 4 N weight at the 20 cm mark and want to balance it with a 5 N weight. Describe how the student should use the principle of moments to find where to place the 5 N weight, calculate the correct position, and evaluate one source of error in this experiment and how it could be reduced.

6 marks · higherCommon

The principle of moments states that for a balanced system (in equilibrium), the sum of clockwise moments equals the sum of anticlockwise moments. The pivot is at the 50 cm mark. The 4 N weight is at the 20 cm mark, which is 30 cm from the pivot. The anticlockwise moment is 4 N times 30 cm equals 120 Ncm. For equilibrium, the clockwise moment from the 5 N weight must also equal 120 Ncm. So 5 N times d equals 120, giving d equals 24 cm from the pivot. The 5 N weight should be placed at the 74 cm mark. A source of error is that the metre rule may not be perfectly uniform in mass distribution, so the centre of mass may not be exactly at 50 cm. To reduce this error, check that the rule balances horizontally on the pivot before adding any weights, and repeat measurements to check consistency.

  • States principle of moments: clockwise moment = anticlockwise moment (1m)
  • Calculates anticlockwise moment: 4 N x 30 cm = 120 Ncm (or 4 x 0.30 = 1.2 Nm) (1m)
  • Sets up equation for 5 N weight: 5 x d = 120 (or 1.2) (1m)
  • Correct answer: d = 24 cm from pivot, so at 74 cm mark (or 26 cm mark on other side) (1m)
  • Identifies a valid source of error (e.g. metre rule may not be exactly uniform/calibrated; pivot friction; difficulty reading exact position) (1m)
  • Suggests a valid improvement (e.g. repeat and take mean; use a more precise ruler; ensure pivot is frictionless; check ruler is horizontal before starting) (1m)

Pivot is at 50 cm. The 4 N weight is at 20 cm, which is 30 cm from the pivot. Anticlockwise moment = 4 x 30 = 120 Ncm. For equilibrium: 5 x d = 120, so d = 24 cm from the pivot, placing the 5 N weight at the 74 cm mark.

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2.

A uniform beam is balanced on a pivot. A 60 N weight is placed 2 m to the left of the pivot. A second weight is placed 3 m to the right of the pivot. The beam is in equilibrium. Calculate the size of the second weight. Use the principle of moments: total clockwise moment = total anticlockwise moment.

3 marks · standardCommon
  • Correct anticlockwise moment: 60 x 2 = 120 Nm (1m)
  • Correct equation: F x 3 = 120 (1m)
  • Correct answer: F = 40 N (1m)

Anticlockwise moment = 60 x 2 = 120 Nm. For equilibrium: F x 3 = 120. F = 120 / 3 = 40 N.

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3.

Explain how a lever can be used to lift a heavy load with a smaller effort force.

3 marks · standardCommon

A lever has a pivot (fulcrum), a load and an effort force. The effort is applied at a greater distance from the pivot than the load. Because moment = force x distance, the larger distance means that a smaller effort force can produce the same moment as a larger load force, so the heavy load can be lifted.

  • Effort is applied at a greater distance from the pivot than the load (1m)
  • Moment = force x distance stated or implied (1m)
  • Larger distance allows smaller force to produce the same (or greater) moment (1m)

Levers allow a small effort to overcome a larger load by applying the effort at a greater distance from the pivot. Since M = F x d, the same moment can be produced with a smaller force if the distance is larger.

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4.

A 45 N force is applied to a lever. The clockwise moment produced is 36 Nm. Calculate the perpendicular distance from the pivot at which the force is applied.

3 marks · higherCommon
  • Correct equation: moment = force x distance, so distance = moment / force (1m)
  • Correct substitution: distance = 36 / 45 (1m)
  • Correct answer: 0.8 m (1m)

Rearranging M = F x d gives d = M / F = 36 / 45 = 0.8 m.

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5.

Explain why a wide-based object with a low centre of gravity is more stable than a tall object with a high centre of gravity.

3 marks · higherCommon

A wide-based object is more stable because when tilted, the vertical line through the centre of gravity still falls within the base. The restoring moment from the weight brings the object back upright. A tall object with a high centre of gravity will topple when tilted because the vertical line through the centre of gravity quickly passes outside the base, causing the moment due to weight to rotate the object further away from upright.

  • Wide base means vertical line through centre of gravity remains within the base when tilted (1m)
  • Weight of object creates a restoring moment when centre of gravity is within base (1m)
  • High centre of gravity means the line through it quickly falls outside the base, causing toppling moment (1m)

Stability depends on whether the weight of the object creates a restoring moment or a toppling moment. A low, wide-based object keeps the weight acting within the base through larger tilts, creating a restoring moment. A tall object's high centre of gravity quickly moves the weight line outside the base, creating a toppling moment.

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6.

A student opens a door by pushing at the edge furthest from the hinges. Explain why pushing at the edge is more effective than pushing near the hinges, and explain what would happen to the effort needed if the student pushed at half the distance from the hinges.

3 marks · higherCommon

Pushing at the edge (greatest distance from the pivot/hinges) maximises the perpendicular distance from the pivot, so for a given force the moment is largest. This makes it easiest to rotate the door. If the student pushed at half the distance, the perpendicular distance would be halved, so the moment would be halved for the same force. To produce the same moment to open the door, the student would need to apply twice the force.

  • Larger distance from pivot (hinges) produces a larger moment for the same force (1m)
  • At half the distance, the moment would be halved for the same force (1m)
  • Twice the force would be needed to produce the same moment at half the distance (1m)

Moment = F x d. Greater distance from hinges = larger moment for same force. Halving distance halves the moment, so the force must double to produce the same moment.

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7.

A force of 20 N is applied at a perpendicular distance of 0.5 m from a pivot. Calculate the moment of this force. Use the equation: moment = force x perpendicular distance from pivot.

2 marks · foundationCommon
  • Correct substitution: moment = 20 x 0.5 (1m)
  • Correct answer: 10 Nm (1m)

moment = F x d = 20 x 0.5 = 10 Nm

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8.

State the principle of moments.

2 marks · standardCommon

For a system in equilibrium, the total clockwise moment about a pivot equals the total anticlockwise moment about the same pivot.

  • Clockwise moments equal anticlockwise moments (1m)
  • Reference to equilibrium or balanced system (1m)

The principle of moments states that for equilibrium, the total clockwise moment equals the total anticlockwise moment about any pivot.

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9.

What is a moment?

  • A. The mass of an object multiplied by its speed
  • B. The turning effect of a force about a pivot
  • C. The pressure exerted by a force on a surface
  • D. The rate of change of velocity
1 mark · foundationCommon

A moment is the turning effect of a force about a pivot point. It is calculated as moment = force x perpendicular distance from the pivot.

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10.

What is the equation for the moment of a force?

  • A. moment = force / distance
  • B. moment = force + distance
  • C. moment = mass x gravity
  • D. moment = force x perpendicular distance from pivot
1 mark · foundationCommon

The equation for moment is M = F x d, where F is the force in Newtons and d is the perpendicular distance from the pivot in metres. The unit of moment is Newton-metres (Nm).

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11.

A seesaw is balanced (in equilibrium). Which statement is correct?

  • A. The total clockwise moment equals the total anticlockwise moment
  • B. All forces acting on the seesaw are zero
  • C. The seesaw has no weight
  • D. The clockwise moment is greater than the anticlockwise moment
1 mark · foundationCommon

For a system to be in equilibrium (balanced), the principle of moments states that the sum of all clockwise moments must equal the sum of all anticlockwise moments about any pivot point.

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12.

State the unit of moment.

1 mark · foundationCommon

The unit of moment is the Newton-metre (Nm).

  • Newton-metre (Nm) stated as the unit (1m)

Moment = force (N) x distance (m), so the unit of moment is Newton-metres (Nm).

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13.

A spanner is used to loosen a bolt. Using a longer spanner handle makes it easier to turn the bolt. Why?

  • A. The longer handle has less mass, so less force is needed
  • B. A longer distance from the pivot creates a larger moment for the same force
  • C. The longer handle increases the friction between spanner and bolt
  • D. The longer handle reduces the force needed to hold the bolt still
1 mark · standardCommon

Moment = force x distance. Using a longer handle increases the distance from the pivot (the bolt), so a larger moment is created for the same applied force. This makes it easier to rotate the bolt.

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Impulse & Collisions

Common13
1.

In a car crash test, a 1500 kg car travelling at 15 m/s hits a barrier. The car comes to rest in 0.12 s without crumple zones and in 0.8 s with crumple zones. Calculate the average force on the car in both cases and evaluate the safety benefits of crumple zones, using your calculations and the concept of impulse to support your answer.

6 marks · 8-9Common

Change in momentum = mass x change in velocity = 1500 x 15 = 22,500 kg m/s. This is the same in both cases. Force equals change in momentum divided by time. Without crumple zones: F = 22,500 divided by 0.12 = 187,500 N. With crumple zones: F = 22,500 divided by 0.8 = 28,125 N. The crumple zone reduces the force by a factor of 6.7 (187,500 divided by 28,125). The impulse (change in momentum) is the same in both cases because the car starts and ends with the same velocities. The crumple zone increases the collision time, which reduces the force for the same impulse. By Newton's Second Law, the smaller force produces a smaller acceleration on the passengers, greatly reducing the risk of serious injury.

  • Change in momentum = 1500 x 15 = 22,500 kg m/s (in both cases) (1m)
  • Force without crumple zone = 22,500 / 0.12 = 187,500 N (1m)
  • Force with crumple zone = 22,500 / 0.8 = 28,125 N (1m)
  • Crumple zone reduces force by a factor of approximately 6.7 (187,500 / 28,125) (1m)
  • The impulse (change in momentum) is the same in both cases - the crumple zone does not reduce the change in momentum (1m)
  • The much smaller force with crumple zones greatly reduces the risk of serious injury to passengers (by Newton's 2nd law, smaller force = smaller acceleration = less bodily harm) (1m)

Both cases: delta p = 22,500 kg m/s. Without crumple: F = 22,500/0.12 = 187,500 N. With crumple: F = 22,500/0.8 = 28,125 N. Crumple zone reduces force by factor ~6.7. Impulse same in both cases. Much smaller force with crumple zones greatly reduces injury risk.

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2.

A 1200 kg car is travelling at 30 m/s when it collides with a wall and comes to rest. The collision lasts 0.06 s. Calculate the average force exerted on the car during the collision.

4 marks · higherCommon
  • Change in momentum = 1200 x 30 = 36,000 kg m/s (1m)
  • Correct equation: F = delta p / t (1m)
  • Correct substitution: F = 36,000 / 0.06 (1m)
  • Correct answer: 600,000 N (1m)

Delta p = 1200 x 30 = 36,000 kg m/s. F = 36,000 / 0.06 = 600,000 N.

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3.

A force-time graph shows a variable force acting on an object. Explain what the area under a force-time graph represents, and explain how the shape of the graph changes if the same impulse is delivered over a longer time.

4 marks · higherCommon

The area under a force-time graph represents the impulse delivered to the object. Impulse equals change in momentum, so the area also represents the change in momentum of the object. If the same impulse is delivered over a longer time, the area must remain the same, but the graph becomes wider (longer time axis) and shorter (lower peak force). The peak force is reduced because the same total impulse is spread over a greater time interval.

  • Area under force-time graph represents impulse (1m)
  • Impulse equals change in momentum (1m)
  • Same impulse over longer time: graph is wider (longer time) (1m)
  • Peak force is lower (so that the area under the graph remains the same) (1m)

Area under F-t graph = impulse = change in momentum. Same impulse over longer time: graph widens and peak force decreases, maintaining the same area.

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4.

A 0.4 kg ball is kicked and its velocity changes from 0 m/s to 15 m/s. The kick lasts for 0.05 s. Calculate the average force applied to the ball. Use the equations: change in momentum = mass x change in velocity, and force = change in momentum / time.

3 marks · standardCommon
  • Change in momentum = 0.4 x 15 = 6 kg m/s (1m)
  • Correct equation: force = change in momentum / time (1m)
  • Correct answer: force = 6 / 0.05 = 120 N (1m)

Delta p = 0.4 x 15 = 6 kg m/s. F = 6 / 0.05 = 120 N.

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5.

Explain how an airbag reduces the risk of injury to a driver in a collision.

3 marks · standardCommon

During a collision, a driver experiences a change in momentum (they decelerate from the car's speed to zero). An airbag increases the time taken for the driver to slow down. Since impulse = force x time = change in momentum, and the change in momentum is fixed, a longer time means the force acting on the driver is reduced. This smaller force means less injury to the driver.

  • The airbag increases the time over which the driver decelerates / increases collision time (1m)
  • Change in momentum is the same / impulse = F x t = change in momentum (constant) (1m)
  • Longer time means smaller force (F = delta p / t), reducing risk of injury (1m)

Airbag increases collision time. Impulse = F x t = change in momentum (fixed). Longer time = smaller force = less injury.

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6.

Explain how crumple zones in cars improve safety during a collision.

3 marks · standardCommon

Crumple zones are designed to deform and collapse during a collision, increasing the time over which the car (and its occupants) decelerates. The change in momentum (impulse) of the car is fixed. Since impulse = force x time, a longer collision time means the force acting on the car and its occupants is smaller. This reduces the forces on passengers, reducing the risk of serious injury.

  • Crumple zone deforms during collision, increasing the time of the collision (1m)
  • Change in momentum / impulse is the same regardless of crumple zone (1m)
  • Longer time means smaller force (F = impulse / t), reducing injury to occupants (1m)

Crumple zones extend collision time. Same impulse over longer time = smaller force on passengers.

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7.

Explain the difference between an elastic collision and an inelastic collision in terms of conservation laws.

3 marks · higherCommon

In both elastic and inelastic collisions, momentum is always conserved (total momentum before equals total momentum after). In an elastic collision, kinetic energy is also conserved - the total kinetic energy before equals the total kinetic energy after. In an inelastic collision, kinetic energy is not conserved; some kinetic energy is converted to thermal energy, sound, or deformation of materials.

  • Both collisions conserve momentum (1m)
  • Elastic collision: kinetic energy is also conserved (1m)
  • Inelastic collision: kinetic energy is not conserved (converted to thermal energy / sound / deformation) (1m)

Both conserve momentum. Elastic collisions also conserve kinetic energy. Inelastic collisions convert some kinetic energy to thermal energy, sound or deformation.

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8.

A force of 500 N acts on a ball for 0.04 s. Calculate the impulse. Use the equation: impulse = force x time.

2 marks · foundationCommon
  • Correct substitution: impulse = 500 x 0.04 (1m)
  • Correct answer: 20 Ns (1m)

Impulse = F x t = 500 x 0.04 = 20 Ns.

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9.

Which equation correctly defines impulse?

  • A. impulse = force / time
  • B. impulse = force x time
  • C. impulse = mass x acceleration
  • D. impulse = mass x velocity
1 mark · foundationCommon

Impulse = force x time (F x t). Impulse is equal to the change in momentum of an object. Option D is momentum (p = mv), which is related but not the definition of impulse.

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10.

Impulse is equal to which of the following?

  • A. The change in momentum of an object
  • B. The total momentum of a system
  • C. The mass multiplied by the distance
  • D. The kinetic energy of an object
1 mark · foundationCommon

Impulse = F x t = change in momentum (delta p). This comes from Newton's second law: F = delta p / delta t, rearranged to F x delta t = delta p.

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11.

State the unit of impulse.

1 mark · foundationCommon

The unit of impulse is the Newton-second (Ns).

  • Newton-second (Ns) or kg m/s (1m)

Impulse = F x t, so units = N x s = Ns. This is equivalent to kg m/s (the unit of momentum).

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12.

A car airbag increases the time of a collision from 0.02 s to 0.2 s. The change in momentum of the passenger is the same in both cases. What effect does this have on the force experienced by the passenger?

  • A. The force is 10 times larger
  • B. The force stays the same
  • C. The force becomes zero
  • D. The force is 10 times smaller
1 mark · standardCommon

Impulse = F x t = change in momentum (constant). If t increases by a factor of 10 (from 0.02 to 0.2 s) and impulse is constant, the force must decrease by a factor of 10. F = impulse / t.

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13.

A crumple zone at the front of a car is designed to deform during a collision. What is the main safety benefit of this design?

  • A. It increases the change in momentum of the car
  • B. It reduces the total kinetic energy of the car
  • C. It increases the duration of the collision, reducing the force on passengers
  • D. It prevents the car from stopping
1 mark · standardCommon

Crumple zones increase the time over which the collision occurs. Since impulse = F x t = change in momentum, and the change in momentum is fixed, a longer collision time means a smaller force. This reduces the force experienced by the passengers, reducing injury.

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Work Done & Energy Transfer

Common13
1.

A ball is thrown upwards, rises, and then falls back to the ground. Describe and explain all the energy transfers that occur from the moment the ball is thrown until it hits the ground. Your answer should include reference to work done, the energy stores involved, and the conservation of energy. (6 marks - Level of Response)

6 marks · higherCommon

When the ball is thrown, work is done by the hand on the ball. Energy transfers from the chemical energy store of the thrower's muscles to the kinetic energy store of the ball. As the ball rises, kinetic energy decreases and gravitational potential energy increases. Air resistance acts on the ball throughout, transferring some energy from the kinetic energy store to the thermal energy store of the surroundings. At the top of the flight, almost all kinetic energy has been converted to gravitational potential energy. As the ball falls, gravitational potential energy decreases and kinetic energy increases. When the ball hits the ground, the kinetic energy is transferred to thermal energy (from the impact), sound energy, and elastic deformation energy of the ball and ground. Throughout all stages, the total energy remains constant — energy is conserved (it cannot be created or destroyed, only transferred between stores).

  • Level 3 (5-6 marks): Logically sequenced answer including: (1) Throw: work done by hand on ball transfers chemical energy to kinetic energy. (2) Rising: kinetic energy decreases, gravitational potential energy increases as ball gains height. Work done against gravity. (3) If air resistance present: some kinetic energy continuously transferred to thermal energy. (4) Falling: gravitational potential energy decreases, kinetic energy increases. (5) Landing: kinetic energy transferred to other stores (thermal, sound, elastic deformation). (6) Overall: total energy is conserved throughout - energy transferred between stores but total remains constant. Must reference conservation of energy and work done. (6m)
  • Level 2 (3-4 marks): Identifies most energy transfers correctly but may not fully explain work done or conservation, or may miss some stages. (4m)
  • Level 1 (1-2 marks): Some relevant energy stores identified but transfers not clearly explained or linked incorrectly. (2m)

Throw: chemical energy (hand/muscles) transferred to kinetic energy of ball via work done by the throwing force. Rising: kinetic energy decreases, gravitational potential energy increases. Air resistance transfers some energy to thermal store throughout. Falling: gravitational PE converts back to kinetic energy. Landing: kinetic energy transferred to thermal energy, sound energy, and elastic deformation of ball/ground. Throughout: total energy is conserved (conservation of energy: energy cannot be created or destroyed, only transferred between stores).

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2.

An electric motor has a power of 2400 W. It operates for 5 minutes. Calculate the work done by the motor. Give your answer in joules.

4 marks · higherCommon
  • Correct time conversion: 5 minutes = 300 seconds (1m)
  • Correct equation: W = Pt or rearrangement of P = W/t (1m)
  • Correct substitution: W = 2400 x 300 (1m)
  • Correct answer: 720000 J (or 720 kJ) (1m)

Time = 5 x 60 = 300 s. W = Pt = 2400 x 300 = 720000 J (720 kJ).

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3.

A car of mass 900 kg accelerates from 0 m/s to 20 m/s over a distance of 80 m. Assuming all work done by the engine is transferred to kinetic energy, calculate the average driving force. Use the equations: kinetic energy = 0.5 x mass x speed^2 and work done = force x distance

4 marks · challengeCommon
  • Correct calculation of kinetic energy: Ek = 0.5 x 900 x 20^2 = 180000 J (1m)
  • Statement that work done = kinetic energy gained = 180000 J (1m)
  • Rearrangement: F = W / s = 180000 / 80 (1m)
  • Correct answer: 2250 N (1m)

Ek = 0.5 x 900 x 400 = 180000 J. Work done = 180000 J. F = W/s = 180000 / 80 = 2250 N.

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4.

A student drags a box along the floor with a horizontal force of 75 N over a distance of 8 m. Calculate the work done by the student. Use the equation: work done = force x distance

3 marks · standardCommon
  • Correct substitution: W = 75 x 8 (1m)
  • Correct calculation: W = 600 (1m)
  • Correct answer with unit: 600 J (1m)

W = Fs = 75 x 8 = 600 J.

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5.

A crane lifts a steel beam of mass 500 kg to a height of 12 m. Gravitational field strength = 9.8 N/kg. Calculate the work done against gravity. Use the equations: weight = mass x gravitational field strength and work done = force x distance

3 marks · standardCommon
  • Correct weight: W = 500 x 9.8 = 4900 N (1m)
  • Correct substitution: work done = 4900 x 12 (1m)
  • Correct answer: 58800 J (or 58.8 kJ) (1m)

Weight = mg = 500 x 9.8 = 4900 N. Work done = F x d = 4900 x 12 = 58800 J.

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6.

A motor does 4500 J of work moving a load through a distance of 15 m. Calculate the force the motor exerts on the load.

3 marks · higherCommon
  • Correct rearrangement: F = W / s = 4500 / 15 (1m)
  • Correct calculation: F = 300 (1m)
  • Correct answer with unit: 300 N (1m)

Rearranging W = Fs: F = W / s = 4500 / 15 = 300 N.

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7.

A car applies its brakes and comes to a stop. Explain the energy transfers that occur during braking, including what happens to the kinetic energy of the car.

3 marks · higherCommon

When the brakes are applied, a friction force acts between the brake pads and the wheels. This friction force does work on the car. The kinetic energy of the car is transferred to thermal energy in the brakes and surroundings. The temperature of the brake pads and discs increases. The kinetic energy store of the car decreases to zero as the car stops.

  • Friction force / braking force does work on the car (1m)
  • Kinetic energy of the car is transferred / decreases as the car slows (1m)
  • Energy is transferred to the thermal energy store of the brakes/surroundings / brakes heat up (1m)

Friction (braking force) does work on the car. The kinetic energy store decreases as work is done against friction. Energy is transferred to the thermal energy store of the brakes and surroundings - the brakes heat up.

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8.

A student lifts a 2 kg mass through a height of 0.5 m in 1 second. A second student lifts the same mass through the same height in 3 seconds. Compare the work done and the power of the two students.

3 marks · higherCommon

Both students do the same amount of work because work done equals force multiplied by distance, and both students apply the same force (weight of the mass) over the same distance (0.5 m). The work done is equal. However, the first student has a greater power because power is the rate of energy transfer (or work done per unit time). The first student transfers the same energy in less time, so their power is greater.

  • Both students do the same work done (because same force and same distance) (1m)
  • Power is defined as rate of energy transfer / work done per unit time (P = W/t) (1m)
  • First student has greater power because same work done in less time (1m)

Work done is the same (both do F x d = weight x 0.5 m). Power = W/t. Same work in less time = greater power for student 1.

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9.

Explain what is meant by 'work done' in physics. Include the conditions required for work to be done.

2 marks · standardCommon

Work done is a measure of the energy transferred when a force moves an object. Work is done when a force causes a displacement in the direction of the force. The amount of work done equals the force multiplied by the distance moved in the direction of the force. Work done is measured in joules.

  • Work done is the energy transferred when a force causes movement / work done = force x distance (1m)
  • Work is done only when there is movement in the direction of the force / force must cause displacement (1m)

Work is done when a force causes a displacement in the direction of the force. W = Fs. Work done equals the energy transferred. No movement = no work done.

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10.

Which equation correctly represents work done?

  • A. Work done = force / distance
  • B. Work done = force x distance
  • C. Work done = force + distance
  • D. Work done = distance / force
1 mark · foundationCommon

Work done is calculated using: work done (W) = force (F) x distance (s). The unit of work done is the joule (J). Work is done when a force causes an object to move in the direction of the force.

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11.

When work is done by a force moving an object, what happens to the energy?

  • A. Energy is created in the object
  • B. Energy is destroyed by friction
  • C. Energy is transferred from one store to another
  • D. Energy stays stored in the force
1 mark · foundationCommon

Work done is a measure of energy transferred. When a force does work on an object, energy is transferred from one store to another (e.g. from chemical store in muscles to kinetic store of the object). Energy is always conserved - it cannot be created or destroyed, only transferred.

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12.

A person pushes a box with a force of 50 N over a distance of 3 m. How much work is done?

  • A. 17 J
  • B. 53 J
  • C. 150 J
  • D. 500 J
1 mark · standardCommon

Work done = force x distance = 50 x 3 = 150 J. The unit is joules (J).

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13.

A crane lifts a steel beam vertically. Which statement correctly describes the work done against gravity?

  • A. Work is done against gravity only when the beam is accelerating
  • B. No work is done because gravity acts downwards and movement is upwards
  • C. Work is done against gravity only if the crane moves at constant speed
  • D. Work is done against gravity whenever the beam moves upward, equal to the lifting force times the vertical distance
1 mark · standardCommon

Work done = force x distance in the direction of the force. When lifting, the crane must exert a force upward to raise the beam, and the work done is the crane's lifting force multiplied by the vertical distance moved. (Note: if lifting at constant speed, the crane force equals the weight, so both options B and C give the same answer in that case - but the force applied by the crane is the force doing the work.)

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Terminal Velocity

Common13
1.

A skydiver jumps from a plane and later opens a parachute. Describe and explain the changes in speed, force, and acceleration from the moment of jumping to reaching the final lower terminal velocity. You may include a sketch of the speed-time graph in your answer. [6 marks]

6 marks · higherCommon
  • Level 3 (5-6 marks): Full description of all 4 phases: (1) Initial: weight > drag, accelerates downward. (2) As speed increases, drag increases, resultant force decreases, acceleration decreases. (3) First terminal velocity: drag = weight, constant speed. (4) Parachute opens: drag >> weight, decelerates. (5) New lower terminal velocity: drag = weight at lower speed. Logical, well-sequenced, correct physics throughout. (6m)
  • Level 2 (3-4 marks): Most phases described but some missing. Physics mostly correct but some gaps. (4m)
  • Level 1 (1-2 marks): Only basic description. Limited force/acceleration analysis. (2m)

Full skydive sequence: freefall acceleration -> decreasing acceleration -> first terminal velocity -> parachute opens (drag >> weight) -> deceleration -> new lower terminal velocity.

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2.

Explain how a skydiver reaches terminal velocity after jumping from a plane. Include changes to forces and acceleration in your answer.

3 marks · standardCommon

When the skydiver first jumps, weight acts downward and is greater than drag, so there is a resultant downward force. The skydiver accelerates downward. As speed increases, drag force increases. The resultant force decreases, so acceleration decreases. Eventually drag equals weight and the resultant force is zero. The skydiver no longer accelerates and falls at a constant speed called terminal velocity.

  • Initially weight is greater than drag / resultant force is downward (1m)
  • As speed increases, drag increases, so resultant force decreases and acceleration decreases (1m)
  • When drag equals weight, resultant force is zero, acceleration is zero, constant terminal velocity reached (1m)

Key physics: drag increases with speed. Terminal velocity occurs when drag = weight (zero resultant force, zero acceleration).

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3.

A speed-time graph for a falling object shows: (i) a curved section where the gradient decreases over time, (ii) a horizontal section. Explain what is happening during each section in terms of forces.

3 marks · higherCommon

During the curved section, weight is greater than drag. The resultant force is downward so the object accelerates. As speed increases, drag increases, so the resultant force decreases and the gradient of the graph decreases (acceleration decreases). During the horizontal section, drag equals weight so the resultant force is zero. Acceleration is zero and the object travels at constant speed - terminal velocity.

  • Curved section: object accelerating, weight greater than drag, decreasing resultant force causes decreasing acceleration (gradient decreasing) (1m)
  • Drag increases as speed increases, causing resultant force to reduce (further explanation of why gradient decreases) (1m)
  • Horizontal section: drag equals weight, resultant force zero, acceleration zero, constant terminal velocity (1m)

Speed-time graph: curved (decreasing gradient) = decreasing acceleration due to increasing drag. Horizontal = zero acceleration = terminal velocity (drag = weight).

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4.

A 50 kg ball is falling at a speed where the drag force is 350 N. Calculate the resultant force on the ball and its acceleration at this moment. (g = 9.8 N/kg)

3 marks · higherCommon
  • Weight = 50 x 9.8 = 490 N downward (1m)
  • Resultant force = 490 - 350 = 140 N downward (1m)
  • Acceleration = F/m = 140/50 = 2.8 m/s^2 (downward) (1m)

W = 50 x 9.8 = 490 N. Resultant = 490 - 350 = 140 N down. a = F/m = 140/50 = 2.8 m/s^2 downward.

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5.

Explain why a skydiver has a lower terminal velocity when they open their parachute compared to when they are in free fall without the parachute.

3 marks · higherCommon

Without the parachute, the skydiver reaches terminal velocity when drag equals weight at a relatively high speed due to their small cross-sectional area. Opening the parachute greatly increases the cross-sectional area, which greatly increases the drag force at any given speed. The drag now exceeds weight, causing deceleration. The skydiver slows down until drag again equals weight, but now at a much lower speed. This new terminal velocity is lower because the larger parachute generates sufficient drag to balance weight at a lower speed.

  • Parachute increases cross-sectional area (greatly increases drag force) (1m)
  • Drag exceeds weight so there is a net upward force causing deceleration / slowing down (1m)
  • New equilibrium (drag = weight) is reached at a lower speed (lower terminal velocity) (1m)

Parachute increases area -> increases drag. Drag > weight -> deceleration -> slower speed -> new equilibrium where drag = weight at lower terminal velocity.

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6.

A parachutist has a mass of 80 kg. At terminal velocity, what is the drag force acting on the parachutist? (gravitational field strength g = 9.8 N/kg). Use the equation: weight = mass x gravitational field strength

2 marks · standardCommon
  • Weight = 80 x 9.8 = 784 N (1m)
  • At terminal velocity, drag = weight = 784 N (1m)

W = 80 x 9.8 = 784 N. At terminal velocity drag = weight, so drag = 784 N.

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7.

Explain how a streamlined shape reduces the drag force on a moving vehicle.

2 marks · standardCommon

A streamlined shape is designed to allow air to flow smoothly over the surface without creating turbulence. This reduces the drag force on the vehicle, which means it can travel at a higher speed for the same engine force, or reach a higher terminal velocity.

  • Streamlining allows air to flow smoothly (reduces turbulence) (1m)
  • Less turbulence means a smaller drag force on the vehicle (1m)

Streamlined shapes reduce turbulence, which reduces drag. Less drag means the vehicle can travel faster (higher terminal velocity) for the same driving force.

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8.

A 25 kg object is falling and experiencing a drag force of 180 N. Calculate the resultant force and state its direction. (g = 9.8 N/kg). Use the equations: weight = mass x g and resultant force = weight - drag

2 marks · standardCommon
  • Weight = 25 x 9.8 = 245 N (1m)
  • Resultant force = 245 - 180 = 65 N downward (1m)

W = 25 x 9.8 = 245 N. Resultant = 245 - 180 = 65 N downward. The object is still accelerating downward.

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9.

An object reaches terminal velocity when falling through air. Which statement correctly describes the forces at terminal velocity?

  • A. Weight is greater than drag force
  • B. Drag force is greater than weight
  • C. Weight equals drag force
  • D. There are no forces acting on the object
1 mark · foundationCommon

At terminal velocity the downward weight force exactly equals the upward drag force. The resultant force is zero so there is no acceleration and the object falls at constant speed.

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10.

How does drag force change as an object falls faster through air?

  • A. Drag decreases
  • B. Drag stays constant
  • C. Drag increases
  • D. Drag first increases then decreases
1 mark · foundationCommon

Drag force increases with speed. The faster an object moves through a fluid, the more air molecules it collides with per second, so the greater the resistive force.

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11.

State what is meant by terminal velocity.

1 mark · foundationCommon

Terminal velocity is the maximum constant speed reached by a falling object when the drag force equals its weight, so the resultant force is zero and there is no further acceleration.

  • Maximum constant speed reached when drag equals weight (resultant force = 0 / no acceleration) (1m)

Terminal velocity: constant maximum falling speed when drag = weight (zero resultant force, zero acceleration).

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12.

A skydiver opens their parachute. What happens to the drag force and their speed immediately after the parachute opens?

  • A. Drag increases; speed increases
  • B. Drag increases; speed decreases
  • C. Drag decreases; speed decreases
  • D. Drag stays the same; speed stays the same
1 mark · standardCommon

Opening the parachute greatly increases the surface area, which greatly increases drag. The drag now exceeds weight so there is a net upward force, decelerating the skydiver (speed decreases).

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13.

Skydiver A has a mass of 60 kg and skydiver B has a mass of 90 kg. Both dive without parachutes in the same body position. Which skydiver has a higher terminal velocity?

  • A. Skydiver A, because they are lighter
  • B. Skydiver B, because their greater weight means a faster speed is needed to generate enough drag to balance it
  • C. Both reach the same terminal velocity
  • D. Skydiver A, because they experience less drag
1 mark · standardCommon

Terminal velocity is reached when drag equals weight. Skydiver B has more weight so needs a higher speed to generate enough drag to balance it, giving a higher terminal velocity.

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Wave Properties

Common21
1.

A student investigates the properties of waves using a slinky spring on the floor. Describe how the student could demonstrate both a transverse wave and a longitudinal wave using the spring. Include how they could observe the effect of changing frequency and amplitude on each wave type.

6 marks · higherCommon

To demonstrate a transverse wave: hold one end of the slinky fixed and move the other end side to side (perpendicular to the length of the spring). This creates peaks and troughs that travel along the spring. To demonstrate a longitudinal wave: push and pull the end of the spring backwards and forwards (parallel to the spring). This creates compressions (coils pushed together) and rarefactions (coils spread apart) that travel along the spring. To change frequency: oscillate the end faster or slower - faster oscillation creates more waves and a shorter wavelength. To change amplitude: move the end through a larger or smaller distance - larger displacement produces a greater amplitude wave. The amplitude does not affect the wave speed or wavelength.

  • Transverse wave: move one end of the spring side to side (perpendicular to the spring's length) (1m)
  • Longitudinal wave: push and pull one end of the spring backwards and forwards (parallel to spring's length), creating compressions and rarefactions (1m)
  • Frequency: increase the speed of oscillation to increase frequency; this decreases the wavelength (for same wave speed) (1m)
  • Amplitude: oscillate the end through a larger distance to increase amplitude (1m)
  • Observing wavelength: measure the distance between compressions (longitudinal) or between crests (transverse) (1m)
  • Changing frequency increases the number of waves visible along the spring; changing amplitude does not affect the number of waves (1m)

This is an RPA-style question. Students should demonstrate understanding of both wave types and the independent effects of changing frequency and amplitude.

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2.

A sound wave has a frequency of 440 Hz and a wavelength of 0.77 m. Calculate the wave speed. Use the equation: wave speed = frequency x wavelength

3 marks · standardCommon
  • Correct substitution: v = 440 x 0.77 (1m)
  • Correct calculation (1m)
  • Correct answer: 338.8 m/s (accept 339 or 340) (1m)

Using v = f x lambda: v = 440 x 0.77 = 338.8 m/s. This is close to the speed of sound in air (~340 m/s).

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3.

A wave has a period of 0.025 s. Calculate its frequency. Use the equation: frequency = 1 / period

3 marks · standardCommon
  • Correct substitution: f = 1 / 0.025 (1m)
  • Correct calculation (1m)
  • Correct answer: 40 Hz (1m)

f = 1/T = 1/0.025 = 40 Hz. Frequency and period are reciprocals of each other.

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4.

A radio wave travels at 3 x 10^8 m/s and has a frequency of 100 MHz (1 x 10^8 Hz). Calculate the wavelength of this radio wave.

3 marks · higherCommon
  • Correct rearrangement: lambda = v / f (1m)
  • Correct substitution: lambda = 3 x 10^8 / 1 x 10^8 (1m)
  • Correct answer: 3 m (1m)

Rearranging v = f x lambda gives lambda = v/f = (3 x 10^8) / (1 x 10^8) = 3 m.

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5.

Explain how a sound wave is produced by a loudspeaker and travels through air.

3 marks · higherCommon

The loudspeaker cone vibrates back and forth. When the cone moves forward it compresses the air in front of it, creating a region of higher pressure called a compression. When it moves back it creates a region of lower pressure called a rarefaction. These compressions and rarefactions travel through the air as a longitudinal wave.

  • The loudspeaker cone vibrates back and forth (1m)
  • Vibrations create compressions (higher pressure) and rarefactions (lower pressure) in the air (1m)
  • Sound travels as a longitudinal wave with particles oscillating parallel to the direction of travel (1m)

Sound is produced by vibration. The cone pushes and pulls air, creating alternating high-pressure compressions and low-pressure rarefactions. These travel as a longitudinal wave.

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6.

A student uses a ripple tank to investigate water waves. Describe how the student could measure the frequency and wavelength of the waves, and use these measurements to calculate wave speed. (RPA8)

3 marks · higherCommon

To measure frequency: count the number of wave crests that pass a fixed point in one second, or use a stroboscope to freeze the wave pattern. To measure wavelength: measure the distance between two adjacent crests or troughs on the water surface. Then calculate wave speed using the equation v = f x lambda.

  • Measure frequency by counting crests passing a fixed point per second (1m)
  • Measure wavelength by measuring the distance between two adjacent crests (or troughs) (1m)
  • Use v = f x lambda to calculate wave speed (1m)

In RPA8, frequency is measured by counting peaks per second, wavelength by measuring between consecutive crests, and wave speed is calculated from v = f x lambda.

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7.

A seismic wave has a speed of 8000 m/s and a period of 0.5 s. Calculate the wavelength of this seismic wave.

3 marks · higherCommon
  • Correctly calculate frequency: f = 1/T = 1/0.5 = 2 Hz OR correctly state lambda = v x T (1m)
  • Correct substitution: lambda = 8000 / 2 or lambda = 8000 x 0.5 (1m)
  • Correct answer: 4000 m (4 km) (1m)

Step 1: f = 1/T = 1/0.5 = 2 Hz. Step 2: lambda = v/f = 8000/2 = 4000 m. Alternatively, lambda = v x T = 8000 x 0.5 = 4000 m.

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8.

A student claims that increasing the frequency of a wave increases its speed. Explain whether this statement is correct.

3 marks · higherCommon

The student is incorrect. The speed of a wave in a given medium is constant and does not depend on frequency. If frequency increases, the wavelength decreases proportionally so that wave speed stays the same. This is shown by the wave equation v = f x lambda - if v is constant and f increases, lambda must decrease.

  • The student is incorrect - wave speed does not increase with frequency (1m)
  • Wave speed is constant in a given medium (depends on the medium, not frequency) (1m)
  • If frequency increases, wavelength decreases proportionally (v = f x lambda, v constant) (1m)

Wave speed is determined by the medium, not the frequency. The wave equation v = f x lambda means that if speed is constant and frequency increases, wavelength must decrease.

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9.

The wave shown in the diagram has a frequency of 5 Hz. Using the diagram to identify the wavelength, explain how you would calculate the wave speed.

3 marks · higherCommon

First, read the wavelength from the diagram by measuring from one crest to the next crest. Then use the wave speed equation: wave speed = frequency x wavelength (v = f x lambda). Multiply the frequency of 5 Hz by the wavelength read from the diagram to calculate the wave speed in metres per second.

  • Identify wavelength from the diagram as the distance between two adjacent crests (or equivalent points) (1m)
  • State the wave equation: wave speed = frequency x wavelength (v = f x lambda) (1m)
  • Substitute frequency = 5 Hz and the wavelength from the diagram into the equation to calculate wave speed in m/s (1m)

Wave speed v = f x lambda. First read lambda from the diagram (crest to crest), then multiply by the given frequency of 5 Hz to get the speed in m/s.

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10.

Using the wave diagram, identify what is meant by the wavelength and the amplitude of the wave.

2 marks · foundationCommon

The wavelength is the distance from one crest to the next crest (or one trough to the next trough) — one complete wave cycle. The amplitude is the maximum displacement of the wave from the equilibrium (rest) position, measured from the midline to the top of a crest.

  • Wavelength: the distance from one crest to the next equivalent crest (or trough to trough / any two equivalent adjacent points) — one complete wave (1m)
  • Amplitude: the maximum displacement from the equilibrium/rest position to the crest or trough (1m)

Wavelength (symbol lambda) is measured horizontally between two equivalent adjacent points (e.g. crest to crest). Amplitude is measured vertically from the equilibrium line to the peak (or trough). These are two of the four key wave properties.

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11.

Explain the difference between a transverse wave and a longitudinal wave.

2 marks · standardCommon

In a transverse wave, the particles oscillate perpendicular to the direction of wave travel. In a longitudinal wave, the particles oscillate parallel to the direction of wave travel, creating compressions and rarefactions.

  • In a transverse wave, particles oscillate perpendicular to the direction of wave travel (1m)
  • In a longitudinal wave, particles oscillate parallel to the direction of wave travel (1m)

The key difference is the direction of oscillation relative to wave travel. Transverse = perpendicular; Longitudinal = parallel (with compressions and rarefactions).

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12.

Explain how the amplitude of a wave is related to the energy it carries.

2 marks · standardCommon

A wave with a greater amplitude carries more energy. The amplitude is the maximum displacement of particles from their equilibrium position, and larger displacement requires more energy.

  • Greater amplitude means more energy carried by the wave (1m)
  • Amplitude is the maximum displacement from equilibrium / larger displacement requires more energy (1m)

Greater amplitude = more energy. This is because amplitude represents how far particles are displaced, and displacing them further requires more energy input.

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13.

Using the transverse wave diagram, describe the difference between amplitude and wavelength.

2 marks · standardCommon

Amplitude is the maximum displacement of a particle from the rest (equilibrium) position — it is measured vertically from the midline to the crest or trough. Wavelength is the horizontal distance from one point on the wave to the equivalent point on the next wave, such as from one crest to the next crest.

  • Amplitude is the maximum displacement from the rest/equilibrium position (vertical measurement, from midline to crest or trough) (1m)
  • Wavelength is the distance from one point to the equivalent point on the next wave / from crest to crest / one complete wave cycle (horizontal measurement) (1m)

Amplitude is a vertical measurement (from equilibrium to peak) telling you how much energy the wave carries. Wavelength is a horizontal measurement (from crest to crest) telling you the length of one complete wave cycle.

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14.

Using the wave diagram, explain the difference between the crest and the trough of a transverse wave.

2 marks · standardCommon

A crest is the highest point of a wave — the point of maximum positive displacement above the equilibrium position. A trough is the lowest point of a wave — the point of maximum negative displacement below the equilibrium position.

  • Crest is the highest point / maximum positive displacement above the equilibrium position (1m)
  • Trough is the lowest point / maximum negative displacement below the equilibrium position (1m)

Crest = maximum positive displacement (above equilibrium). Trough = maximum negative displacement (below equilibrium). Both are at the same distance from the equilibrium — that distance is the amplitude.

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15.

What do waves transfer from one place to another?

  • A. Matter only
  • B. Energy only
  • C. Both energy and matter
  • D. Energy without transferring matter
1 mark · foundationCommon

Waves transfer energy from one place to another without transferring matter. The medium through which the wave travels is not permanently displaced.

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16.

In a transverse wave, in which direction do the particles oscillate relative to the direction of wave travel?

  • A. Parallel to the direction of wave travel
  • B. Perpendicular to the direction of wave travel
  • C. In the same direction as wave travel
  • D. In a circular path
1 mark · foundationCommon

In a transverse wave, particles oscillate perpendicular (at right angles) to the direction of wave travel. Examples include light waves, water waves, and all electromagnetic waves.

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17.

The amplitude of a wave is best described as:

  • A. The maximum displacement from the equilibrium position
  • B. The distance between two successive crests
  • C. The number of waves passing a point per second
  • D. The speed at which the wave travels
1 mark · foundationCommon

Amplitude is the maximum displacement of a particle from its equilibrium (rest) position. A larger amplitude means the wave carries more energy.

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18.

Explain why sound cannot travel through a vacuum.

1 mark · foundationCommon

Sound cannot travel through a vacuum because sound is a mechanical wave that needs a medium (such as air, water, or a solid) to travel through. In a vacuum there are no particles to vibrate and transfer the energy.

  • Sound needs a medium (particles) to travel through / vacuum has no particles to vibrate (1m)

Sound is a mechanical wave requiring particles to transfer energy through compressions and rarefactions. A vacuum has no particles, so sound cannot travel through it.

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19.

Look at the transverse wave diagram. What is the name given to the maximum height of the wave from the rest position?

  • A. Wavelength
  • B. Frequency
  • C. Amplitude
  • D. Period
1 mark · foundationCommon

Amplitude is the maximum displacement of a particle from its rest (equilibrium) position. It is measured from the midline to the crest (or trough), not from crest to trough.

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20.

Look at the transverse wave diagram. Which measurement correctly represents the amplitude of the wave?

  • A. The horizontal distance from one crest to the next crest
  • B. The vertical distance from the equilibrium line to the top of a crest
  • C. The vertical distance from the top of a crest to the bottom of a trough
  • D. The horizontal distance from the start of the wave to the end
1 mark · foundationCommon

Amplitude is the maximum displacement of a wave particle from the equilibrium (rest) position. This is measured vertically from the equilibrium line to the peak of a crest (or to the bottom of a trough). It is NOT the full crest-to-trough distance (that would be double the amplitude).

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21.

A wave has a frequency of 50 Hz. What is its period?

  • A. 50 s
  • B. 0.002 s
  • C. 0.02 s
  • D. 500 s
1 mark · standardCommon

Period T = 1/f = 1/50 = 0.02 s. Frequency and period are reciprocals of each other.

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Reflection & Refraction

Common15
1.

A student is investigating the refraction of light through a glass block (RPA9). Describe a complete experimental method that would allow the student to determine the refractive index of the glass. Include the equipment used, the measurements taken, and how the results would be used to calculate the refractive index.

6 marks · higherCommon

Equipment needed: ray box with single slit, rectangular glass block, plain white paper, pencil, protractor, ruler. Method: (1) Place the glass block on the paper and draw its outline carefully. (2) Shine a ray from the ray box at the glass block at a chosen angle. Mark two points on the incident ray and two on the emergent ray. (3) Remove the block and join the incident ray points to the boundary. Draw the normal (perpendicular line) at the point of entry. (4) Join the emergent ray back to the block using the outline. The refracted ray inside the block can be constructed by connecting the entry and exit points. (5) Use a protractor to measure the angle of incidence (between the incident ray and the normal) and the angle of refraction (between the refracted ray and the normal). (6) Repeat for 5 or more different angles of incidence. (7) Calculate the refractive index using n = sin(i)/sin(r) for each set of readings. Calculate the mean value.

  • Equipment: ray box (single slit), rectangular glass block, plain paper, pencil, protractor, ruler (1m)
  • Place the glass block on paper and draw around its outline. Remove the block. (1m)
  • Direct a ray of light at the glass block and mark the incident ray and the emergent ray on the paper (1m)
  • Draw the normal at the point where the ray enters the glass block (perpendicular to the surface) (1m)
  • Measure the angle of incidence and angle of refraction from the normal using a protractor. Repeat for several different angles of incidence. (1m)
  • Calculate refractive index using n = sin(angle of incidence) / sin(angle of refraction). Calculate a mean value from multiple measurements for reliability. (1m)

This full 6-mark Level of Response question requires a complete, logical experimental method including equipment, procedure, measurements, and data analysis to find the refractive index.

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2.

A student investigates the refraction of light using a rectangular glass block (RPA9). Describe how the student should carry out the experiment and explain what measurements they should take.

4 marks · higherCommon

The student places the glass block on paper and draws its outline. A ray of light from a ray box is directed at the glass block. The student marks the positions of the incident ray and the emergent ray. They draw the normal at the point where the ray enters the glass. They measure the angle of incidence and the angle of refraction from the normal using a protractor. By repeating this for different angles of incidence, they can investigate how the angle of refraction changes. The refractive index can be calculated from the results.

  • Place glass block on paper, trace outline (1m)
  • Direct a ray of light at the block and mark the incident and emergent rays (1m)
  • Draw the normal at the point of entry and measure angles from the normal using a protractor (1m)
  • Repeat for different angles of incidence to see how the angle of refraction changes (1m)

RPA9 method: trace block outline, direct ray at block, mark incident and emergent rays, draw normal, measure angles of incidence and refraction using protractor, repeat for different angles.

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3.

Explain why a ray of light bends when it passes from air into water.

3 marks · standardCommon

Light travels more slowly in water than in air because water is a denser medium. When the light ray enters the water at an angle, one side of the wavefront enters the water first and slows down before the other side. This causes the ray to bend towards the normal. The change in speed causes the change in direction called refraction.

  • Light slows down when entering water (from air) because water is denser (1m)
  • The change in speed causes the ray to change direction (1m)
  • The ray bends towards the normal when entering a denser medium (1m)

Refraction is caused by the change in speed of light at the boundary. Denser medium = slower speed = bends towards normal.

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4.

A student measures the angle of incidence as 30 degrees and the angle of refraction as 19 degrees when light enters a glass block from air. Calculate the refractive index of the glass. Use the equation: n = sin(angle of incidence) / sin(angle of refraction). (sin 30 = 0.50, sin 19 = 0.33)

3 marks · standardCommon
  • Correct substitution: n = sin 30 / sin 19 = 0.50 / 0.33 (1m)
  • Correct calculation (1m)
  • Correct answer: n = 1.52 (no units, refractive index is dimensionless) (1m)

n = sin(30) / sin(19) = 0.50 / 0.33 = 1.52. This is close to the actual refractive index of glass (~1.5). Refractive index has no units.

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5.

Explain how optical fibres use total internal reflection to transmit light signals over long distances.

3 marks · higherCommon

Optical fibres are made of glass or plastic. Light travels along the fibre and hits the boundary between the glass and the surrounding material at an angle greater than the critical angle. This causes total internal reflection, where all the light is reflected back into the glass and none escapes. The light bounces along the fibre from one end to the other, allowing signals to be transmitted over long distances with very little energy loss.

  • Light hits the glass-air boundary at an angle greater than the critical angle (1m)
  • Total internal reflection occurs - all light is reflected back into the glass/fibre (1m)
  • Light bounces along the fibre and signals are transmitted with little energy loss over long distances (1m)

TIR in optical fibres: light hits boundary at angle > critical angle, reflects completely, bounces along fibre, transmitting signals with minimal loss.

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6.

A glass block has a refractive index of 1.5. The speed of light in air is 3.0 x 10^8 m/s. Calculate the speed of light in the glass block. Use the equation: refractive index = speed of light in vacuum / speed of light in medium

3 marks · higherCommon
  • Correct rearrangement: v = c/n (1m)
  • Correct substitution: v = 3.0 x 10^8 / 1.5 (1m)
  • Correct answer: 2.0 x 10^8 m/s (1m)

v = c/n = (3.0 x 10^8) / 1.5 = 2.0 x 10^8 m/s. Light travels more slowly in glass than in air, which is why it bends towards the normal when entering glass.

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7.

Diamond has a higher refractive index than glass. Explain why this means that diamonds appear to sparkle more than glass.

3 marks · higherCommon

A higher refractive index means the critical angle for total internal reflection is smaller. In diamond, the critical angle is about 24 degrees, much smaller than for glass (about 42 degrees). This means that light entering a diamond is more likely to undergo total internal reflection inside it. When a diamond is cut with many flat faces at precise angles, light bounces around inside many times through total internal reflection before emerging, creating the sparkling appearance.

  • Higher refractive index means smaller critical angle for total internal reflection (1m)
  • Light is more likely to undergo total internal reflection inside the diamond (1m)
  • Light bounces around inside the many cut faces before emerging, creating the sparkling appearance (1m)

Higher refractive index = smaller critical angle = more TIR inside the diamond = light bounces around many faces before emerging = sparkling effect.

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8.

State the law of reflection.

2 marks · foundationCommon

The angle of incidence equals the angle of reflection. Both angles are measured from the normal to the surface at the point of incidence.

  • The angle of incidence equals the angle of reflection (1m)
  • Both angles are measured from the normal (to the surface) (1m)

The law of reflection: angle of incidence = angle of reflection. Both angles measured from the normal (perpendicular to surface).

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9.

A ray of light hits a plane mirror. The angle between the incident ray and the mirror surface is 35 degrees. What is the angle of reflection (measured from the normal)?

2 marks · standardCommon
  • Correct calculation: angle of incidence = 90 - 35 = 55 degrees (1m)
  • Angle of reflection = 55 degrees (by law of reflection) (1m)

Angles in reflection are measured from the NORMAL (perpendicular to the surface). If the ray makes 35 degrees with the surface, it makes 90 - 35 = 55 degrees with the normal. By the law of reflection, angle of reflection = 55 degrees.

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10.

Describe the properties of an image formed by a plane mirror.

2 marks · standardCommon

The image formed by a plane mirror is virtual (cannot be projected on a screen), upright, and the same size as the object. The image appears to be the same distance behind the mirror as the object is in front of it.

  • Image is virtual and appears behind the mirror / same distance behind as object is in front (1m)
  • Image is the same size as the object and upright (1m)

Plane mirror image properties: virtual (behind mirror), same distance behind as object is in front, same size, upright, laterally inverted.

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11.

Explain the difference between specular reflection and diffuse reflection.

2 marks · standardCommon

Specular reflection occurs from a smooth surface such as a mirror. The incident rays are parallel, and all the reflected rays are also parallel, producing a clear image. Diffuse reflection occurs from a rough surface. The surface has many tiny irregularities at different angles, so parallel incident rays are reflected in many different directions and no clear image is formed.

  • Specular reflection: smooth surface, reflected rays are parallel / regular / produce a clear image (1m)
  • Diffuse reflection: rough surface, reflected rays scatter in many directions / no clear image / surface at different angles (1m)

Specular = smooth surface, parallel reflected rays, clear image. Diffuse = rough surface, scattered reflected rays, no clear image.

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12.

According to the law of reflection, the angle of incidence is:

  • A. Always 90 degrees
  • B. Greater than the angle of reflection
  • C. Equal to the angle of reflection
  • D. Measured from the reflecting surface
1 mark · foundationCommon

The law of reflection states that the angle of incidence equals the angle of reflection. Both angles are measured from the normal (a line perpendicular to the surface at the point of incidence).

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13.

When light passes from air into a glass block, what happens to the ray at the boundary?

  • A. It speeds up and bends away from the normal
  • B. It slows down and bends towards the normal
  • C. It slows down and bends away from the normal
  • D. Its speed and direction remain unchanged
1 mark · foundationCommon

When light enters a denser medium (like glass from air), it slows down and bends towards the normal. The angle of refraction is smaller than the angle of incidence.

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14.

A rough surface produces diffuse reflection. Which statement correctly explains why?

  • A. The law of reflection does not apply to rough surfaces
  • B. Rough surfaces absorb all the light that hits them
  • C. Rough surfaces slow down the light more than smooth surfaces
  • D. Each part of the surface is at a slightly different angle, reflecting light in many directions
1 mark · foundationCommon

Diffuse reflection occurs because a rough surface has many tiny facets at different angles. Each facet obeys the law of reflection, but since they point in different directions, light is reflected in many different directions overall. This is why rough surfaces appear matt.

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15.

Total internal reflection occurs when:

  • A. Light travels from a denser medium into a less dense medium and the angle of incidence exceeds the critical angle
  • B. Light travels from a less dense medium into a denser medium
  • C. The angle of incidence is less than the critical angle
  • D. Light hits a mirror at 90 degrees
1 mark · standardCommon

Total internal reflection occurs when light is travelling in a denser medium (e.g. glass) and hits the boundary with a less dense medium (e.g. air) at an angle greater than the critical angle. The light is completely reflected back into the denser medium.

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Sound Waves

Common13
1.

Describe how ultrasound scanning is used to produce an image of an internal organ. Your answer should include: what ultrasound is, the equipment used, what happens when the waves enter the body, and how the image is formed. (6 marks)

6 marks · higherCommon

Ultrasound is sound with a frequency above 20,000 Hz, which is above the range of human hearing. A transducer (probe) is placed on the surface of the skin and emits pulses of ultrasound into the body. At each boundary between tissues of different densities, some of the ultrasound is reflected back as an echo. The time taken for each echo to return to the transducer is measured. The depth of each boundary is calculated using the equation distance = wave speed x time, and this value is divided by two because the wave travels to the boundary and back. By repeating this process across the organ, the computer builds up a two-dimensional cross-sectional image which is displayed on a monitor.

  • Ultrasound is sound with frequency above 20,000 Hz / above human hearing range (1m)
  • A transducer (probe) is placed on the skin to emit pulses of ultrasound into the body (1m)
  • Pulses are reflected (echoes) at boundaries between different types of tissue (1m)
  • The time for each echo to return to the transducer is measured (1m)
  • Depth of boundary calculated using distance = wave speed x time, divided by 2 (wave travels to boundary and back) (1m)
  • Multiple echoes build up a 2D cross-sectional image displayed on a computer/monitor (1m)

Full Level 3 answer: Ultrasound (f > 20 kHz) is emitted from a transducer placed on the skin. Pulses travel into the body. At each tissue boundary, some sound is reflected (echo). The time for each echo to return is recorded. Using distance = v x t and dividing by 2 (pulse goes to boundary and back), the depth of each boundary is calculated. Repeating across the body builds a 2D cross-sectional image displayed on a monitor.

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2.

A sound wave has a frequency of 400 Hz and a wavelength of 0.85 m. Calculate the speed of the sound wave. Use the equation: wave speed = frequency x wavelength

3 marks · standardCommon
  • Correct substitution: v = 400 x 0.85 (1m)
  • Correct calculation performed (1m)
  • Correct answer: 340 m/s (1m)

v = f x lambda = 400 x 0.85 = 340 m/s. This is approximately the speed of sound in air at room temperature.

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3.

An ultrasound scanner produces waves with a frequency of 2,000,000 Hz. The speed of ultrasound in soft tissue is 1500 m/s. Calculate the wavelength of the ultrasound waves in soft tissue. Use the equation: wave speed = frequency x wavelength

3 marks · standardCommon
  • Correct rearrangement: wavelength = wave speed / frequency (1m)
  • Correct substitution: wavelength = 1500 / 2,000,000 (1m)
  • Correct answer: 0.00075 m (or 7.5 x 10^-4 m or 0.75 mm) (1m)

wavelength = v / f = 1500 / 2,000,000 = 0.00075 m = 7.5 x 10^-4 m. Short wavelengths are needed in medical imaging to detect small features.

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4.

Explain how ultrasound is used in medical imaging. Include what ultrasound is and how an image is formed.

3 marks · higherCommon

Ultrasound is sound with a frequency above the human hearing range (above 20,000 Hz). In medical imaging, pulses of ultrasound are transmitted into the body. When the ultrasound reaches a boundary between different tissues, some of the wave is reflected back. The time taken for each reflected pulse to return is measured. Since the speed of ultrasound in tissue is known, the distance to each boundary can be calculated. A computer uses these distances and reflected signal strengths to build up an image of the internal structures.

  • Ultrasound is sound with a frequency above 20,000 Hz (above human audible range) (1m)
  • Ultrasound pulses are reflected at boundaries between different tissues; the time for each reflection (echo) to return is measured (1m)
  • The distance to each boundary is calculated using the speed of ultrasound in tissue; a computer builds up an image from the data (1m)

Ultrasound (f > 20 kHz) is used medically because it can penetrate the body and reflects at tissue boundaries. Timing the echoes and using distance = speed x time allows the depth of each boundary to be found. Multiple reflections are combined into an image.

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5.

A ship uses sonar to detect the seabed. An ultrasound pulse is emitted and the echo returns after 0.06 s. The speed of sound in seawater is 1500 m/s. Calculate the depth of the seabed. (Remember: the pulse travels to the seabed AND back.)

3 marks · higherCommon
  • Identifies that total distance = speed x time = 1500 x 0.06 = 90 m (1m)
  • Divides by 2 to get one-way distance: 90 / 2 = 45 m (1m)
  • Correct answer: 45 m (1m)

Total distance = 1500 x 0.06 = 90 m. But this is the distance there and back, so depth = 90 / 2 = 45 m. The factor of 2 is a very common exam trap.

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6.

Sound travels faster in steel than in air. Suggest two reasons why, and explain why sound cannot travel through a vacuum.

3 marks · higherCommon

Sound travels faster in steel than in air because the particles in steel are much closer together (higher density solid) and are more strongly bonded, so they can transfer vibrations to neighbouring particles more quickly. Sound cannot travel through a vacuum because there are no particles to vibrate and transfer the energy from particle to particle.

  • Particles are closer together in steel (denser medium) so vibrations are transmitted more quickly (1m)
  • Particles in steel are more strongly bonded so the restoring forces are greater, allowing faster transfer (1m)
  • A vacuum has no particles, so there is nothing to vibrate and energy cannot be transferred (1m)

Speed of sound depends on medium: (1) particle spacing - closer particles in solids allow faster transfer, (2) bond strength - stiffer bonds restore position faster. Vacuum = no particles = no medium = no sound transmission.

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7.

Describe two uses of infrasound and explain what infrasound is.

3 marks · higherCommon

Infrasound is sound with a frequency below 20 Hz, which is below the lower limit of human hearing. Some animals such as elephants and whales use infrasound for long-distance communication because low-frequency sounds travel further with less energy loss. Infrasound is also used to detect natural events such as earthquakes and volcanic eruptions, as these events generate infrasound waves that travel great distances.

  • Infrasound has a frequency below 20 Hz (below human hearing range) (1m)
  • Used by animals (e.g. elephants/whales) for long-distance communication (1m)
  • Used to detect earthquakes, volcanic eruptions or other natural events (1m)

Infrasound: f < 20 Hz. Uses: (1) animal communication - elephants, whales, tigers use infrasound to communicate over km; (2) geophysical monitoring - infrasound detectors can warn of approaching tsunamis, earthquakes, and volcanic eruptions.

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8.

Describe how a sound wave is produced and how energy is transferred by a longitudinal wave.

2 marks · standardCommon

A sound wave is produced when an object vibrates. The vibrations cause particles in the surrounding medium to oscillate parallel to the direction of wave travel, creating compressions and rarefactions. Energy is transferred from particle to particle through the medium without the particles themselves moving overall.

  • Object/source vibrates, causing particles to oscillate parallel to direction of travel (compressions and rarefactions) (1m)
  • Energy is transferred through the medium particle to particle; particles do not travel with the wave (1m)

Sound waves are longitudinal: particles vibrate parallel to the wave's direction of travel. This creates alternating compressions (high pressure, particles close together) and rarefactions (low pressure, particles spread out). Energy passes from particle to particle; the particles themselves do not travel with the wave.

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9.

Explain how amplitude and frequency of a sound wave relate to the loudness and pitch of the sound heard.

2 marks · standardCommon

The amplitude of a sound wave determines its loudness: a larger amplitude means more energy is transferred, so the sound is louder. The frequency of a sound wave determines the pitch: a higher frequency means the particles vibrate more times per second, which the ear detects as a higher pitched sound.

  • Amplitude determines loudness: larger amplitude = louder sound (more energy transferred) (1m)
  • Frequency determines pitch: higher frequency = higher pitched sound (more vibrations per second) (1m)

Amplitude and loudness: larger amplitude = more energy = louder sound. Frequency and pitch: higher frequency = more vibrations per second = higher pitch. These are independent properties -- you can have a loud high-pitched sound or a quiet low-pitched sound.

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10.

What type of wave is sound?

  • A. Transverse wave
  • B. Longitudinal wave
  • C. Electromagnetic wave
  • D. Stationary wave
1 mark · foundationCommon

Sound is a longitudinal wave. The particles vibrate parallel to the direction of wave travel, creating compressions (regions of high pressure) and rarefactions (regions of low pressure).

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11.

Sound cannot travel through which of the following?

  • A. Water
  • B. Steel
  • C. A vacuum
  • D. Air
1 mark · foundationCommon

Sound is a mechanical wave and requires a medium (particles) to travel through. A vacuum contains no particles, so sound cannot travel through it. This is why space is silent.

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12.

What is the approximate range of frequencies that humans can hear?

  • A. 200 Hz to 200,000 Hz
  • B. 0.02 Hz to 20 Hz
  • C. 20,000 Hz to 200,000 Hz
  • D. 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz
1 mark · foundationCommon

The normal human hearing range is approximately 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz (20 kHz). Frequencies below 20 Hz are called infrasound; frequencies above 20,000 Hz are called ultrasound. Both are inaudible to humans.

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13.

A sound wave has a higher frequency. What effect does this have on the sound heard?

  • A. The sound becomes louder
  • B. The sound becomes quieter
  • C. The pitch of the sound increases
  • D. The speed of the sound increases
1 mark · standardCommon

Frequency determines the pitch of a sound. A higher frequency means more vibrations per second, which the ear perceives as a higher pitched sound. Amplitude determines loudness, not frequency. The speed of sound depends on the medium, not frequency.

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Electromagnetic Spectrum

Common17
1.

Evaluate the benefits and risks of using X-rays in medicine. In your answer, refer to the properties of X-rays and explain why precautions are taken when using them.

6 marks · higherCommon

X-rays have short wavelengths and high frequencies, giving them high energy. They are ionising radiation. Benefits: X-rays can penetrate soft tissue but are absorbed by bone and dense materials, so they produce images of bones and internal structures. CT scans use multiple X-ray images to build 3D images of organs. Risks: because they are ionising, X-rays can damage DNA in cells, potentially causing mutations and cancer. Precautions: patients wear lead aprons to protect parts of the body not being imaged, because lead absorbs X-rays effectively. Medical staff leave the room or stand behind lead screens. The dose is kept as low as possible, and the number of X-rays a patient receives is limited.

  • X-rays have short wavelength and high frequency/energy, making them highly penetrating (1m)
  • Benefit: X-rays can pass through soft tissue but are absorbed by dense material like bone, allowing bones and internal structures to be imaged (1m)
  • Benefit: used in CT scans for detailed 3D imaging of internal organs (1m)
  • Risk: X-rays are ionising radiation and can damage DNA in cells, potentially causing mutations and cancer (1m)
  • Precaution: lead shielding / lead aprons used to absorb X-rays and protect tissue not being imaged (1m)
  • Precaution: exposure time minimised / doses kept as low as reasonably possible (ALARP principle) / medical staff leave the room (1m)

This Level of Response question requires balanced discussion of benefits (imaging, CT scans) and risks (ionising, DNA damage, cancer) with specific precautions (lead shielding, minimal exposure).

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2.

Explain how infrared radiation is used in a thermal imaging camera to produce an image, and explain why hotter objects appear brighter on the image.

4 marks · higherCommon

All objects above absolute zero emit infrared radiation. Hotter objects emit more infrared radiation and at shorter wavelengths. A thermal imaging camera detects the infrared radiation emitted by objects. The camera converts the detected infrared radiation into a visible image. Brighter areas on the image represent regions that are emitting more infrared radiation, which means they are at a higher temperature.

  • All objects above absolute zero emit infrared radiation (1m)
  • The camera detects infrared radiation emitted by objects (1m)
  • Hotter objects emit more infrared radiation (higher intensity) (1m)
  • Brighter areas on the image correspond to higher temperature / more infrared emitted (1m)

Thermal imaging works because all objects emit infrared. Hotter = more IR emitted = brighter in image. Camera detects IR and converts to visible image.

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3.

A student claims: 'Microwaves are more dangerous than gamma rays because microwave ovens can cook food, but a gamma source in the lab just sits there doing nothing visible.' Evaluate this claim. [4 marks]

4 marks · challengeCommon

The student's claim is incorrect. Gamma rays are far more dangerous than microwaves because they are ionising radiation — they have enough photon energy to remove electrons from atoms and cause mutations in DNA, leading to cancer. Microwaves are non-ionising; they heat water molecules by causing them to vibrate but cannot ionise atoms or damage DNA directly. The reason a microwave oven heats food more visibly is because it is designed to concentrate microwave energy on food at high power. A sealed gamma source in a lab emits ionising radiation continuously but cannot be felt or seen — this absence of visible effect does not mean it is safe. Ionising radiation is dangerous precisely because it causes invisible cumulative DNA damage.

  • Gamma rays are ionising radiation — they have enough energy to remove electrons from atoms / ionise atoms (1m)
  • Ionising radiation can damage/mutate DNA, leading to cancer / cell death (1m)
  • Microwaves are non-ionising — they only cause heating by making molecules (water) vibrate; cannot ionise atoms or damage DNA directly (1m)
  • The visible effect of a microwave oven is due to high concentrated power, not intrinsic danger of microwaves / gamma sources emit invisible ionising radiation continuously (absence of visible effect does not mean it is safe) (1m)

The key distinction in the electromagnetic spectrum is between ionising and non-ionising radiation. Gamma rays (and X-rays, UV) are ionising: they carry enough energy per photon to remove electrons from atoms, which can break chemical bonds in DNA and cause mutations or cancer. Microwaves, infrared, and radio waves are non-ionising — they deposit energy as heat (molecular vibrations) but cannot ionise atoms. A microwave oven looks dangerous because it is a high-powered device concentrating energy, but the radiation type is far less intrinsically hazardous than gamma, which invisibly damages DNA at much lower power levels.

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4.

Ultraviolet (UV) radiation from the Sun can be harmful to humans. Explain why UV radiation is harmful, and describe how the atmosphere and sunscreen both protect humans from this radiation. [4 marks]

4 marks · challengeCommon

UV radiation is ionising. It has enough energy to ionise atoms in skin cells, causing mutations in DNA. These mutations can lead to skin cancer. The ozone layer in the atmosphere absorbs most of the UV radiation from the Sun, preventing it from reaching Earth's surface. Sunscreen absorbs or reflects UV radiation before it reaches the skin, reducing the intensity of UV that penetrates to the deeper skin cells where DNA damage can occur.

  • UV radiation is ionising — it has enough energy to ionise atoms / damage/mutate DNA in skin cells (1m)
  • DNA mutations caused by UV can lead to skin cancer (1m)
  • The ozone layer in the atmosphere absorbs UV radiation from the Sun, preventing most of it reaching Earth's surface (1m)
  • Sunscreen absorbs or reflects UV radiation, reducing the amount that reaches skin cells (1m)

UV radiation is ionising — its photons carry enough energy to remove electrons from atoms in biological tissue, breaking chemical bonds in DNA. Accumulated DNA mutations are a major cause of skin cancer. Two protection mechanisms exist: (1) the stratospheric ozone layer absorbs most incoming UV before it reaches the surface, which is why ozone depletion increases cancer risk; (2) sunscreen contains compounds that absorb UV photons and re-emit the energy harmlessly as heat, preventing UV from penetrating to the basal layer of the skin where DNA damage is most harmful.

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5.

Explain the potential dangers of ultraviolet radiation to humans.

3 marks · standardCommon

Ultraviolet radiation is ionising radiation. It can damage DNA in skin cells, which can lead to mutations and skin cancer. High doses can also cause sunburn and damage to the eyes. The ozone layer in the atmosphere absorbs most of the ultraviolet radiation from the Sun, protecting life on Earth.

  • UV is ionising radiation / can damage DNA (1m)
  • Can cause skin cancer / mutations in cells (1m)
  • Also causes sunburn and/or eye damage / ozone layer provides protection (1m)

UV radiation is dangerous because it is ionising - it can damage DNA, cause mutations, lead to skin cancer, and cause sunburn and eye damage.

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6.

A radio wave has a frequency of 600 kHz (6 x 10^5 Hz). The speed of electromagnetic waves is 3 x 10^8 m/s. Calculate the wavelength of this radio wave. Use the equation: wave speed = frequency x wavelength

3 marks · standardCommon
  • Correct rearrangement: lambda = v/f (1m)
  • Correct substitution: lambda = 3 x 10^8 / 6 x 10^5 (1m)
  • Correct answer: 500 m (1m)

lambda = v/f = (3 x 10^8) / (6 x 10^5) = 500 m. Radio waves have long wavelengths - this is typical for AM radio.

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7.

Visible light has a wavelength of 500 nm (5 x 10^-7 m). The speed of light is 3 x 10^8 m/s. Calculate the frequency of this light wave. Use the equation: wave speed = frequency x wavelength

3 marks · standardCommon
  • Correct rearrangement: f = v/lambda (1m)
  • Correct substitution: f = 3 x 10^8 / 5 x 10^-7 (1m)
  • Correct answer: 6 x 10^14 Hz (1m)

f = v/lambda = (3 x 10^8) / (5 x 10^-7) = 6 x 10^14 Hz. This is in the visible light frequency range.

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8.

An X-ray has a wavelength of 1 x 10^-10 m. The speed of electromagnetic waves is 3 x 10^8 m/s. Calculate the frequency of this X-ray.

3 marks · higherCommon
  • Correct rearrangement: f = v/lambda (1m)
  • Correct substitution: f = 3 x 10^8 / 1 x 10^-10 (1m)
  • Correct answer: 3 x 10^18 Hz (1m)

f = v/lambda = (3 x 10^8) / (1 x 10^-10) = 3 x 10^(8-(-10)) = 3 x 10^18 Hz. X-rays have very high frequencies.

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9.

Explain why gamma rays are used in both the treatment of cancer and in sterilising medical equipment.

3 marks · higherCommon

Gamma rays are ionising radiation with very high energy. They can kill cancer cells by ionising the DNA within them, preventing cell division. For sterilisation, gamma rays kill bacteria and viruses on medical equipment by ionising and destroying their DNA, without leaving any harmful residue.

  • Gamma rays are ionising / have high energy (1m)
  • Kill cancer cells by ionising/damaging DNA, preventing cell division (1m)
  • Kill bacteria/viruses on equipment by destroying their DNA (sterilisation without chemical residue) (1m)

Gamma rays work in both applications because they are ionising - they damage and destroy DNA. In cancer treatment this kills tumour cells; in sterilisation this kills pathogens.

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10.

Explain why gamma rays are more dangerous to living tissue than radio waves, even though both are electromagnetic waves.

3 marks · higherCommon

Gamma rays have a much shorter wavelength and much higher frequency than radio waves. Higher frequency means higher energy. Because gamma rays have very high energy they are ionising radiation - they can knock electrons off atoms and damage DNA in cells, which can cause cancer. Radio waves have very low frequency and energy and are non-ionising, so they do not damage cells in the same way.

  • Gamma rays have shorter wavelength / higher frequency than radio waves (1m)
  • Higher frequency means higher energy; gamma rays are ionising radiation (1m)
  • Gamma rays can damage DNA / cause mutations / cause cancer; radio waves are non-ionising and do not damage DNA (1m)

Higher frequency = higher energy. Gamma is ionising (damages DNA, causes cancer). Radio waves are non-ionising and do not damage cells the same way.

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11.

State the seven types of electromagnetic radiation in order of increasing frequency.

2 marks · foundationCommon

In order of increasing frequency: radio waves, microwaves, infrared, visible light, ultraviolet, X-rays, gamma rays.

  • Radio waves and microwaves at the low-frequency end, gamma rays at the high-frequency end (correct relative ordering) (1m)
  • All seven types named in the correct sequence: radio, microwave, infrared, visible, ultraviolet, X-ray, gamma (1m)

Mnemonic: 'Raging Martians Invaded Venus Using X-ray Guns'. Radio, Microwave, Infrared, Visible, Ultraviolet, X-ray, Gamma.

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12.

State two different uses of microwaves.

2 marks · standardCommon

Microwaves are used in satellite communication and mobile phone networks. They are also used in microwave ovens to cook food because water molecules in food absorb microwave radiation and heat up.

  • Communication: satellite communication / mobile phones / wireless networks (1 mark) (1m)
  • Cooking: microwave ovens / heating food (1 mark) (1m)

Microwaves have two main uses: (1) communication (satellites, mobile phones, Wi-Fi) and (2) cooking food (microwave ovens heat water molecules in food).

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13.

State two uses of radio waves.

2 marks · standardCommon

Radio waves are used for broadcasting television and radio programmes. They are also used for communication in mobile phones, emergency services, and long-distance communication with satellites and spacecraft.

  • Broadcast radio and/or television programmes (1 mark) (1m)
  • Mobile phone communication / emergency services / satellite communication (1 mark - any one) (1m)

Radio waves are used in broadcasting (radio, TV) and communication (mobile phones, emergency services, satellites).

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14.

What is the speed of all electromagnetic waves in a vacuum?

  • A. 3 x 10^8 m/s
  • B. 3 x 10^6 m/s
  • C. 3 x 10^10 m/s
  • D. 340 m/s
1 mark · foundationCommon

All electromagnetic waves travel at the speed of light in a vacuum: 3 x 10^8 m/s. This is one of the fundamental constants of physics.

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15.

Which type of electromagnetic wave has the highest frequency?

  • A. Radio waves
  • B. Visible light
  • C. Ultraviolet
  • D. Gamma rays
1 mark · foundationCommon

Gamma rays have the highest frequency (and shortest wavelength) in the electromagnetic spectrum. The order from lowest to highest frequency is: radio, microwave, infrared, visible, ultraviolet, X-ray, gamma.

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16.

What type of wave are all electromagnetic waves?

  • A. Longitudinal waves
  • B. Transverse waves
  • C. Mechanical waves
  • D. Sound waves
1 mark · foundationCommon

All electromagnetic waves are transverse waves. The electric and magnetic fields oscillate perpendicular to the direction of wave travel. Unlike sound, they do not need a medium to travel.

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17.

Which type of electromagnetic radiation is emitted by all objects with a temperature above absolute zero?

  • A. Gamma radiation
  • B. Ultraviolet radiation
  • C. Infrared radiation
  • D. X-rays
1 mark · standardCommon

All objects above absolute zero emit infrared radiation. Hotter objects emit more infrared radiation and at shorter wavelengths. This is the basis of thermal imaging.

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Lenses & Images

Common13
1.

A student is designing a camera that uses a single converging lens. Describe how the student can use a ray diagram to predict the properties of the image formed. In your answer, include: the rules for drawing the rays, how image properties (size, orientation, type) are determined, and how changing the object distance changes the image. (6 marks)

6 marks · higherCommon
  • Level 3 (5-6 marks): Detailed coherent account. Includes all three ray construction rules (parallel ray through far F; ray through centre straight; ray through near F parallel). States how the intersection point gives the image. Correctly describes how image type, orientation, and size change with object distance (beyond 2F: real, inverted, diminished; at 2F: same size; F to 2F: real, inverted, magnified; inside F: virtual, upright, enlarged). Mentions that image distance also changes. (6m)
  • Level 2 (3-4 marks): Describes at least two correct ray rules and some correct image properties for different object distances, but the account is incomplete or has minor inaccuracies. (4m)
  • Level 1 (1-2 marks): Knows some basic facts (e.g. parallel ray through focal point) and one or two image properties but account is limited. (2m)

Ray construction: (1) ray // axis -> through far F; (2) ray through centre -> straight; (3) ray through near F -> // axis. Image at intersection. Object distances: beyond 2F: real, inverted, diminished; at 2F: real, inverted, same size; between F and 2F: real, inverted, magnified; inside F: virtual, upright, enlarged (magnifying glass).

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2.

Explain the difference between a real image and a virtual image. State one situation where each type is formed by a converging lens.

3 marks · standardCommon

A real image is formed when light rays actually converge at a point after passing through the lens. A real image can be projected onto a screen. A converging lens produces a real image when the object is beyond the focal point. A virtual image is formed when light rays appear to diverge from a point but do not actually pass through it. A virtual image cannot be projected onto a screen. A converging lens produces a virtual image when the object is between the lens and the focal point (as in a magnifying glass).

  • Real image: rays actually converge at a point; can be projected onto a screen (1m)
  • Virtual image: rays appear to diverge from a point but do not actually pass through it; cannot be projected (1m)
  • Correct situation for each: real image when object is beyond focal point; virtual image when object is between lens and focal point (1m)

Real image: rays actually pass through the image point; can be caught on a screen; formed when object is beyond the focal point of a converging lens. Virtual image: rays only appear to come from the image point; cannot be projected; formed when object is inside the focal length of a converging lens (magnifying glass effect).

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3.

Explain how a convex lens forms a real, inverted image of an object placed beyond its focal point. Include the ray diagram construction rules in your answer.

3 marks · higherCommon

To draw a ray diagram for a converging lens with the object beyond the focal point: a ray parallel to the principal axis refracts through the lens and passes through the far focal point; a ray passing through the optical centre of the lens continues in a straight line without changing direction; a ray passing through the near focal point refracts through the lens and emerges parallel to the principal axis. Where these refracted rays cross on the far side of the lens, the real image is formed. Because the rays cross below the axis, the image is inverted. Because the image is on the far side of the lens from the object, it is real and can be projected.

  • Ray parallel to principal axis refracts and passes through the far focal point (1m)
  • Ray through optical centre passes straight through (undeviated) (1m)
  • Rays cross on the far side forming a real, inverted image (real because rays actually converge; inverted because they cross the axis) (1m)

Three standard rays: (1) parallel to axis -> through far focal point; (2) through optical centre -> straight; (3) through near focal point -> parallel to axis. Image where any two cross on far side = real + inverted. Object beyond F gives real, inverted image (size depends on how far beyond F).

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4.

A student uses a converging lens as a magnifying glass. Describe the properties of the image formed and explain why the object must be placed inside the focal length of the lens.

3 marks · higherCommon

When the object is placed inside the focal length of a converging lens, the image formed is virtual, upright, and enlarged. The image is virtual because the diverging refracted rays do not actually converge - they only appear to come from a point further away when traced back. The image is on the same side as the object. The object must be inside the focal length because if it is placed beyond the focal point, the rays converge on the far side producing a real inverted image, which cannot be used as a simple magnifier that you look through.

  • Image is virtual, upright, and enlarged (all three properties) (1m)
  • The image is virtual because the refracted rays diverge (do not actually converge); it appears on the same side as the object (1m)
  • Object must be inside focal length because beyond the focal point, rays converge producing a real, inverted image that cannot be used as a magnifier (1m)

Magnifying glass: object inside F -> rays refract but still diverge. The eye traces them back to find a virtual, upright, enlarged image on the same side as the object. Beyond F: rays converge on far side -> real, inverted image (not useful as magnifier).

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5.

Explain the difference between a converging lens and a diverging lens. Include what each type does to parallel rays of light.

2 marks · standardCommon

A converging (convex) lens refracts parallel rays of light so that they come together at a point called the focal point. A diverging (concave) lens refracts parallel rays of light so that they spread apart as if coming from a single point on the same side as the incoming light. The focal point of a diverging lens is virtual.

  • Converging (convex) lens refracts parallel rays to meet at a real focal point (on the opposite side) (1m)
  • Diverging (concave) lens refracts parallel rays so they spread apart and appear to come from a virtual focal point (on the same side as incoming light) (1m)

Converging (convex) lens: parallel rays converge at the real focal point on the far side. Diverging (concave) lens: parallel rays spread out and appear to originate from a virtual focal point on the near side. This is why concave lenses always produce virtual images.

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6.

A magnifying glass produces an image of a stamp that is 6 times the size of the actual stamp. The stamp is 2.5 cm tall. Calculate the height of the image. Use the equation: magnification = image height / object height

2 marks · standardCommon
  • Correct rearrangement: image height = magnification x object height (1m)
  • Correct answer: image height = 6 x 2.5 = 15 cm (1m)

Image height = magnification x object height = 6 x 2.5 = 15 cm. The magnification of 6 means the image is 6 times taller than the object.

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7.

A microscope produces an image of a cell. The cell is 0.05 mm in diameter. The image on the eyepiece is 15 mm in diameter. Calculate the magnification of the microscope. Use the equation: magnification = image height / object height

2 marks · standardCommon
  • Correct substitution: magnification = 15 / 0.05 (1m)
  • Correct answer: 300 (no units, it is a ratio) (1m)

Magnification = image height / object height = 15 mm / 0.05 mm = 300. Both values are in mm so no unit conversion needed. Magnification has no units.

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8.

A camera lens produces an image of a building 300 m tall. The image on the sensor is 6 mm tall. Calculate the magnification of the camera lens. Give your answer to 2 significant figures. (Note: both measurements must be in the same units.)

2 marks · higherCommon
  • Converts units so both are the same: 300 m = 300,000 mm (or 6 mm = 0.006 m) (1m)
  • Correct answer: magnification = 6 / 300,000 = 0.000020 (or 2.0 x 10^-5) (1m)

Convert 300 m to mm: 300 x 1000 = 300,000 mm. Magnification = 6 / 300,000 = 0.000020 = 2.0 x 10^-5. This very small magnification makes sense -- a huge building produces a tiny image on a camera sensor.

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9.

A person with long-sightedness (hyperopia) can only focus on distant objects clearly. Explain which type of corrective lens is needed and why.

2 marks · higherCommon

A person with long-sightedness needs a converging (convex) lens. Long-sightedness occurs because the eye forms the image of near objects behind the retina rather than on it. A converging lens refracts the light rays together before they enter the eye, so the eye can then focus them correctly onto the retina. The converging lens effectively moves the near point of the eye to a closer distance.

  • A converging (convex) lens is needed for long-sightedness (1m)
  • The converging lens refracts light rays together before entering the eye so the image falls on the retina (rather than behind it) (1m)

Long-sight: image forms behind retina. Fix: converging lens refracts rays together before entering eye, shifting focus point forward onto the retina. Short-sight (myopia): image forms in front of retina; fix with diverging (concave) lens.

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10.

What does a convex (converging) lens do to parallel rays of light?

  • A. It brings the rays together at the focal point
  • B. It spreads the rays apart
  • C. It reflects the rays back
  • D. It blocks the rays
1 mark · foundationCommon

A convex (converging) lens refracts parallel rays of light so that they converge at a single point called the focal point. The distance from the centre of the lens to this point is the focal length.

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11.

Which of the following correctly describes a virtual image formed by a lens?

  • A. It can be projected onto a screen
  • B. It is always smaller than the object
  • C. It cannot be projected onto a screen and appears to be behind the lens
  • D. It is always inverted
1 mark · foundationCommon

A virtual image cannot be projected onto a screen because the light rays do not actually converge - they only appear to diverge from that point. A virtual image appears to be on the same side as the object (behind the lens for a converging lens when the object is within the focal length).

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12.

A concave (diverging) lens always produces which type of image?

  • A. A real, inverted, magnified image
  • B. A real, upright, diminished image
  • C. A virtual, inverted, magnified image
  • D. A virtual, upright, diminished image
1 mark · foundationCommon

A concave (diverging) lens always produces a virtual, upright, diminished image regardless of where the object is placed. The image appears on the same side as the object and is always smaller.

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13.

An object is 4 cm tall and the image formed by a lens is 12 cm tall. What is the magnification?

  • A. 0.33
  • B. 3
  • C. 8
  • D. 48
1 mark · standardCommon

Magnification = image height / object height = 12 / 4 = 3. A magnification greater than 1 means the image is larger than the object. Magnification has no units as it is a ratio.

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Seismic Waves

Common13
1.

Describe and explain how scientists used seismic wave data to build up a model of the Earth's interior structure. In your answer, include: the properties of P-waves and S-waves, what the shadow zones tell us, how refraction provides further evidence, and what the overall model of the Earth's structure looks like. (6 marks)

6 marks · higherCommon

P-waves are longitudinal waves that can travel through both solids and liquids. S-waves are transverse waves that can only travel through solids. When seismologists detected no S-waves on the far side of the Earth from an earthquake, they concluded that the outer core must be liquid, because S-waves cannot pass through it. P-waves can travel through the outer core but are refracted (bent) at the boundary because their speed changes as they enter material of different density. This refraction creates a P-wave shadow zone where P-waves are not detected. However, P-waves are detected beyond the shadow zone, showing they have been refracted through the inner core. The fact that P-waves can travel through the inner core indicates it is solid. This evidence led to the model of Earth as a solid crust and mantle, a liquid outer core, and a solid inner core.

  • P-waves are longitudinal and travel through solids and liquids; S-waves are transverse and travel only through solids (1m)
  • S-waves do not reach the far side of the Earth — they are blocked by the outer core, which must be liquid (1m)
  • P-waves are refracted (change direction) at the core boundary because their speed changes (1m)
  • P-wave shadow zone (region where P-waves are not detected) also provides evidence of a distinct core (1m)
  • P-waves are detected on the far side despite the shadow zone, showing they refract through the inner core — the inner core must be solid (1m)
  • Overall model: solid crust, solid mantle, liquid outer core, solid inner core (1m)

Full model answer: P-waves = longitudinal, travel through all materials. S-waves = transverse, only through solids. S-wave shadow zone (no S-waves on far side) = liquid outer core. P-wave shadow zone + refraction at core boundary = core has different properties from mantle. P-waves refracted through core but still detected on far side = solid inner core. Earth model: crust (solid), mantle (solid, convects slowly), outer core (liquid iron/nickel), inner core (solid iron/nickel under extreme pressure).

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2.

A P-wave has a frequency of 2.5 Hz and travels through the Earth's mantle at 8000 m/s. Calculate the wavelength of this P-wave. Use the equation: wave speed = frequency x wavelength

3 marks · standardCommon
  • Correct rearrangement: wavelength = wave speed / frequency (1m)
  • Correct substitution: wavelength = 8000 / 2.5 (1m)
  • Correct answer: 3200 m (or 3.2 km) (1m)

wavelength = v / f = 8000 / 2.5 = 3200 m. Seismic waves have very long wavelengths because they travel at high speeds but at low frequencies.

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3.

An S-wave has a wavelength of 400 m and travels through rock at 4000 m/s. Calculate the frequency of this S-wave. Use the equation: wave speed = frequency x wavelength

3 marks · standardCommon
  • Correct rearrangement: frequency = wave speed / wavelength (1m)
  • Correct substitution: frequency = 4000 / 400 (1m)
  • Correct answer: 10 Hz (1m)

frequency = v / wavelength = 4000 / 400 = 10 Hz. Seismic waves typically have very low frequencies (below 20 Hz) which is why they are inaudible to humans.

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4.

Explain how the analysis of seismic waves detected around the world after an earthquake provides evidence for the structure of the Earth's interior.

3 marks · higherCommon

After an earthquake, seismometers around the world detect seismic waves. S-waves, which are transverse, are not detected on the side of the Earth opposite the earthquake because they cannot travel through the liquid outer core. This creates an S-wave shadow zone and provides evidence that the outer core is liquid. P-waves, which are longitudinal, are refracted (bent) as they pass through the core because their speed changes with rock density. This refraction creates a P-wave shadow zone at certain angles, confirming that the outer core has a different composition from the mantle. The detection of P-waves (but not S-waves) on the opposite side of the Earth provides evidence that the inner core is solid.

  • S-waves cannot travel through the liquid outer core; S-wave shadow zone provides evidence the outer core is liquid (1m)
  • P-waves are refracted (change direction) as they pass through the Earth because wave speed changes with density/material; this creates a P-wave shadow zone (1m)
  • The detection of P-waves (refracted through core) but absence of S-waves on far side provides evidence for a solid inner core and liquid outer core structure (1m)

S-wave shadow zone -> outer core is liquid (S-waves = transverse, cannot go through liquid). P-wave refraction + shadow zone -> core has different density/properties from mantle. P-waves still arriving on far side (just refracted) -> inner core is solid (P-waves can pass through).

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5.

Seismic waves travel in curved paths through the Earth rather than straight lines. Explain why this happens.

3 marks · higherCommon

Seismic waves travel in curved paths through the Earth because the speed of the waves increases with depth as density and pressure increase. Since the wave speed gradually increases with depth, the waves are continuously refracted (bent) at each rock layer boundary. This continuous refraction causes the waves to follow a curved path, bending away from the vertical as they travel deeper, and then curving back upwards towards the surface on the far side.

  • Wave speed increases with depth because density and pressure increase with depth (1m)
  • Waves are continuously refracted (bent) at each layer boundary as speed changes (1m)
  • The continuous refraction bends the waves gradually, creating a curved (not straight) path through the Earth (1m)

Speed increases with depth (greater pressure/density). Refraction at each layer bends the wave slightly. Thousands of layers = smooth curved path. Waves curve away from vertical while going deeper, then curve back to surface on far side.

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6.

A seismometer detects a P-wave 1800 seconds after an earthquake occurs. The P-wave travels at an average speed of 7200 m/s through the Earth. Calculate the distance from the earthquake epicentre to the seismometer.

3 marks · higherCommon
  • Uses correct equation: distance = speed x time (1m)
  • Correct substitution: distance = 7200 x 1800 (1m)
  • Correct answer: 12,960,000 m (or 12,960 km) (1m)

distance = speed x time = 7200 x 1800 = 12,960,000 m = 12,960 km. This is slightly larger than the Earth's radius (~6,371 km), which makes sense for a wave that has travelled a curved path through the mantle.

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7.

Scientists use seismometers at multiple locations to determine the epicentre of an earthquake. Explain how data from three seismometers can be used to pinpoint the location of an earthquake.

3 marks · higherCommon

Each seismometer records the time at which P-waves and S-waves arrive. Since P-waves travel faster than S-waves, the time difference between the arrival of P-waves and S-waves at a seismometer can be used to calculate the distance from that seismometer to the earthquake. Each seismometer gives a different distance, which is drawn as a circle around that seismometer. Data from three seismometers gives three circles. The epicentre of the earthquake is at the single point where all three circles intersect.

  • Time difference between P-wave and S-wave arrival at each seismometer gives the distance from seismometer to earthquake (P-waves travel faster) (1m)
  • The distance from each seismometer is used to draw a circle centred on that seismometer (1m)
  • Three circles from three seismometers intersect at a single point which is the epicentre (1m)

P-waves faster than S-waves -> arrival time gap = distance indicator. Each seismometer: time gap -> distance -> circle on map. Three circles from three stations intersect at one point = epicentre. Two circles give two possible points; three circles give one unique point.

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8.

State two differences between P-waves and S-waves in terms of how the particles move and what materials they can travel through.

2 marks · standardCommon

P-waves are longitudinal waves: particles vibrate parallel to the direction of wave travel. S-waves are transverse waves: particles vibrate perpendicular to the direction of wave travel. P-waves can travel through solids and liquids. S-waves can only travel through solids and cannot pass through liquids.

  • P-waves are longitudinal (particles vibrate parallel); S-waves are transverse (particles vibrate perpendicular to wave direction) (1m)
  • P-waves travel through solids and liquids; S-waves can only travel through solids (1m)

P-wave = longitudinal (particles parallel to travel); S-wave = transverse (particles perpendicular to travel). P-waves travel through solids AND liquids; S-waves only through solids (transverse waves cannot propagate through liquids).

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9.

Explain why P-waves are always detected before S-waves at a seismometer after an earthquake.

2 marks · standardCommon

P-waves (primary waves) travel faster than S-waves (secondary waves) through the same material. Because they travel faster, P-waves cover the distance from the earthquake to the seismometer in less time and arrive first. S-waves are slower and therefore arrive at the seismometer later. The greater the distance from the earthquake, the larger the time gap between the P-wave and S-wave arrivals.

  • P-waves travel faster than S-waves (in the same material) (1m)
  • Faster waves cover the same distance in less time, so P-waves arrive first (1m)

P-waves travel faster through rock than S-waves. Same distance, faster speed = less time to arrive. The primary (P) and secondary (S) naming reflects the order of arrival at seismometers.

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10.

What type of wave is a P-wave (primary seismic wave)?

  • A. Longitudinal wave
  • B. Transverse wave
  • C. Electromagnetic wave
  • D. Surface wave only
1 mark · foundationCommon

P-waves (primary waves) are longitudinal waves. Particles vibrate parallel to the direction of wave travel, forming compressions and rarefactions. P-waves can travel through solids, liquids, and gases.

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11.

Why do S-waves not reach the far side of the Earth after an earthquake?

  • A. S-waves are absorbed by the mantle
  • B. S-waves cannot travel through the liquid outer core
  • C. S-waves travel too slowly to reach the far side
  • D. S-waves are reflected by the inner core
1 mark · foundationCommon

S-waves are transverse waves and cannot travel through liquids. The Earth's outer core is liquid, so S-waves are blocked there and cannot continue to the other side of the Earth. This is how scientists deduced that the outer core is liquid.

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12.

The 'shadow zone' of an earthquake is the area where no seismic waves are detected. Which waves create a shadow zone and what does this reveal about Earth's structure?

  • A. Only P-waves; shows the mantle is solid
  • B. Both P and S-waves equally; shows the crust is thin
  • C. Only S-waves; shows the outer core is liquid
  • D. Both P and S-waves in different zones; shows the outer core is liquid and refracts P-waves
1 mark · foundationCommon

Both P and S-waves create shadow zones but in different ways. S-waves cannot pass through the liquid outer core at all, creating a large S-wave shadow zone. P-waves are refracted (bent) as they pass through the liquid outer core, creating a P-wave shadow zone at specific angles. Together these provide evidence for the structure of Earth's interior.

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13.

As a seismic wave travels from a less dense rock layer into a denser rock layer, what happens to its speed and direction?

  • A. Speed decreases and the wave bends away from the normal
  • B. Speed increases and the wave bends towards the normal
  • C. Speed increases and the wave bends away from the normal
  • D. Speed decreases and the wave bends towards the normal
1 mark · standardCommon

When a seismic wave enters a denser rock layer, it speeds up (denser rock is stiffer, transmitting vibrations faster). When a wave speeds up as it crosses a boundary at an angle, it bends away from the normal. This is refraction of seismic waves.

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Magnetic Fields

Common13
1.

Describe a method to plot the magnetic field pattern around a bar magnet using a plotting compass. Your answer should include the equipment needed, the steps followed, and what you would observe.

6 marks · challengeCommon
  • Place the bar magnet on a piece of paper and draw around it (1m)
  • Place the plotting compass at one end of the magnet (near the north pole) (1m)
  • Mark the position of the compass needle tip (or tail) with a dot (1m)
  • Move the compass so its tail is at the previous dot; mark the new needle tip; repeat to trace a field line (1m)
  • Lift the compass and start a new line at a different position around the magnet (1m)
  • Arrows on field lines show direction from north to south pole outside the magnet (1m)

Level 3 (5-6 marks): Valid field pattern obtained; steps clearly sequenced including: draw magnet outline, start near pole, mark dots, move compass tail to previous dot tip, repeat, add arrows. Level 2 (3-4 marks): Most steps identified but not fully sequenced. Level 1 (1-2 marks): Some relevant equipment or steps mentioned.

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2.

Explain how an electromagnet works and state two ways in which its strength can be increased.

3 marks · standardCommon

An electromagnet works by passing an electric current through a coil of wire. The current creates a magnetic field around the coil. Adding an iron core inside the coil increases the strength of the magnetic field. The strength can be increased by increasing the current flowing through the coil or by increasing the number of turns in the coil.

  • Current flowing through the coil produces a magnetic field (1m)
  • Increasing the current increases the strength of the field (1m)
  • Increasing the number of turns (coils) of wire increases the strength (1m)

An electromagnet relies on the magnetic effect of a current. A coil of wire carrying current acts like a bar magnet. Strength increases with more current (higher current = stronger field) or more turns of wire (each turn adds to the total field).

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3.

A wire of length 0.40 m is in a magnetic field of flux density 0.50 T. The force on the wire is 0.60 N. Calculate the current through the wire. Use the equation: force = magnetic flux density x current x length

3 marks · standardCommon
  • Correct rearrangement: I = F / (B x l) (1m)
  • Correct substitution: I = 0.60 / (0.50 x 0.40) (1m)
  • Correct answer: I = 3 A (1m)

Rearranging F = BIl to find current: I = F / (B x l) = 0.60 / (0.50 x 0.40) = 0.60 / 0.20 = 3 A.

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4.

Describe what magnetic field lines show about the direction and strength of a magnetic field. Include what closer field lines indicate.

3 marks · higherCommon

Magnetic field lines show the direction of the magnetic field at each point — the direction in which a free north pole would move. Where the field lines are closer together the field is stronger. Where the field lines are further apart the field is weaker.

  • Field lines show the direction of the magnetic field (direction a north pole would move) (1m)
  • Closer field lines indicate a stronger magnetic field (1m)
  • Further apart field lines indicate a weaker magnetic field (1m)

Field lines are a visual tool. Their direction shows which way the field acts (defined as the direction a free north pole would move). Their spacing shows the field strength — closely-spaced lines mean the field is strong, widely-spaced lines mean the field is weak.

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5.

Compare a permanent magnet with an electromagnet. Give one advantage of an electromagnet over a permanent magnet in an industrial application.

3 marks · higherCommon

A permanent magnet always produces a magnetic field and cannot be switched off. An electromagnet only produces a field when current flows through it, so it can be switched on and off. This is an advantage in industrial applications such as cranes used to lift and drop metal objects — the electromagnet can be turned off to release the metal.

  • An electromagnet can be switched on and off (by controlling the current) (1m)
  • A permanent magnet cannot be switched off (always has a magnetic field) (1m)
  • Valid industrial advantage stated (e.g. electromagnet crane can release metal by turning off current) (1m)

The key difference is control. An electromagnet can be switched on and off — useful when you need to pick up and drop metal objects (e.g. in a scrap metal yard). A permanent magnet is always magnetised, which is useful when you always need the field but inconvenient when you need to release objects.

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6.

A wire of length 0.25 m carries a current of 4.0 A in a magnetic field of flux density 0.30 T. The wire is perpendicular to the field. Calculate the force on the wire. Use the equation: force = magnetic flux density x current x length

3 marks · higherCommon
  • Correct substitution: F = 0.30 x 4.0 x 0.25 (1m)
  • Correct calculation: F = 0.30 N (1m)
  • Correct unit: N (newtons) (1m)

Using F = BIl: F = 0.30 x 4.0 x 0.25 = 0.30 N. The equation F = BIl gives the force on a current-carrying conductor in a magnetic field when the wire is perpendicular to the field.

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7.

State the rules for the attraction and repulsion of magnetic poles.

2 marks · standardCommon

Like poles repel each other. Unlike poles attract each other.

  • Like poles repel (same poles push away from each other) (1m)
  • Unlike poles attract (opposite poles pull toward each other) (1m)

Like poles (N-N or S-S) repel because their magnetic field lines push against each other. Unlike poles (N-S) attract because their field lines connect and pull the magnets together.

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8.

A student doubles the number of turns in the coil of an electromagnet, keeping the current the same. By what factor does the strength of the magnetic field change?

2 marks · standardCommon
  • Field strength doubles (increases by a factor of 2) (1m)
  • Correct reasoning: each turn contributes to the field, so more turns = proportionally stronger field (1m)

The magnetic field strength of a solenoid is directly proportional to the number of turns. If the number of turns doubles (with current constant), the field strength doubles (factor of 2).

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9.

Explain why soft iron is used as the core in an electromagnet rather than steel.

2 marks · standardCommon

Soft iron is used because it is easily magnetised when current flows and easily loses its magnetism when the current is switched off. Steel is a hard magnetic material that retains its magnetism — this is not useful when you need the electromagnet to switch off cleanly.

  • Soft iron loses its magnetism when the current is switched off (easily demagnetised) (1m)
  • Steel retains its magnetism (stays magnetised even when current is off), which is undesirable for an electromagnet core (1m)

Soft iron is a magnetically soft material — it magnetises and demagnetises very easily. This is ideal for an electromagnet core because you want the magnetism to disappear when the current is switched off. Steel (hard magnetic material) keeps its magnetism, so it would not switch off cleanly.

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10.

What happens when two like magnetic poles (e.g. north and north) are brought close together?

  • A. They repel each other
  • B. They attract each other
  • C. One pole cancels the other out
  • D. Nothing happens
1 mark · foundationCommon

Like poles repel. When two north poles (or two south poles) are brought together, the magnetic fields push them apart. Unlike poles (north and south) attract.

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11.

On a diagram of a magnetic field, which direction do the field lines point?

  • A. From south pole to north pole outside the magnet
  • B. From north pole to south pole outside the magnet
  • C. In random directions
  • D. Always vertically downward
1 mark · foundationCommon

Magnetic field lines run from north to south outside the magnet (and from south to north inside the magnet). The direction of the field line is the direction a free north pole would move.

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12.

Which of the following best describes a solenoid?

  • A. A permanent magnet made from iron
  • B. A single straight wire carrying current
  • C. A device that converts electrical energy into light
  • D. A coil of wire that produces a magnetic field when current flows through it
1 mark · foundationCommon

A solenoid is a coil of wire that produces a magnetic field when an electric current flows through it. The field inside the solenoid is uniform and resembles the field of a bar magnet.

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13.

A plotting compass is placed near a bar magnet. The compass needle points towards the south pole of the magnet. What does this tell you about the direction of the magnetic field at that point?

  • A. The field points away from the south pole at that point
  • B. There is no magnetic field at that point
  • C. The field points towards the south pole at that point
  • D. The field points towards the north pole at that point
1 mark · standardCommon

A compass needle aligns with the local magnetic field. The north end of the compass points in the direction of the field. If the compass points toward the south pole of the magnet, the field direction at that point is toward the south pole — which is consistent with field lines entering a south pole.

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The Motor Effect

Common18
1.

An electric motor is used to lift a load. Discuss the physics of how the motor converts electrical energy into kinetic energy of the coil. Evaluate two ways to increase the turning force (torque) produced by the motor.

6 marks · challengeCommon

An electric motor converts electrical energy into kinetic energy. A coil carrying current is placed in a magnetic field. Each side of the coil experiences a force given by F = BIl (the motor effect). The forces on opposite sides of the coil act in opposite directions, creating a turning effect (torque) that makes the coil rotate. A commutator reverses the direction of the current every half turn so that the forces continue to turn the coil in the same direction throughout its rotation. To increase the torque: (1) Increase the current — since F = BIl, a larger current produces a larger force on each side, giving a greater turning effect. (2) Increase the magnetic flux density — a stronger magnetic field also increases the force on each side via F = BIl. Alternatively, increasing the number of turns in the coil increases the total force as each turn contributes additional force.

  • The motor effect: current in a coil inside a magnetic field experiences a force (F = BIl) (1m)
  • Forces on opposite sides of the coil act in opposite directions, creating a turning effect (torque) (1m)
  • The commutator reverses current every half turn to maintain rotation in the same direction (1m)
  • Increasing the current through the coil increases the force (F = BIl, so larger I → larger F) (1m)
  • Increasing the magnetic flux density increases the force (larger B → larger F) (1m)
  • Increasing the number of turns in the coil increases the total force on the coil (1m)

Level 3 (5-6 marks): Clear logical sequence covering the motor effect, the creation of torque from opposing forces on the coil sides, the role of the commutator, and two specific, well-reasoned ways to increase torque. Level 2 (3-4 marks): Motor effect described and at least one way to increase torque identified but reasoning incomplete. Level 1 (1-2 marks): Some relevant physics mentioned but not clearly connected.

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2.

A loudspeaker uses the motor effect to produce sound. Explain how a loudspeaker converts alternating electrical current into sound. Include in your answer the role of the coil, the magnet, and how sound is produced.

4 marks · higherCommon

An alternating current passes through the coil attached to the speaker cone. The coil is inside a permanent magnetic field. The motor effect produces a force on the coil. Because the current is alternating, the force on the coil repeatedly reverses direction, causing the coil and attached cone to vibrate back and forth. These vibrations of the cone create pressure waves in the air, which we hear as sound.

  • Alternating current flows through the coil (which is in a magnetic field) (1m)
  • The motor effect produces a force on the coil (1m)
  • The alternating current causes the force to repeatedly reverse direction, making the coil vibrate (1m)
  • The vibrating cone creates pressure waves (compressions and rarefactions) in the air, which we hear as sound (1m)

Key chain: AC current → alternating force (motor effect) → coil vibrates → cone vibrates → pressure waves in air → sound. The frequency of the AC matches the frequency of vibration and hence the frequency (pitch) of the sound produced.

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3.

A wire of length 0.15 m carries a current of 6.0 A. The wire is perpendicular to a magnetic field of flux density 0.40 T. Calculate the force on the wire. Use the equation: force = magnetic flux density x current x length

3 marks · standardCommon
  • Correct substitution: F = 0.40 x 6.0 x 0.15 (1m)
  • Correct calculation: F = 0.36 N (1m)
  • Correct unit: N (newtons) (1m)

F = BIl = 0.40 x 6.0 x 0.15 = 0.36 N. The force is 0.36 newtons. Remember the wire must be perpendicular to the field for this equation to apply directly.

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4.

A 0.20 m wire carries a current of 5.0 A. The force on the wire in the magnetic field is 0.80 N. Calculate the magnetic flux density. The equation is: force = magnetic flux density x current x length

3 marks · higherCommon
  • Correct rearrangement: B = F / (I x l) (1m)
  • Correct substitution: B = 0.80 / (5.0 x 0.20) (1m)
  • Correct answer: B = 0.80 T (1m)

Rearranging F = BIl: B = F / (I x l) = 0.80 / (5.0 x 0.20) = 0.80 / 1.0 = 0.80 T.

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5.

Explain how an electric motor works. Include in your answer: the role of the magnetic field, what causes the coil to rotate, and the function of the commutator.

3 marks · higherCommon

A current-carrying coil is placed inside a magnetic field. The motor effect produces a force on each side of the coil. Because the forces act on opposite sides of the coil in opposite directions, this creates a turning effect (torque) which causes the coil to rotate. The commutator reverses the direction of current in the coil every half turn, keeping the coil rotating in the same direction.

  • Force on the coil is due to the motor effect (current in magnetic field) (1m)
  • Forces on opposite sides of the coil are in opposite directions, creating a turning effect (rotation) (1m)
  • The commutator reverses the current direction every half turn, maintaining continuous rotation in the same direction (1m)

In an electric motor: 1) Current flows through a coil inside a magnetic field; 2) Motor effect creates forces on the sides of the coil; 3) The forces on opposite sides act in opposite directions, creating a turning effect; 4) The commutator swaps the current direction every half turn so the coil always turns the same way rather than oscillating.

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6.

A motor coil has 80 turns of wire, each of length 0.05 m. The coil carries a current of 2.5 A in a magnetic field of flux density 0.20 T. Calculate the total force on one side of the coil. The equation is: force = magnetic flux density x current x length

3 marks · higherCommon
  • Correct calculation of force on one turn: F = 0.20 x 2.5 x 0.05 = 0.025 N (1m)
  • Correct multiplication by number of turns: 0.025 x 80 (1m)
  • Correct total force: 2.0 N (1m)

Force on one turn = BIl = 0.20 x 2.5 x 0.05 = 0.025 N. Total force on one side = 0.025 x 80 turns = 2.0 N. Each turn of the coil contributes to the total force.

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7.

Using the motor effect diagram, explain how you could reverse the direction of the force on the conductor.

3 marks · higherCommon

You can reverse the direction of the force by reversing the direction of the current through the conductor, or by reversing the direction of the magnetic field. However, if both the current direction and the magnetic field direction are reversed at the same time, the force direction stays the same.

  • Reversing the direction of the current through the conductor reverses the force direction (1m)
  • Reversing the direction of the magnetic field also reverses the force direction (1m)
  • Reversing both the current and the field simultaneously does not reverse the force (1m)

Using Fleming's left-hand rule: reversing either the current or the field alone reverses the force. But reversing both inputs together gives the same output direction — the two reversals cancel each other out.

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8.

Using the motor effect diagram, explain why a current-carrying wire placed in a magnetic field experiences a force.

3 marks · higherCommon

When a current flows through a wire, moving charges (electrons) create their own magnetic field around the wire. When this wire is placed inside an external magnetic field, the two magnetic fields interact. The interaction between the wire's magnetic field and the external magnetic field produces a resultant force on the wire, acting perpendicular to both the current direction and the field direction.

  • Current in the wire creates its own magnetic field (due to moving charges / electrons) (1m)
  • The wire's magnetic field interacts with the external magnetic field (1m)
  • This interaction produces a force on the wire acting perpendicular to both the current and the field (1m)

Current = moving charges. Moving charges create a magnetic field around the wire. This field interacts with the external field. The interaction produces a force perpendicular to both current direction and external field direction — this is the motor effect.

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9.

Looking at the motor effect diagram, state what each finger and thumb represents in Fleming's left-hand rule.

2 marks · foundationCommon

In Fleming's left-hand rule: the First finger points in the direction of the magnetic Field; the seCond finger points in the direction of the Current; and the thuMb points in the direction of the Motion (force).

  • First finger = magnetic field direction AND second finger = current direction (1m)
  • Thumb = direction of the force / motion / thrust (1m)

Fleming's left-hand rule mnemonic: thuMb = Motion (force); First finger = Field; seCond finger = Current. Hold the left hand so all three are at right angles to each other.

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10.

Explain how Fleming's left-hand rule is used to find the direction of the force on a current-carrying conductor in a magnetic field.

2 marks · standardCommon

Hold the left hand so the first finger points in the direction of the magnetic field, the second finger points in the direction of the conventional current. The thumb then points in the direction of the force on the conductor.

  • First finger represents the direction of the magnetic field; second finger represents the direction of conventional current (1m)
  • The thumb points in the direction of the force (motion) on the conductor (1m)

Fleming's left-hand rule is a mnemonic for the motor effect. Left hand: First finger = Field, seCond finger = Current, thuMb = Motion (force). Point first two fingers and thumb at right angles to each other — they indicate the three perpendicular directions.

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11.

Explain what happens to the direction of the force on a current-carrying conductor if the direction of the current is reversed.

2 marks · standardCommon

If the direction of the current is reversed, the direction of the force on the conductor is also reversed. The force acts in the opposite direction to before.

  • The direction of the force is reversed when the current is reversed (1m)
  • The force acts in the opposite direction (accept: the conductor moves in the opposite direction) (1m)

From F = BIl: the force magnitude stays the same, but reversing the current direction means Fleming's left-hand rule gives the opposite direction for the thumb (force). The force direction reverses.

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12.

Using the motor effect diagram, state what happens to the force on the conductor if the current is increased.

2 marks · standardCommon

If the current is increased, the force on the conductor increases. The force is directly proportional to the current, so doubling the current doubles the force.

  • The force increases when the current is increased (1m)
  • The force is directly proportional to the current (accept: reference to F = BIl showing F increases with I) (1m)

From F = BIl, if B and l are constant, F is directly proportional to I. Increasing current increases the force by the same factor.

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13.

What is the motor effect?

  • A. A force experienced by a current-carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field
  • B. The generation of a voltage when a conductor moves through a magnetic field
  • C. The heating of a wire when a large current flows through it
  • D. The attraction between two permanent magnets
1 mark · foundationCommon

The motor effect is the force experienced by a current-carrying conductor in a magnetic field. This force is what drives an electric motor. Option B describes electromagnetic induction (the generator effect), not the motor effect.

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14.

In Fleming's left-hand rule, what does the thumb represent?

  • A. The direction of the magnetic field
  • B. The direction of the conventional current
  • C. The direction of the force (motion) on the conductor
  • D. The direction of electron flow
1 mark · foundationCommon

In Fleming's left-hand rule: the First finger = magnetic Field direction; the seCond finger = conventional Current direction; the thuMb = direction of Motion (force on the conductor). A common memory trick: FBI — Field, Current (I), force (motion).

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15.

Look at the motor effect diagram. Which rule is used to find the direction of the force on a current-carrying conductor in a magnetic field?

  • A. Fleming's right-hand rule
  • B. Fleming's left-hand rule
  • C. The right-hand grip rule
  • D. Newton's third law
1 mark · foundationCommon

Fleming's left-hand rule gives the direction of the force (motion) on a current-carrying conductor in a magnetic field. The First finger = Field direction; the seCond finger = Current direction; the thuMb = Motion (force) direction.

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16.

A wire carries a current flowing east. A magnetic field points upward (north). Using Fleming's left-hand rule, in which direction does the force on the wire act?

  • A. Upward
  • B. South
  • C. Into the page (south-west)
  • D. Out of the page toward the viewer
1 mark · standardCommon

Using Fleming's left-hand rule: the First finger points in the direction of the magnetic Field (upward), the seCond finger points in the direction of conventional Current (east), and the thuMb points in the direction of the Motion (force). With field up and current east, the thumb points out of the page toward the viewer.

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17.

A student wants to increase the force on a current-carrying conductor in a magnetic field. Which of the following changes would NOT increase the force?

  • A. Increasing the current
  • B. Reversing the direction of the magnetic field
  • C. Increasing the length of wire in the field
  • D. Increasing the magnetic flux density
1 mark · standardCommon

The force on a conductor is given by F = BIl. The force increases with greater current (I), greater magnetic flux density (B), or greater length of wire (l). Reversing the field direction reverses the force direction but does not change its magnitude — so the size of the force is unchanged.

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18.

According to the motor effect diagram and the equation F = BIl, what would happen to the force on the conductor if the magnetic field strength were doubled?

  • A. The force would stay the same
  • B. The force would halve
  • C. The force would double
  • D. The force would reverse direction
1 mark · standardCommon

From F = BIl, the force F is directly proportional to the magnetic field strength B (when current I and wire length l stay constant). If B is doubled, F doubles. Reversing the field direction would reverse the force, but simply increasing it doubles the force.

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Electromagnetic Induction

Common17
1.

Describe and explain the role of transformers in the National Grid. Your answer should include: how voltage is changed at the power station and at homes, why high voltage is used for transmission, and why efficiency is important.

6 marks · challengeCommon

At the power station, a step-up transformer increases the voltage from around 25 kV to 400 kV for transmission through the National Grid. Because power = voltage x current, increasing the voltage means the current is lower for the same power. Lower current means less power is wasted as heat in the cables, since the power lost in a cable is given by P = I²R — halving the current reduces the power loss to one quarter. Near homes and businesses, step-down transformers reduce the voltage to a safe level of 230 V. This makes the system highly efficient because very little energy is wasted during transmission over long distances. Transformers only work with alternating current (AC) because the continuously changing current produces a changing magnetic field in the primary coil, which induces a voltage in the secondary coil by electromagnetic induction.

  • Step-up transformer at the power station increases voltage (e.g. from 25 kV to 400 kV) for transmission (1m)
  • High voltage means low current in transmission cables (for the same power) (1m)
  • Low current means less power is lost as heat in the cables (P = I²R), so transmission is more efficient (1m)
  • Step-down transformers reduce voltage to safe levels (e.g. 230 V) for use in homes and businesses (1m)
  • Energy is transferred efficiently across long distances because the cables waste less power (1m)
  • Transformers only work with AC — the changing current creates a changing magnetic field for electromagnetic induction (1m)

Level 3 (5-6 marks): Logically sequenced account covering step-up at power station, high voltage / low current argument with P = I²R reasoning, step-down before homes, efficiency benefit, and why AC is essential. Level 2 (3-4 marks): Most of the key ideas present but not fully linked or sequenced. Level 1 (1-2 marks): Some relevant terms used (step-up, step-down, voltage, current) but not connected into a coherent explanation.

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2.

Explain how an alternating current (AC) generator produces electricity. Include in your answer the role of the coil, the magnetic field, and the slip rings.

4 marks · higherCommon

In an AC generator, a coil of wire is rotated inside a magnetic field. As the coil rotates, it cuts through the magnetic field lines, so the magnetic field through the coil is continuously changing. By electromagnetic induction, this induces an alternating voltage in the coil. As the coil rotates the direction of the induced voltage reverses every half turn, producing alternating current. The slip rings maintain electrical contact with the external circuit while allowing the coil to rotate freely.

  • The coil rotates inside a magnetic field (1m)
  • The rotation causes the magnetic field through the coil to change, inducing a voltage by electromagnetic induction (1m)
  • The voltage is alternating because the direction reverses every half turn of the coil (1m)
  • Slip rings maintain electrical contact between the rotating coil and the external circuit (1m)

An AC generator (alternator) converts kinetic energy to electrical energy using electromagnetic induction. Key features: rotating coil + permanent magnetic field → changing flux → induced AC voltage. Slip rings (not commutator) allow AC output by maintaining contact without reversing current. A DC generator (dynamo) uses a commutator instead, which reverses connections every half turn to give DC output.

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3.

A student moves a bar magnet in and out of a coil connected to a galvanometer. Describe and explain what happens to the galvanometer reading as the magnet moves in, stays still, and moves out. Use Lenz's law in your answer.

4 marks · higherCommon

When the magnet moves into the coil, the magnetic flux through the coil increases. This changing flux induces an EMF and a current, causing the galvanometer to deflect in one direction (say, to the right). By Lenz's law, the induced current flows to oppose the entry of the magnet — the coil acts as if it is trying to repel the incoming magnet. When the magnet is stationary inside the coil, the flux is not changing, so no EMF is induced and the galvanometer returns to zero. When the magnet is pulled out, the flux decreases. An EMF is induced again, but this time in the opposite direction — the galvanometer deflects in the other direction (to the left). By Lenz's law, the induced current now opposes the withdrawal of the magnet — the coil acts as if it is trying to attract and retain the magnet. The size of the deflection is larger if the magnet moves faster (greater rate of change of flux).

  • Moving in: galvanometer deflects in one direction (e.g. to the right) — an EMF is induced because the magnetic flux through the coil is changing (1m)
  • Stationary: galvanometer reads zero — no relative motion means no change in flux, so no induced EMF or current (1m)
  • Moving out: galvanometer deflects in the opposite direction — the flux is decreasing, so the induced current reverses direction to oppose the withdrawal (Lenz's law) (1m)
  • Lenz's law applied: when moving in, the induced current opposes entry (coil repels magnet); when moving out, the induced current opposes withdrawal (coil attracts magnet). Faster movement gives a larger deflection. (1m)

Three phases: (1) Moving in — flux increases, EMF induced, galvanometer deflects. By Lenz's law, induced current opposes entry (coil repels magnet). (2) Stationary — flux constant, no EMF, galvanometer at zero. (3) Moving out — flux decreases, EMF induced in opposite direction, galvanometer deflects the other way. By Lenz's law, induced current opposes withdrawal (coil attracts magnet). Speed of movement affects the size (not direction) of deflection.

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4.

A transformer has 200 turns on the primary coil and 50 turns on the secondary coil. The primary voltage is 240 V. Calculate the secondary voltage. Use the equation: primary voltage / secondary voltage = number of primary turns / number of secondary turns

3 marks · standardCommon
  • Correct substitution: 240 / Vs = 200 / 50 (1m)
  • Correct rearrangement: Vs = 240 x 50 / 200 (1m)
  • Correct answer: Vs = 60 V (1m)

Vp/Vs = np/ns => Vs = Vp x (ns/np) = 240 x (50/200) = 240 x 0.25 = 60 V. Fewer turns on the secondary means a lower voltage — this is a step-down transformer.

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5.

A step-up transformer increases voltage from 230 V to 11 500 V. The primary current is 40 A. Assuming the transformer is 100% efficient, calculate the secondary current. Use the equation: primary voltage x primary current = secondary voltage x secondary current

3 marks · standardCommon
  • Correct rearrangement: Is = (Vp x Ip) / Vs (1m)
  • Correct substitution: Is = (230 x 40) / 11500 (1m)
  • Correct answer: Is = 0.8 A (1m)

Using VpIp = VsIs: Is = (Vp x Ip) / Vs = (230 x 40) / 11500 = 9200 / 11500 = 0.8 A. As voltage is stepped up, current is stepped down proportionally (energy is conserved in an ideal transformer).

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6.

Explain how a transformer transfers energy from the primary coil to the secondary coil.

3 marks · higherCommon

An alternating current in the primary coil produces a changing magnetic field in the iron core. The changing magnetic field passes through the secondary coil. This changing magnetic field induces an alternating voltage in the secondary coil by electromagnetic induction.

  • Alternating current in the primary coil creates a changing magnetic field in the iron core (1m)
  • The changing magnetic field passes through and links to the secondary coil (1m)
  • The changing magnetic field induces an alternating voltage in the secondary coil (by electromagnetic induction) (1m)

Energy is transferred magnetically, not electrically — the two coils are not electrically connected. AC in primary → changing field in iron core → changing field through secondary → induced AC voltage in secondary. The iron core concentrates and guides the magnetic field from primary to secondary.

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7.

A student pushes a bar magnet into a coil of wire. State three ways the student could increase the size of the induced voltage.

3 marks · higherCommon

The induced voltage can be increased by moving the magnet faster into the coil, using a magnet with a stronger magnetic field, or increasing the number of turns in the coil.

  • Move the magnet faster (increase speed of relative motion) (1m)
  • Use a stronger magnet (increase the magnetic flux density) (1m)
  • Increase the number of turns in the coil (1m)

All three changes increase the rate of change of magnetic flux through the coil: faster movement increases the rate of change; a stronger magnet increases the amount of flux; more turns means more flux is cut per unit time.

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8.

A transformer is needed to step down 400 V to 20 V. The primary coil has 2000 turns. Calculate the number of turns needed on the secondary coil. The equation is: primary voltage / secondary voltage = number of primary turns / number of secondary turns

3 marks · higherCommon
  • Correct rearrangement: ns = np x (Vs / Vp) (1m)
  • Correct substitution: ns = 2000 x (20 / 400) (1m)
  • Correct answer: ns = 100 turns (1m)

ns = np x (Vs/Vp) = 2000 x (20/400) = 2000 x 0.05 = 100 turns. The voltage is stepped down by a factor of 20 (400/20), so the number of turns is also reduced by the same factor: 2000/20 = 100 turns.

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9.

A bar magnet is pushed north-pole-first into a coil of wire. Using Lenz's law, explain the direction of the induced current and state which end of the coil acts as a magnetic north pole.

3 marks · higherCommon

By Lenz's law, the induced current must oppose the entry of the north pole. To oppose the approaching north pole, the end of the coil facing the magnet must also become a north pole — this repels the incoming magnet. The induced current must therefore flow in a direction (anticlockwise when viewed from the magnet's side) that makes this end of the coil a north pole, consistent with the right-hand rule.

  • Lenz's law: the induced current opposes the entry of the magnet / opposes the change in flux (1m)
  • The end of the coil facing the approaching north pole becomes a north pole itself (repelling the magnet) (1m)
  • The current flows anticlockwise when viewed from the magnet side (or correct description using Fleming's right-hand rule) (1m)

Lenz's law: the induced effect opposes its cause. A north pole entering the coil means the coil must repel it — so the facing end of the coil becomes a north pole. Like poles repel. Using the right-hand rule (or right-hand grip rule), a north pole at the face of the coil corresponds to anticlockwise current when viewed from the approaching magnet's side.

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10.

Explain how a potential difference (voltage) is induced in a conductor in a magnetic field.

2 marks · standardCommon

A potential difference is induced in a conductor when there is relative motion between the conductor and a magnetic field, or when the magnetic field through the conductor changes. This is called electromagnetic induction.

  • There must be relative motion between the conductor and the magnetic field (or the magnetic field must be changing) (1m)
  • This causes a potential difference (voltage) to be induced in the conductor (electromagnetic induction) (1m)

Electromagnetic induction requires a changing magnetic field through the conductor. This can happen by moving the conductor through the field, moving the magnet, or changing the field strength. The result is an induced potential difference (and if the circuit is complete, an induced current).

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11.

Explain why the National Grid transmits electricity at high voltage.

2 marks · standardCommon

The National Grid transmits electricity at high voltage to reduce the current in the cables. A lower current means less power is lost as heat in the resistance of the transmission cables, making the system more efficient.

  • High voltage means low current in the transmission cables (1m)
  • Low current means less power is lost as heat (thermal energy) in the cables (1m)

Power = voltage x current (P = VI). For a fixed power, increasing voltage reduces current. Power lost in cables = I²R (current squared x resistance). Smaller current dramatically reduces wasted heat in the cables (it's proportional to I², so halving current reduces heat loss by 4).

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12.

State Lenz's law and explain what it means for the direction of the induced current in a coil.

2 marks · higherCommon

Lenz's law states that the direction of an induced current is always such that it opposes the change that caused it. This means the induced current creates a magnetic field that acts against the motion or change in flux that produced it. This is consistent with conservation of energy — if the induced current helped the change rather than opposing it, energy would be created from nothing.

  • The induced current direction opposes the change that caused it (or opposes the motion / change in magnetic flux) (1m)
  • This is consistent with conservation of energy — the opposing force means work must be done to maintain the motion, which is the source of electrical energy (1m)

Lenz's law is a consequence of conservation of energy. The induced current must oppose the change (e.g. oppose the entry of a magnet) because if it aided the motion, it would accelerate the magnet, inducing a larger current, which would accelerate it further — creating energy from nothing. The opposition means the person moving the magnet must do work, which is converted to electrical energy.

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13.

What is electromagnetic induction?

  • A. The generation of a potential difference when there is relative motion between a conductor and a magnetic field
  • B. The force on a current-carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field
  • C. The attraction between two permanent magnets
  • D. The heating effect produced when current flows through a resistor
1 mark · foundationCommon

Electromagnetic induction is the generation of a potential difference (voltage) in a conductor when there is relative motion between the conductor and a magnetic field, or when the magnetic field through the conductor changes. Option A describes the motor effect — the opposite process.

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14.

A step-up transformer has 100 turns on the primary coil and 500 turns on the secondary coil. What does the transformer do to the voltage?

  • A. Decreases the voltage by a factor of 5
  • B. Keeps the voltage the same
  • C. Increases the voltage by a factor of 5
  • D. Doubles the voltage
1 mark · foundationCommon

Using the transformer equation Vp/Vs = np/ns: Vs/Vp = ns/np = 500/100 = 5. So the secondary voltage is 5 times the primary voltage — it is stepped up by a factor of 5. A step-up transformer has more turns on the secondary than the primary.

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15.

A student moves a bar magnet into a coil of wire. Which change would increase the size of the induced voltage?

  • A. Moving the magnet more slowly
  • B. Using a coil with more turns of wire
  • C. Using a magnet with a weaker field
  • D. Using a shorter magnet
1 mark · standardCommon

The induced voltage is increased by: moving the magnet faster, using a stronger magnet, or using more turns of wire in the coil. A coil with more turns has more wire cutting through the magnetic field, so the total induced voltage is greater. Moving slower or using a weaker magnet would decrease the induced voltage.

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16.

Why must a transformer use alternating current (AC) rather than direct current (DC)?

  • A. AC has a higher voltage than DC
  • B. DC cannot flow through a coil of wire
  • C. AC is safer than DC at high voltages
  • D. AC produces a continuously changing magnetic field, which is needed to induce a voltage in the secondary coil
1 mark · standardCommon

A transformer works by electromagnetic induction. The primary coil must produce a changing magnetic field to induce a voltage in the secondary coil. AC constantly changes direction, so the magnetic field continuously changes. DC produces a steady (constant) magnetic field — a constant field does not induce a voltage. Without a changing field there is no induction and the transformer does not work.

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17.

A magnet moves towards a coil, inducing a current in the coil. The induced current creates a magnetic force on the magnet. In which direction does this force act?

  • A. Towards the coil — the coil attracts the approaching magnet
  • B. Away from the coil — the coil repels the approaching magnet
  • C. At right angles to the direction of motion
  • D. The direction depends on whether the magnet's north or south pole is approaching
1 mark · higherCommon

By Lenz's law, the induced current must oppose the change that caused it — in this case, the approach of the magnet. The induced current therefore creates a magnetic field that repels the magnet (pushes it away from the coil). If the coil attracted the magnet instead, the magnet would accelerate towards the coil, inducing a larger current, which would attract it more strongly — creating energy from nothing and violating conservation of energy.

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National Grid & Transformers

Common13
1.

Evaluate the design of the National Grid, explaining: why electricity is transmitted at high voltage, how transformers enable this, and the environmental and economic benefits of efficient transmission. [6 marks]

6 marks · higherCommon

Electricity is transmitted at high voltage because power loss in cables is given by P equals I squared times R. For a fixed resistance in the cables, reducing the current massively reduces the power wasted as heat. A high voltage means a low current (because power equals V times I). At the power station, a step-up transformer increases the voltage from the generation voltage to hundreds of thousands of volts for transmission. This reduces the current, minimising energy wasted in the cables. At the end of the transmission line, step-down transformers at substations reduce the voltage to a safe level (230 V) for homes and businesses. The environmental benefit is that less fuel must be burned at power stations to supply the same amount of useful electrical energy to consumers, reducing carbon dioxide emissions. The economic benefit is lower electricity costs for consumers because less energy is wasted.

  • Level 3 (5-6 marks): P_loss = I^2 R explained. High voltage -> low current -> less heating of cables. Step-up transformer increases V at power station. Step-down at substation restores safe level. Environmental benefits (less fuel burned), economic benefits (lower electricity costs). Quantitative example strengthens answer. (6m)
  • Level 2 (3-4 marks): High voltage -> low current -> less power loss explained. Transformers mentioned. Limited or no environmental/economic evaluation. (4m)
  • Level 1 (1-2 marks): Basic statement that high voltage reduces energy loss, limited explanation. (2m)

High-voltage transmission is a key engineering solution: P_loss = I^2 R, so reducing I massively reduces losses. Transformers enable voltage changes. Less energy waste = less fuel burned = lower CO2 emissions + lower bills.

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2.

A power station generates 500 MW of electrical power. The grid cables have a total resistance of 4 ohms. (a) If transmitted at 25,000 V, calculate the current in the cables. (b) Calculate the power loss as heat in the cables.

4 marks · higherCommon
  • Current = P/V = 500 x 10^6 / 25000 = 20000 A (1m)
  • Power loss = I^2 x R = (20000)^2 x 4 = 4 x 10^8 x 4 = 1.6 x 10^9 W (1m)
  • This represents 1600/500 = 3.2 times the generated power being lost (clearly impractical) (1m)
  • Correct final answer for power loss: 1.6 x 10^9 W (1600 MW) (1m)

I = 5e8 / 25000 = 20000 A. P_loss = (20000)^2 x 4 = 4e8 x 4 = 1.6e9 W. This is 3.2 times the generated power - completely impractical! At 400,000 V: I = 1250 A, P_loss = 1250^2 x 4 = 6.25 MW (only 1.25% lost).

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3.

A step-down transformer has a primary voltage of 11000 V and a secondary voltage of 230 V. The primary coil has 4400 turns. Calculate the number of turns on the secondary coil. Use the equation: Vp/Vs = np/ns

3 marks · standardCommon
  • Rearrange: ns = np x (Vs/Vp) = 4400 x (230/11000) (1m)
  • Calculate: 4400 x 230 = 1,012,000; divide by 11000 = 92 (1m)
  • Correct answer: 92 turns (1m)

ns = np x (Vs/Vp) = 4400 x (230/11000) = 4400 x 0.02091 = 92 turns.

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4.

A transformer has a primary voltage of 240 V and a primary current of 5 A. The secondary voltage is 12 V. Assuming 100% efficiency, calculate the secondary current. Use the equation: Vp x Ip = Vs x Is

3 marks · standardCommon
  • Rearrange: Is = (Vp x Ip) / Vs = (240 x 5) / 12 (1m)
  • Calculate numerator: 240 x 5 = 1200 (1m)
  • Is = 1200 / 12 = 100 A (1m)

Is = VpIp / Vs = (240 x 5) / 12 = 1200/12 = 100 A. When voltage is stepped down, current steps up (energy is conserved).

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5.

Explain why electricity is transmitted at high voltage and low current through the National Grid power cables.

3 marks · standardCommon

Transmission cables have electrical resistance. Power is lost as heat in the cables according to the equation P = I^2 R. At higher voltage, less current flows for the same power transmitted. Since power loss is proportional to current squared, using a smaller current greatly reduces the energy wasted as heat in the cables.

  • Cables have resistance and energy is wasted as heat in the cables (1m)
  • Power loss = I^2 x R, so lower current means less power lost as heat (1m)
  • High voltage allows the same power to be transmitted at lower current (P = IV) (1m)

P_loss = I^2 R. P = IV. For constant P, higher V -> lower I -> much lower I^2 -> much less heat loss. That's why the grid uses 400,000 V.

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6.

A transformer is not 100% efficient. Describe two reasons why energy is lost in a real transformer.

3 marks · higherCommon

First, eddy currents are induced in the iron core by the changing magnetic field. These currents heat the core, wasting energy. To reduce this, the core is laminated (made of thin insulated layers). Second, the coils of wire have resistance and carry current, so they also heat up and waste energy as heat.

  • Eddy currents in the iron core cause heating / energy wasted as heat in the core (1m)
  • Coils/wire have resistance so energy is wasted as heat in the coils (1m)
  • Laminated core reduces eddy currents (thin insulated layers limit induced current paths) (1m)

Real transformer losses: (1) Eddy currents in core -> heat (reduced by lamination). (2) Resistance of wire coils -> heat. Real transformers are typically 95-99% efficient.

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7.

Explain why transformers only work with alternating current (AC) and not direct current (DC).

2 marks · standardCommon

A transformer works by electromagnetic induction. The primary coil creates a changing magnetic field in the iron core, which induces a voltage in the secondary coil. AC current constantly changes direction, so it creates a constantly changing magnetic field. DC current is constant, so it creates a constant (non-changing) magnetic field which cannot induce a voltage in the secondary coil.

  • AC current creates a constantly changing magnetic field in the iron core (1m)
  • A changing (not constant) magnetic field is needed to induce a voltage in the secondary coil / DC creates a constant field that cannot induce a voltage (1m)

Electromagnetic induction requires a CHANGING magnetic flux. AC -> changing current -> changing B field -> changing flux -> induced EMF. DC -> constant B field -> no change -> no induced EMF.

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8.

What is the function of a step-up transformer in the National Grid?

  • A. To increase current and decrease voltage for transmission
  • B. To increase voltage and decrease current for transmission
  • C. To convert AC to DC for transmission
  • D. To store electrical energy during low-demand periods
1 mark · foundationCommon

A step-up transformer increases the voltage (and decreases the current) at the power station before electricity is transmitted through the National Grid. High voltage and low current means less energy lost as heat in the cables.

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9.

What does a transformer consist of?

  • A. Two sets of coils wound on a copper core
  • B. A primary coil, a secondary coil, and an iron core
  • C. A single coil wound around a permanent magnet
  • D. Two parallel plates separated by an insulator
1 mark · foundationCommon

A transformer has a primary coil (input), a secondary coil (output), both wound on a soft iron core. The iron core concentrates and transfers the changing magnetic field between the coils.

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10.

State what type of transformer is used at a local substation to provide electricity to homes.

1 mark · foundationCommon

A step-down transformer reduces the high grid voltage (typically 33,000 V or 11,000 V) to the mains voltage (230 V) suitable for homes.

  • Step-down transformer (reduces voltage to 230 V / safe level for domestic use) (1m)

Step-down transformers at substations reduce the high transmission voltage to 230 V for safe use in homes and businesses.

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11.

Describe the path of electrical energy from a power station to homes through the National Grid, naming the type of transformer used at each stage.

1 mark · foundationCommon

Electricity is generated at a power station. A step-up transformer increases the voltage for efficient long-distance transmission through high-voltage cables. At local substations, step-down transformers reduce the voltage to a safe level (230 V) for use in homes.

  • Step-up transformer at power station / step-down transformer at substation near homes (1m)

Power station -> step-up transformer -> high voltage grid cables -> step-down transformer -> homes at 230 V.

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12.

Why does the National Grid transmit electricity at very high voltage?

  • A. High voltage makes electricity travel faster through cables
  • B. High voltage reduces the current, which reduces energy wasted as heat in cables
  • C. High voltage increases the power available to consumers
  • D. High voltage means fewer substations are needed
1 mark · standardCommon

P_loss = I^2 R. For a given power transmitted, higher voltage means lower current. Lower current means much less energy wasted as heat (P_loss proportional to I^2).

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13.

A transformer has 200 turns on the primary coil and 1000 turns on the secondary coil. If the input voltage is 230 V, what is the output voltage?

  • A. 46 V
  • B. 230 V
  • C. 1150 V
  • D. 2000 V
1 mark · standardCommon

Vs/Vp = ns/np. Vs = Vp x (ns/np) = 230 x (1000/200) = 230 x 5 = 1150 V. More turns on secondary than primary means voltage is stepped up.

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Pressure

15
1.

A ship made of steel floats on the ocean, yet a solid steel ball of the same mass sinks. Using your knowledge of pressure, upthrust, and the P = F/A equation, explain fully why the ship floats while the solid ball sinks.

5 marks · higher

The ship is hollow and shaped so that it displaces a large volume of water. By Archimedes' principle, upthrust equals the weight of water displaced. Because the ship's hull is spread over a large volume, the weight of water displaced can equal the total weight of the ship (steel + air inside). When upthrust equals weight, the forces are balanced and the ship floats. The solid steel ball is dense and compact. It displaces only a small volume of water — not enough for the upthrust (weight of water displaced) to equal the weight of the steel ball. Since upthrust is less than the ball's weight, there is a net downward force and it sinks. Pressure and upthrust: At the bottom of any submerged object, the water pressure is greater than at the top (because it is deeper). This pressure difference gives an upward net force (upthrust). The ship's hull, shaped to sit at the water surface, ensures that just enough water is displaced so that its upthrust matches its weight. The solid ball, being denser and more compact, cannot displace enough water to achieve this.

  • The ship displaces a large volume of water / the hull has a large volume (includes trapped air) (1m)
  • Upthrust equals the weight of water displaced (Archimedes' principle) (1m)
  • For the ship: the volume displaced is large enough that upthrust equals the ship's weight — forces balanced → floats (1m)
  • For the steel ball: it is dense/compact and displaces only a small volume — upthrust is less than its weight — net downward force → sinks (1m)
  • Upthrust arises because pressure at the bottom of the object is greater than at the top, creating a net upward force (1m)

This is a Level of Response question worth 5 marks. A Level 3 answer (4-5 marks) explains: (1) why the ship displaces more water than the ball, (2) applies Archimedes' principle (upthrust = weight of water displaced), (3) shows upthrust equals weight for the ship but not the ball, and (4) explains the origin of upthrust from pressure differences. A Level 1 answer just states 'the ship floats because of upthrust' without explaining why. The key insight is that the ship is hollow, giving it a large displaced volume despite being made of dense steel.

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2.

A student says: 'You can make any object float by making it bigger.' Evaluate this claim using your knowledge of pressure, upthrust, and Archimedes' principle. In your answer, explain what actually determines whether an object floats or sinks.

5 marks · challenge

The claim is partially correct but misleading. Making an object bigger by increasing its volume (making it hollow) can increase the volume of fluid it displaces, increasing upthrust. If the object's shape displaces enough water that the upthrust equals its weight, it will float. However, simply increasing the size of a solid object does not help: a solid steel object displaces only its own volume of water. Even if made larger, if its density is greater than water's, the upthrust will still be less than its weight and it will sink. The determining factor is not size but the average density of the object compared to the fluid. If average density of object > density of fluid: upthrust < weight → sinks. If average density of object ≤ density of fluid: upthrust ≥ weight → floats. A ship floats because it is made hollow — the average density of steel + trapped air is less than water. Making the steel thicker (bigger solid) would make it denser overall and it would sink.

  • The claim is partially correct / correct evaluation that making hollow/bigger can increase displaced volume and upthrust (1m)
  • Upthrust equals weight of fluid displaced (Archimedes' principle) — so bigger displaced volume = bigger upthrust (1m)
  • The claim is not always true: increasing size of a solid object also increases its weight, so average density unchanged (1m)
  • The key factor is average density of object compared to density of fluid (1m)
  • If average density > fluid density: sinks. If average density ≤ fluid density: floats (or equivalent: upthrust < weight sinks, upthrust ≥ weight floats) (1m)

A top-mark answer evaluates the claim rather than just restating it. The claim is PARTIALLY correct: making a hollow object bigger increases displaced volume and therefore upthrust. But making a SOLID object bigger does not help because weight increases proportionally — average density is unchanged. The real determinant of floating vs sinking is the average density of the object compared to the fluid density. If average density of object > fluid density → sinks regardless of size. This is why steel ships are hollow and why you cannot make a solid steel ball float by making it larger.

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3.

Using the equation P = hρg, explain how both depth and the density of the liquid affect the pressure at a given point in a fluid. (Higher Tier)

4 marks · higher

The equation P = hρg shows that pressure depends on depth (h) and density (ρ). If depth increases, the height of liquid above the point is greater, so the weight of liquid above is greater, increasing the pressure. If the density of the liquid increases, the same volume of liquid has greater mass and therefore greater weight, which also increases pressure. A denser liquid (such as mercury compared to water) exerts much greater pressure at the same depth.

  • Greater depth (h) increases pressure because there is more liquid above / taller column above (1m)
  • More liquid above means greater weight, explaining why P increases with h (1m)
  • Greater density (ρ) increases pressure at a given depth because denser liquid has greater mass/weight per unit volume (1m)
  • A denser liquid exerts more pressure at the same depth (e.g. mercury vs water comparison, or linked back to equation showing ρ is proportional to P) (1m)

P = hρg tells us that pressure is directly proportional to both depth (h) and density (ρ). Doubling the depth doubles the pressure. Doubling the density also doubles the pressure at any given depth. Depth increases pressure because a taller column of liquid has more weight pressing down. Density increases pressure because denser liquids pack more mass (and therefore more weight) into the same volume — mercury is about 13.6 times denser than water, so at 1 m depth mercury exerts 13.6 times more pressure than water.

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4.

A force of 200 N acts on a surface with an area of 0.05 m². Calculate the pressure on the surface. Use the equation: P = F / A

3 marks · foundation
  • Correct equation written: P = F / A (1m)
  • Correct substitution: P = 200 / 0.05 (1m)
  • Correct answer: 4000 Pa (1m)

Using P = F / A: P = 200 / 0.05 = 4000 Pa. Note that dividing by 0.05 is the same as multiplying by 20. Always include the unit (Pa) in your answer.

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5.

Explain why a sharp knife cuts through food more easily than a blunt knife, even when the same force is applied to both.

3 marks · standard

A sharp knife has a much smaller cutting edge area than a blunt knife. Using P = F/A, when the same force is applied over a smaller area, the pressure is greater. The greater pressure is more effective at cutting through the food.

  • Sharp knife has a smaller cutting edge / smaller contact area (1m)
  • Using P = F/A, same force on smaller area gives greater pressure (1m)
  • Greater pressure is more effective at cutting / pierces the material (1m)

This is a classic AQA explain question worth 3 marks. The three steps examiners want are: (1) sharp knife = smaller area, (2) same force ÷ smaller area = larger pressure (using P = F/A), (3) larger pressure is more effective at cutting. You must name the equation and show the logical chain — just saying 'more pressure' alone only earns 1 mark.

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6.

Explain why the pressure in a liquid increases with depth.

3 marks · standard

As depth increases, there is more liquid above that point. The weight of the liquid above presses down on the liquid below, creating pressure. The greater the depth, the more liquid is above, and therefore the greater the weight pressing down and the greater the pressure.

  • At greater depth, there is more liquid above / a taller column of liquid above (1m)
  • The weight of the liquid above presses down on the liquid below (1m)
  • More liquid above means greater weight, so greater pressure at deeper points (1m)

Pressure increases with depth because at greater depth there is more liquid above pressing down. This liquid has weight, and the weight of a taller column is greater. The greater the weight of liquid above, the greater the pressure it exerts. This is why deep-sea submarines must have very thick hulls — the pressure at 1000 m is enormous.

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7.

A hydraulic piston has a cross-sectional area of 0.04 m². The pressure in the hydraulic fluid is 25,000 Pa. Calculate the force exerted by the piston. Use F = P × A

3 marks · standard
  • Correct equation: F = P × A (1m)
  • Correct substitution: F = 25000 × 0.04 (1m)
  • Correct answer: 1000 N (1m)

Using F = P × A: F = 25000 × 0.04 = 1000 N. This is a rearrangement of P = F/A. Hydraulic systems use this principle — applying a small force over a small area creates high pressure, which is then applied over a large area to produce a large force.

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8.

Explain how upthrust arises in a fluid, and why an object floats when upthrust equals its weight.

3 marks · higher

Pressure in a fluid increases with depth, so the pressure acting on the bottom of a submerged object is greater than the pressure acting on the top. This difference in pressure creates a net upward force called upthrust. An object floats when the upthrust equals its weight because the forces are balanced — there is no resultant force and the object remains stationary.

  • Pressure is greater at the bottom of the object than at the top (because it is deeper) (1m)
  • The pressure difference creates a net upward force / upthrust acts upward (1m)
  • Object floats when upthrust equals weight because the forces are balanced / resultant force is zero (1m)

Upthrust arises because pressure increases with depth. The bottom of a submerged object is deeper than the top, so the fluid pushes up on the bottom with greater force than it pushes down on the top. The net effect is an upward force called upthrust. When upthrust equals the object's weight, the forces are balanced (resultant = 0) so the object floats in equilibrium. This principle is Archimedes' principle.

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9.

A diver descends to a depth of 15 m in fresh water. The density of fresh water is 1000 kg/m³ and g = 9.8 N/kg. Calculate the pressure due to the water at this depth. Use P = hρg. (Higher Tier)

3 marks · higher
  • Correct equation: P = hρg (1m)
  • Correct substitution: P = 15 × 1000 × 9.8 (1m)
  • Correct answer: 147,000 Pa (or 147 kPa) (1m)

Using P = hρg: P = 15 × 1000 × 9.8 = 147,000 Pa (or 147 kPa). Note this is just the pressure due to the water column. The total pressure on the diver would also include atmospheric pressure (~101,000 Pa) pressing down from above, giving a total of around 248,000 Pa.

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10.

A drawing pin has a flat wide head on one side and a sharp narrow point on the other. The same force is applied to both sides. Explain why one side is comfortable to push with your thumb and the other side pierces the wall easily.

3 marks · higher

The flat wide head has a large contact area. When you push it with your thumb, the same force is spread over this large area, giving a low pressure — so it is comfortable. The sharp narrow point has a tiny contact area. The same force concentrated on this tiny area produces very high pressure, which is enough to pierce the wall.

  • Flat head has a large area, so for the same force the pressure is low / thumb side has large area giving low pressure (1m)
  • Sharp point has a very small/tiny area, so for the same force the pressure is very high (1m)
  • High pressure is why the point pierces the wall / links high pressure to ability to penetrate (1m)

This is a design analysis question worth 3 marks. The key is to apply P = F/A to BOTH sides of the drawing pin and explain the effect: large area → low pressure → comfortable for thumb; tiny area → high pressure → penetrates wall. Always mention both sides and link area to pressure to practical effect.

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11.

Explain why atmospheric pressure decreases as altitude increases.

2 marks · standard

As altitude increases, there is less air above that point. Atmospheric pressure is caused by the weight of air pressing down. With less air above, the weight pressing down is smaller, so atmospheric pressure is lower at higher altitudes.

  • As altitude increases, there is less air above that point (1m)
  • Atmospheric pressure is caused by the weight of air above pressing down, so less air means less pressure (1m)

Atmospheric pressure is caused by the weight of the atmosphere pressing down on the surface. At higher altitudes there is less air above you — the atmosphere becomes thinner. Less air means less weight pressing down, so the atmospheric pressure is lower. At the top of Everest (~8800 m), the atmospheric pressure is roughly one-third of sea level.

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12.

What is the correct equation for pressure?

  • A. Pressure = Force × Area
  • B. Pressure = Force ÷ Area
  • C. Pressure = Area ÷ Force
  • D. Pressure = Force + Area
1 mark · foundation

Pressure is defined as the force acting per unit area: P = F / A. A larger force on the same area gives greater pressure. The same force over a larger area gives smaller pressure. The unit of pressure is the Pascal (Pa), equal to 1 N/m².

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13.

What is the SI unit of pressure?

  • A. Newton (N)
  • B. Joule (J)
  • C. Pascal (Pa)
  • D. Newton per metre (N/m)
1 mark · foundation

Pressure is measured in Pascals (Pa). One Pascal equals one Newton per square metre (1 N/m²). The Newton is the unit of force and the Joule is the unit of energy — both are commonly confused with pressure in exams.

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14.

A person wearing snowshoes and a person wearing stiletto heels have exactly the same weight. Which person exerts greater pressure on the ground, and why?

  • A. The snowshoe wearer, because their feet are heavier
  • B. The stiletto heel wearer, because the contact area is much smaller
  • C. They exert the same pressure, because they have the same weight
  • D. The snowshoe wearer, because their feet move more slowly
1 mark · foundation

Using P = F/A: both people exert the same force (equal weight), but the stiletto heel has a tiny contact area (about 1 cm²) compared to a snowshoe (about 2000 cm²). The same force over a much smaller area gives far greater pressure. This is why stilettos sink into soft ground but snowshoes don't.

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15.

A submarine is submerged at depth in the ocean. In which directions does the water exert pressure on the submarine's hull?

  • A. Only downward, due to the weight of water above
  • B. Only downward and sideways, but not upward
  • C. In all directions — upward, downward, and sideways
  • D. Only inward toward the centre of the submarine
1 mark · standard

Pressure in a fluid acts in all directions at any given point. This is because fluid particles move randomly and collide with surfaces in all orientations. The submarine hull must withstand pressure from above, below, and from both sides. Many students incorrectly think fluid pressure only acts downward — this is a common misconception.

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Impulse Momentum

13
1.

In a car crash test, a 1500 kg car travelling at 15 m/s hits a barrier. The car comes to rest in 0.12 s without crumple zones and in 0.8 s with crumple zones. Calculate the average force on the car in both cases and evaluate the safety benefits of crumple zones, using your calculations and the concept of impulse to support your answer.

6 marks · 8-9

Change in momentum = mass x change in velocity = 1500 x 15 = 22,500 kg m/s. This is the same in both cases. Force equals change in momentum divided by time. Without crumple zones: F = 22,500 divided by 0.12 = 187,500 N. With crumple zones: F = 22,500 divided by 0.8 = 28,125 N. The crumple zone reduces the force by a factor of 6.7 (187,500 divided by 28,125). The impulse (change in momentum) is the same in both cases because the car starts and ends with the same velocities. The crumple zone increases the collision time, which reduces the force for the same impulse. By Newton's Second Law, the smaller force produces a smaller acceleration on the passengers, greatly reducing the risk of serious injury.

  • Change in momentum = 1500 x 15 = 22,500 kg m/s (in both cases) (1m)
  • Force without crumple zone = 22,500 / 0.12 = 187,500 N (1m)
  • Force with crumple zone = 22,500 / 0.8 = 28,125 N (1m)
  • Crumple zone reduces force by a factor of approximately 6.7 (187,500 / 28,125) (1m)
  • The impulse (change in momentum) is the same in both cases - the crumple zone does not reduce the change in momentum (1m)
  • The much smaller force with crumple zones greatly reduces the risk of serious injury to passengers (by Newton's 2nd law, smaller force = smaller acceleration = less bodily harm) (1m)

Both cases: delta p = 22,500 kg m/s. Without crumple: F = 22,500/0.12 = 187,500 N. With crumple: F = 22,500/0.8 = 28,125 N. Crumple zone reduces force by factor ~6.7. Impulse same in both cases. Much smaller force with crumple zones greatly reduces injury risk.

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2.

A 1200 kg car is travelling at 30 m/s when it collides with a wall and comes to rest. The collision lasts 0.06 s. Calculate the average force exerted on the car during the collision.

4 marks · higher
  • Change in momentum = 1200 x 30 = 36,000 kg m/s (1m)
  • Correct equation: F = delta p / t (1m)
  • Correct substitution: F = 36,000 / 0.06 (1m)
  • Correct answer: 600,000 N (1m)

Delta p = 1200 x 30 = 36,000 kg m/s. F = 36,000 / 0.06 = 600,000 N.

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3.

A force-time graph shows a variable force acting on an object. Explain what the area under a force-time graph represents, and explain how the shape of the graph changes if the same impulse is delivered over a longer time.

4 marks · higher

The area under a force-time graph represents the impulse delivered to the object. Impulse equals change in momentum, so the area also represents the change in momentum of the object. If the same impulse is delivered over a longer time, the area must remain the same, but the graph becomes wider (longer time axis) and shorter (lower peak force). The peak force is reduced because the same total impulse is spread over a greater time interval.

  • Area under force-time graph represents impulse (1m)
  • Impulse equals change in momentum (1m)
  • Same impulse over longer time: graph is wider (longer time) (1m)
  • Peak force is lower (so that the area under the graph remains the same) (1m)

Area under F-t graph = impulse = change in momentum. Same impulse over longer time: graph widens and peak force decreases, maintaining the same area.

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4.

A 0.4 kg ball is kicked and its velocity changes from 0 m/s to 15 m/s. The kick lasts for 0.05 s. Calculate the average force applied to the ball. Use the equations: change in momentum = mass x change in velocity, and force = change in momentum / time.

3 marks · standard
  • Change in momentum = 0.4 x 15 = 6 kg m/s (1m)
  • Correct equation: force = change in momentum / time (1m)
  • Correct answer: force = 6 / 0.05 = 120 N (1m)

Delta p = 0.4 x 15 = 6 kg m/s. F = 6 / 0.05 = 120 N.

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5.

Explain how an airbag reduces the risk of injury to a driver in a collision.

3 marks · standard

During a collision, a driver experiences a change in momentum (they decelerate from the car's speed to zero). An airbag increases the time taken for the driver to slow down. Since impulse = force x time = change in momentum, and the change in momentum is fixed, a longer time means the force acting on the driver is reduced. This smaller force means less injury to the driver.

  • The airbag increases the time over which the driver decelerates / increases collision time (1m)
  • Change in momentum is the same / impulse = F x t = change in momentum (constant) (1m)
  • Longer time means smaller force (F = delta p / t), reducing risk of injury (1m)

Airbag increases collision time. Impulse = F x t = change in momentum (fixed). Longer time = smaller force = less injury.

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6.

Explain how crumple zones in cars improve safety during a collision.

3 marks · standard

Crumple zones are designed to deform and collapse during a collision, increasing the time over which the car (and its occupants) decelerates. The change in momentum (impulse) of the car is fixed. Since impulse = force x time, a longer collision time means the force acting on the car and its occupants is smaller. This reduces the forces on passengers, reducing the risk of serious injury.

  • Crumple zone deforms during collision, increasing the time of the collision (1m)
  • Change in momentum / impulse is the same regardless of crumple zone (1m)
  • Longer time means smaller force (F = impulse / t), reducing injury to occupants (1m)

Crumple zones extend collision time. Same impulse over longer time = smaller force on passengers.

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7.

Explain the difference between an elastic collision and an inelastic collision in terms of conservation laws.

3 marks · higher

In both elastic and inelastic collisions, momentum is always conserved (total momentum before equals total momentum after). In an elastic collision, kinetic energy is also conserved - the total kinetic energy before equals the total kinetic energy after. In an inelastic collision, kinetic energy is not conserved; some kinetic energy is converted to thermal energy, sound, or deformation of materials.

  • Both collisions conserve momentum (1m)
  • Elastic collision: kinetic energy is also conserved (1m)
  • Inelastic collision: kinetic energy is not conserved (converted to thermal energy / sound / deformation) (1m)

Both conserve momentum. Elastic collisions also conserve kinetic energy. Inelastic collisions convert some kinetic energy to thermal energy, sound or deformation.

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8.

A force of 500 N acts on a ball for 0.04 s. Calculate the impulse. Use the equation: impulse = force x time.

2 marks · foundation
  • Correct substitution: impulse = 500 x 0.04 (1m)
  • Correct answer: 20 Ns (1m)

Impulse = F x t = 500 x 0.04 = 20 Ns.

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9.

Which equation correctly defines impulse?

  • A. impulse = force / time
  • B. impulse = force x time
  • C. impulse = mass x acceleration
  • D. impulse = mass x velocity
1 mark · foundation

Impulse = force x time (F x t). Impulse is equal to the change in momentum of an object. Option D is momentum (p = mv), which is related but not the definition of impulse.

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10.

Impulse is equal to which of the following?

  • A. The change in momentum of an object
  • B. The total momentum of a system
  • C. The mass multiplied by the distance
  • D. The kinetic energy of an object
1 mark · foundation

Impulse = F x t = change in momentum (delta p). This comes from Newton's second law: F = delta p / delta t, rearranged to F x delta t = delta p.

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11.

State the unit of impulse.

1 mark · foundation

The unit of impulse is the Newton-second (Ns).

  • Newton-second (Ns) or kg m/s (1m)

Impulse = F x t, so units = N x s = Ns. This is equivalent to kg m/s (the unit of momentum).

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12.

A car airbag increases the time of a collision from 0.02 s to 0.2 s. The change in momentum of the passenger is the same in both cases. What effect does this have on the force experienced by the passenger?

  • A. The force is 10 times larger
  • B. The force stays the same
  • C. The force becomes zero
  • D. The force is 10 times smaller
1 mark · standard

Impulse = F x t = change in momentum (constant). If t increases by a factor of 10 (from 0.02 to 0.2 s) and impulse is constant, the force must decrease by a factor of 10. F = impulse / t.

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13.

A crumple zone at the front of a car is designed to deform during a collision. What is the main safety benefit of this design?

  • A. It increases the change in momentum of the car
  • B. It reduces the total kinetic energy of the car
  • C. It increases the duration of the collision, reducing the force on passengers
  • D. It prevents the car from stopping
1 mark · standard

Crumple zones increase the time over which the collision occurs. Since impulse = F x t = change in momentum, and the change in momentum is fixed, a longer collision time means a smaller force. This reduces the force experienced by the passengers, reducing injury.

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Solar System

13
1.

Compare circular and elliptical orbits. In your answer describe: (i) the shape of each orbit, (ii) how gravitational force varies for each, (iii) how speed varies for each. [6 marks]

6 marks · higher

A circular orbit has a constant distance between the orbiting body and the central body. Because the distance is always the same, the gravitational force acting on the orbiting body remains constant in magnitude. The speed of the orbiting body is also constant throughout a circular orbit. An elliptical orbit has a varying distance from the central body. The orbiting body is closest at perihelion and furthest at aphelion. Because gravitational force decreases with distance, the gravitational force is greatest at perihelion and weakest at aphelion. The speed of the orbiting body also varies: it is fastest at perihelion (where the gravitational force is strongest and pulling it inwards) and slowest at aphelion. In both types of orbit, the gravitational force is always directed towards the central body and provides the centripetal force needed to maintain the orbit.

  • Circular orbit: constant distance from the central body throughout (1m)
  • Circular orbit: gravitational force is constant in magnitude; speed is constant throughout the orbit (1m)
  • Elliptical orbit: distance from the central body varies — closer at perihelion, further at aphelion (1m)
  • Elliptical orbit: gravitational force is greater when closer (perihelion) and weaker when further away (aphelion) (1m)
  • Elliptical orbit: speed is faster when closer to the Sun (perihelion) and slower when further away (aphelion) (1m)
  • Both types: gravitational force always directed towards the central body and provides the centripetal force for the orbit (1m)

Circular orbit: constant orbital radius so gravity is constant in magnitude; speed is constant. Elliptical orbit: orbital radius varies between perihelion (closest) and aphelion (furthest); gravity is strongest at perihelion so speed is maximum there; gravity weakest at aphelion so speed is minimum there.

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2.

Describe the structure of our solar system. Name three different types of body found in the solar system and say what each one is.

3 marks · standard

The solar system consists of the Sun at the centre, with eight planets orbiting it. Moons are natural satellites that orbit planets. Asteroids are small rocky bodies found mainly in the asteroid belt between Mars and Jupiter. Comets are icy bodies with highly elliptical orbits that develop a tail when close to the Sun.

  • Planets orbit the Sun / Sun at centre (or 8 planets named) (1m)
  • Moons are natural satellites orbiting planets (or asteroids are rocky bodies / in asteroid belt) (1m)
  • Comets are icy bodies with highly elliptical orbits (that develop a tail near the Sun) (1m)

The solar system has the Sun at the centre. Planets (8 of them) orbit the Sun. Moons orbit planets. Asteroids are rocky bodies in the asteroid belt. Comets have elongated elliptical orbits and form tails when close to the Sun due to solar wind.

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3.

A comet orbits the Sun in a highly elliptical orbit. Explain how the speed of the comet changes as it moves along its orbit and give a reason for this change.

3 marks · higher

The comet moves fastest when it is closest to the Sun and slowest when it is furthest away. When closer to the Sun, the gravitational force on the comet is greater, causing greater acceleration and higher speed. As it moves away, the gravitational force decreases and the comet slows down.

  • Comet moves fastest when closest to the Sun (or slowest when furthest from the Sun) (1m)
  • Gravitational force is greater when closer to the Sun (1m)
  • Greater force causes greater acceleration (so speed increases on approach / decreases on retreat) (1m)

As the comet approaches the Sun, gravity increases and accelerates it. Moving away, gravity decreases and it decelerates. This is conservation of energy - kinetic energy and gravitational PE trade off.

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4.

Compare the orbit of a natural moon with the orbit of an artificial satellite around Earth. State two similarities and one difference.

3 marks · higher

Similarity 1: Both natural moons and artificial satellites are kept in orbit by gravity acting as a centripetal force. Similarity 2: Both travel in approximately circular orbits around Earth. Difference: Natural moons are formed naturally, while artificial satellites are placed in orbit by humans and can be positioned at different orbital altitudes for different purposes (e.g. geostationary orbit).

  • Similarity: both are kept in orbit by gravity (centripetal force) (1m)
  • Similarity: both orbit in approximately circular paths (or both orbit the same body - Earth) (1m)
  • Difference: artificial satellites are man-made / placed at chosen altitudes / natural moons formed naturally (1m)

Both natural moons and artificial satellites orbit Earth due to gravity providing centripetal force. Both travel in circular (or near-circular) orbits. The key difference is origin: moons formed naturally during planet formation, while artificial satellites are launched by humans and chosen orbital altitudes serve specific purposes.

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5.

The Moon orbits Earth in a circular orbit of radius 3.84 x 10^8 m. The orbital period of the Moon is 27.3 days. Calculate the orbital speed of the Moon. Give your answer in m/s. (1 day = 86 400 s)

3 marks · higher
  • Calculate circumference: C = 2 x pi x 3.84 x 10^8 = 2.41 x 10^9 m (1m)
  • Convert period to seconds: 27.3 x 86400 = 2.36 x 10^6 s (1m)
  • Correct answer: v = C/t = 2.41x10^9 / 2.36x10^6 = 1022 m/s (1m)

C = 2pi x 3.84e8 = 2.413e9 m. Period = 27.3 x 86400 = 2.358e6 s. v = 2.413e9 / 2.358e6 = 1023 m/s (approximately 1020 m/s).

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6.

Explain how gravity keeps a planet in a circular orbit around the Sun.

2 marks · standard

Gravity acts as a centripetal force pulling the planet towards the Sun. This force changes the direction of the planet's velocity continuously, keeping it moving in a circular orbit without changing its speed.

  • Gravity acts as a centripetal force (directed towards the Sun / inward) (1m)
  • The force continuously changes the direction of the planet's velocity, keeping it in orbit (1m)

Gravity is the centripetal force. It pulls the planet inward continuously, changing the direction of velocity without changing its magnitude, producing circular motion.

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7.

Earth takes 365 days to complete one orbit of the Sun. Mars takes 687 days. A student says: 'Mars must travel a longer total distance in its orbit than Earth.' Is this statement correct? Write 'yes' or 'no' and give a reason.

2 marks · standard
  • Yes - Mars orbits at a greater distance from the Sun so its orbital path is longer (1m)
  • Mars also moves more slowly, which further explains the longer period (1m)

Mars orbits at 1.52 AU compared to Earth's 1 AU. A larger orbital radius means a larger circumference (C = 2πr), so Mars travels further. Combined with its slower orbital speed, this explains the longer 687-day period.

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8.

An astronaut has a mass of 75 kg. The gravitational field strength on the Moon is 1.6 N/kg. Calculate the weight of the astronaut on the Moon. Use the equation: weight = mass x gravitational field strength

2 marks · standard
  • Correct substitution: W = 75 x 1.6 (1m)
  • Correct answer: 120 N (1m)

W = mg = 75 x 1.6 = 120 N. On Earth the same astronaut weighs 75 x 9.8 = 735 N, so they are much lighter on the Moon.

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9.

Which of the following is NOT an inner rocky planet in our solar system?

  • A. Mercury
  • B. Venus
  • C. Jupiter
  • D. Mars
1 mark · foundation

The inner rocky planets are Mercury, Venus, Earth and Mars. Jupiter is a gas giant in the outer solar system.

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10.

What force keeps planets in orbit around the Sun?

  • A. Magnetic force
  • B. Gravitational force
  • C. Friction
  • D. Electrostatic force
1 mark · foundation

Gravity acts as the centripetal force pulling planets towards the Sun, keeping them in orbit.

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11.

Where is the asteroid belt found in the solar system?

  • A. Between Mercury and Venus
  • B. Between Earth and Mars
  • C. Between Mars and Jupiter
  • D. Beyond Pluto
1 mark · foundation

The asteroid belt lies between Mars and Jupiter. It contains rocky bodies left over from the formation of the solar system.

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12.

State the correct order of scale, from smallest to largest: Universe, Galaxy, Solar System, Planet.

1 mark · foundation

Planet, Solar System, Galaxy, Universe.

  • Correct order: Planet < Solar System < Galaxy < Universe (1m)

Scale order (smallest to largest): Planet, Solar System (all objects orbiting one star), Galaxy (billions of stars), Universe (all matter and energy that exists).

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13.

Planet X orbits the Sun at a greater distance than Planet Y. What can be said about Planet X compared to Planet Y?

  • A. It has a longer orbital period and faster orbital speed
  • B. It has a shorter orbital period and slower orbital speed
  • C. It has a longer orbital period and slower orbital speed
  • D. It has the same orbital period but slower orbital speed
1 mark · standard

Planets further from the Sun orbit more slowly and take longer to complete one orbit, so they have a longer orbital period.

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Orbits Satellites

13
1.

Describe and compare the life cycles of a star similar to our Sun and a star much more massive than the Sun. Begin from the protostar stage and include the final state of each star. [6 marks]

6 marks · higher

Both types of star begin as a protostar, formed from a collapsing cloud of gas and dust in a nebula. Gravity causes the gas to contract and heat up until nuclear fusion of hydrogen begins, at which point both stars enter the main sequence stage. For a star like the Sun, when the hydrogen fuel runs out, the outer layers expand and cool to form a red giant. The outer layers then drift away to form a planetary nebula, leaving behind the dense hot core as a white dwarf. A more massive star, when its hydrogen is exhausted, expands to become a red supergiant — much larger and brighter than a red giant. The supergiant then collapses suddenly and explodes in a supernova. The remnant of the supernova depends on the mass of the star: it may become a neutron star or, if the star was massive enough, a black hole.

  • Both begin as a protostar, formed from a collapsing cloud of gas and dust (nebula); both then enter the main sequence where hydrogen fusion occurs (1m)
  • Sun-like star: when hydrogen is exhausted, expands to become a red giant (1m)
  • Sun-like star: outer layers drift off to form a planetary nebula; the core remains as a white dwarf (1m)
  • Massive star: when hydrogen runs out, expands to become a red supergiant (much larger than a red giant) (1m)
  • Massive star: undergoes a supernova explosion — a sudden catastrophic collapse and explosion (1m)
  • Massive star: after the supernova, the remnant becomes a neutron star or, if massive enough, a black hole (1m)

Sun-like: protostar -> main sequence (H fusion) -> red giant -> planetary nebula -> white dwarf. Massive star: protostar -> main sequence (H fusion, shorter) -> red supergiant -> supernova -> neutron star / black hole.

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2.

Describe the life cycle of a very massive star from the main sequence stage to its final state. [4 marks]

4 marks · higher

A very massive star leaves the main sequence and expands into a red supergiant as it runs out of hydrogen. When nuclear fuel is exhausted, the star undergoes a catastrophic supernova explosion, releasing enormous amounts of energy. The remnant of the explosion collapses. If the remnant mass is high enough it forms a black hole; otherwise it forms a neutron star.

  • Main sequence ends / becomes a red supergiant (star expands and cools) (1m)
  • Supernova explosion (when nuclear fuel exhausted, star collapses then explodes) (1m)
  • Core remnant forms a neutron star (1m)
  • If very massive, the remnant forms a black hole (gravity is so strong light cannot escape) (1m)

Life cycle of a massive star: Main sequence -> Red supergiant -> Supernova -> Neutron star or Black hole. The key difference from a Sun-like star is the dramatic supernova and the exotic remnant.

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3.

Explain what happens to a star similar in mass to our Sun when it runs out of hydrogen in its core.

3 marks · standard

When hydrogen in the core runs out, fusion stops in the core. The core contracts and heats up while hydrogen fusion continues in a shell around the core. The outer layers of the star expand greatly and cool, turning red. The star becomes a red giant.

  • Hydrogen in the core is used up / fusion in the core stops (1m)
  • Core contracts / heats up (due to gravity) (1m)
  • Outer layers expand and cool / star becomes a red giant (1m)

Fusion stops in the core. Gravity causes core to contract. Energy from contraction causes outer layers to expand enormously and cool, turning the star red - a red giant.

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4.

A student says: 'A star with twice the mass of our Sun will have twice the main sequence lifetime because it has twice as much hydrogen fuel.' The student is wrong. Suggest why a more massive star actually has a shorter main sequence lifetime.

3 marks · higher
  • More massive star has higher core pressure / temperature (1m)
  • Higher temperature causes faster rate of nuclear fusion (1m)
  • Fuel is used up more quickly / despite having more fuel it burns through it faster (1m)

More massive star => higher core pressure => higher temperature => faster fusion rate => fuel used faster => shorter lifetime despite having more fuel.

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5.

Scientists believe that most of the heavy elements in the universe (elements heavier than iron) were formed in supernova explosions. Explain how a supernova can produce and distribute heavy elements.

3 marks · higher

During a supernova explosion, the temperature and pressure are so extreme that nuclear fusion of heavy elements beyond iron can occur. These heavy elements are then distributed throughout space by the supernova explosion, eventually forming part of new nebulae, stars, and planets.

  • Extreme temperature / pressure during supernova allows fusion to produce heavy elements (1m)
  • Elements heavier than iron can only form in a supernova (not in normal stellar fusion) (1m)
  • Supernova explosion distributes / scatters heavy elements into space / interstellar medium (1m)

Normal stellar fusion stops at iron because fusing iron absorbs rather than releases energy. Only the extreme supernova environment has enough energy to fuse beyond iron. The explosion then distributes these elements.

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6.

Explain why a main sequence star remains stable (in equilibrium) for billions of years.

2 marks · standard

A main sequence star is in equilibrium because the outward radiation pressure from nuclear fusion in the core is balanced by the inward gravitational force pulling all the mass together. As long as hydrogen fusion continues, these two forces balance and the star remains stable.

  • Outward radiation pressure from nuclear fusion in the core (or outward thermal pressure) (1m)
  • Balanced by / equal to the inward gravitational force pulling mass together (1m)

Equilibrium is maintained by a balance between outward radiation pressure (from fusion) and inward gravity. When fuel runs out this balance breaks.

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7.

Our Sun has been on the main sequence for approximately 5 billion years and is expected to remain there for another 5 billion years. What is the total main sequence lifetime of the Sun in years? Give your answer in standard form.

2 marks · standard
  • Total lifetime = 5 + 5 = 10 billion years (1m)
  • Correct standard form: 1 x 10^10 years (1m)

5 billion + 5 billion = 10 billion = 10 x 10^9 = 1 x 10^10 years.

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8.

Describe what happens to a star similar to the Sun after the red giant stage.

2 marks · standard

The outer layers of the red giant are ejected as a planetary nebula. The remaining core cools and contracts to form a very small, dense white dwarf star that slowly cools over billions of years.

  • Outer layers are ejected / shed as a planetary nebula (1m)
  • The remaining core becomes a white dwarf (small, very dense, hot then cools) (1m)

After the red giant stage: outer layers are expelled as a planetary nebula; the core contracts into a white dwarf. A white dwarf is very hot and dense but slowly cools over billions of years.

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9.

What is a protostar?

  • A. A cloud of gas and dust in space
  • B. A star that is forming from a collapsing cloud of gas and dust
  • C. A star that has used up all its hydrogen
  • D. A star that has exploded as a supernova
1 mark · foundation

A protostar is an early stage in stellar formation where a cloud of gas and dust (nebula) collapses under gravity, heating up until nuclear fusion begins.

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10.

What nuclear reaction takes place in the core of a main sequence star like our Sun?

  • A. Hydrogen nuclei fuse to form helium nuclei
  • B. Helium nuclei split to release energy
  • C. Uranium nuclei undergo fission
  • D. Carbon nuclei fuse to form oxygen
1 mark · foundation

Main sequence stars fuse hydrogen nuclei (protons) into helium nuclei. This nuclear fusion reaction releases enormous amounts of energy that support the star against gravitational collapse.

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11.

What force causes a nebula to collapse and form a protostar?

  • A. Magnetic force
  • B. Nuclear force
  • C. Gravitational force
  • D. Electrostatic force
1 mark · foundation

Gravity causes the gas and dust in a nebula to clump together and collapse inward, increasing in density and temperature until nuclear fusion begins.

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12.

State one source of the energy released by a main sequence star.

1 mark · foundation

Nuclear fusion of hydrogen nuclei into helium nuclei in the core of the star.

  • Nuclear fusion (of hydrogen into helium / in the core) (1m)

Nuclear fusion joins small atomic nuclei (hydrogen) into larger ones (helium), releasing energy. This is the power source of stars.

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13.

A star much more massive than our Sun reaches the end of its main sequence life. What sequence of stages does it go through next?

  • A. Red giant then white dwarf
  • B. Red supergiant, supernova, neutron star or black hole
  • C. Supernova then white dwarf
  • D. Red giant, planetary nebula, neutron star
1 mark · standard

A very massive star becomes a red supergiant, then undergoes a supernova explosion. The remnant becomes a neutron star (if mass is moderate) or a black hole (if very massive).

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Our Solar System

13
1.

Compare circular and elliptical orbits. In your answer describe: (i) the shape of each orbit, (ii) how gravitational force varies for each, (iii) how speed varies for each. [6 marks]

6 marks · higher

A circular orbit has a constant distance between the orbiting body and the central body. Because the distance is always the same, the gravitational force acting on the orbiting body remains constant in magnitude. The speed of the orbiting body is also constant throughout a circular orbit. An elliptical orbit has a varying distance from the central body. The orbiting body is closest at perihelion and furthest at aphelion. Because gravitational force decreases with distance, the gravitational force is greatest at perihelion and weakest at aphelion. The speed of the orbiting body also varies: it is fastest at perihelion (where the gravitational force is strongest and pulling it inwards) and slowest at aphelion. In both types of orbit, the gravitational force is always directed towards the central body and provides the centripetal force needed to maintain the orbit.

  • Circular orbit: constant distance from the central body throughout (1m)
  • Circular orbit: gravitational force is constant in magnitude; speed is constant throughout the orbit (1m)
  • Elliptical orbit: distance from the central body varies — closer at perihelion, further at aphelion (1m)
  • Elliptical orbit: gravitational force is greater when closer (perihelion) and weaker when further away (aphelion) (1m)
  • Elliptical orbit: speed is faster when closer to the Sun (perihelion) and slower when further away (aphelion) (1m)
  • Both types: gravitational force always directed towards the central body and provides the centripetal force for the orbit (1m)

Circular orbit: constant orbital radius so gravity is constant in magnitude; speed is constant. Elliptical orbit: orbital radius varies between perihelion (closest) and aphelion (furthest); gravity is strongest at perihelion so speed is maximum there; gravity weakest at aphelion so speed is minimum there.

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2.

Describe the structure of our solar system. Name three different types of body found in the solar system and say what each one is.

3 marks · standard

The solar system consists of the Sun at the centre, with eight planets orbiting it. Moons are natural satellites that orbit planets. Asteroids are small rocky bodies found mainly in the asteroid belt between Mars and Jupiter. Comets are icy bodies with highly elliptical orbits that develop a tail when close to the Sun.

  • Planets orbit the Sun / Sun at centre (or 8 planets named) (1m)
  • Moons are natural satellites orbiting planets (or asteroids are rocky bodies / in asteroid belt) (1m)
  • Comets are icy bodies with highly elliptical orbits (that develop a tail near the Sun) (1m)

The solar system has the Sun at the centre. Planets (8 of them) orbit the Sun. Moons orbit planets. Asteroids are rocky bodies in the asteroid belt. Comets have elongated elliptical orbits and form tails when close to the Sun due to solar wind.

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3.

A comet orbits the Sun in a highly elliptical orbit. Explain how the speed of the comet changes as it moves along its orbit and give a reason for this change.

3 marks · higher

The comet moves fastest when it is closest to the Sun and slowest when it is furthest away. When closer to the Sun, the gravitational force on the comet is greater, causing greater acceleration and higher speed. As it moves away, the gravitational force decreases and the comet slows down.

  • Comet moves fastest when closest to the Sun (or slowest when furthest from the Sun) (1m)
  • Gravitational force is greater when closer to the Sun (1m)
  • Greater force causes greater acceleration (so speed increases on approach / decreases on retreat) (1m)

As the comet approaches the Sun, gravity increases and accelerates it. Moving away, gravity decreases and it decelerates. This is conservation of energy - kinetic energy and gravitational PE trade off.

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4.

Compare the orbit of a natural moon with the orbit of an artificial satellite around Earth. State two similarities and one difference.

3 marks · higher

Similarity 1: Both natural moons and artificial satellites are kept in orbit by gravity acting as a centripetal force. Similarity 2: Both travel in approximately circular orbits around Earth. Difference: Natural moons are formed naturally, while artificial satellites are placed in orbit by humans and can be positioned at different orbital altitudes for different purposes (e.g. geostationary orbit).

  • Similarity: both are kept in orbit by gravity (centripetal force) (1m)
  • Similarity: both orbit in approximately circular paths (or both orbit the same body - Earth) (1m)
  • Difference: artificial satellites are man-made / placed at chosen altitudes / natural moons formed naturally (1m)

Both natural moons and artificial satellites orbit Earth due to gravity providing centripetal force. Both travel in circular (or near-circular) orbits. The key difference is origin: moons formed naturally during planet formation, while artificial satellites are launched by humans and chosen orbital altitudes serve specific purposes.

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5.

The Moon orbits Earth in a circular orbit of radius 3.84 x 10^8 m. The orbital period of the Moon is 27.3 days. Calculate the orbital speed of the Moon. Give your answer in m/s. (1 day = 86 400 s)

3 marks · higher
  • Calculate circumference: C = 2 x pi x 3.84 x 10^8 = 2.41 x 10^9 m (1m)
  • Convert period to seconds: 27.3 x 86400 = 2.36 x 10^6 s (1m)
  • Correct answer: v = C/t = 2.41x10^9 / 2.36x10^6 = 1022 m/s (1m)

C = 2pi x 3.84e8 = 2.413e9 m. Period = 27.3 x 86400 = 2.358e6 s. v = 2.413e9 / 2.358e6 = 1023 m/s (approximately 1020 m/s).

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6.

Explain how gravity keeps a planet in a circular orbit around the Sun.

2 marks · standard

Gravity acts as a centripetal force pulling the planet towards the Sun. This force changes the direction of the planet's velocity continuously, keeping it moving in a circular orbit without changing its speed.

  • Gravity acts as a centripetal force (directed towards the Sun / inward) (1m)
  • The force continuously changes the direction of the planet's velocity, keeping it in orbit (1m)

Gravity is the centripetal force. It pulls the planet inward continuously, changing the direction of velocity without changing its magnitude, producing circular motion.

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7.

Earth takes 365 days to complete one orbit of the Sun. Mars takes 687 days. A student says: 'Mars must travel a longer total distance in its orbit than Earth.' Is this statement correct? Write 'yes' or 'no' and give a reason.

2 marks · standard
  • Yes - Mars orbits at a greater distance from the Sun so its orbital path is longer (1m)
  • Mars also moves more slowly, which further explains the longer period (1m)

Mars orbits at 1.52 AU compared to Earth's 1 AU. A larger orbital radius means a larger circumference (C = 2πr), so Mars travels further. Combined with its slower orbital speed, this explains the longer 687-day period.

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8.

An astronaut has a mass of 75 kg. The gravitational field strength on the Moon is 1.6 N/kg. Calculate the weight of the astronaut on the Moon. Use the equation: weight = mass x gravitational field strength

2 marks · standard
  • Correct substitution: W = 75 x 1.6 (1m)
  • Correct answer: 120 N (1m)

W = mg = 75 x 1.6 = 120 N. On Earth the same astronaut weighs 75 x 9.8 = 735 N, so they are much lighter on the Moon.

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9.

Which of the following is NOT an inner rocky planet in our solar system?

  • A. Mercury
  • B. Venus
  • C. Jupiter
  • D. Mars
1 mark · foundation

The inner rocky planets are Mercury, Venus, Earth and Mars. Jupiter is a gas giant in the outer solar system.

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10.

What force keeps planets in orbit around the Sun?

  • A. Magnetic force
  • B. Gravitational force
  • C. Friction
  • D. Electrostatic force
1 mark · foundation

Gravity acts as the centripetal force pulling planets towards the Sun, keeping them in orbit.

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11.

Where is the asteroid belt found in the solar system?

  • A. Between Mercury and Venus
  • B. Between Earth and Mars
  • C. Between Mars and Jupiter
  • D. Beyond Pluto
1 mark · foundation

The asteroid belt lies between Mars and Jupiter. It contains rocky bodies left over from the formation of the solar system.

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12.

State the correct order of scale, from smallest to largest: Universe, Galaxy, Solar System, Planet.

1 mark · foundation

Planet, Solar System, Galaxy, Universe.

  • Correct order: Planet < Solar System < Galaxy < Universe (1m)

Scale order (smallest to largest): Planet, Solar System (all objects orbiting one star), Galaxy (billions of stars), Universe (all matter and energy that exists).

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13.

Planet X orbits the Sun at a greater distance than Planet Y. What can be said about Planet X compared to Planet Y?

  • A. It has a longer orbital period and faster orbital speed
  • B. It has a shorter orbital period and slower orbital speed
  • C. It has a longer orbital period and slower orbital speed
  • D. It has the same orbital period but slower orbital speed
1 mark · standard

Planets further from the Sun orbit more slowly and take longer to complete one orbit, so they have a longer orbital period.

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Orbits

13
1.

Describe and compare the life cycles of a star similar to our Sun and a star much more massive than the Sun. Begin from the protostar stage and include the final state of each star. [6 marks]

6 marks · higher

Both types of star begin as a protostar, formed from a collapsing cloud of gas and dust in a nebula. Gravity causes the gas to contract and heat up until nuclear fusion of hydrogen begins, at which point both stars enter the main sequence stage. For a star like the Sun, when the hydrogen fuel runs out, the outer layers expand and cool to form a red giant. The outer layers then drift away to form a planetary nebula, leaving behind the dense hot core as a white dwarf. A more massive star, when its hydrogen is exhausted, expands to become a red supergiant — much larger and brighter than a red giant. The supergiant then collapses suddenly and explodes in a supernova. The remnant of the supernova depends on the mass of the star: it may become a neutron star or, if the star was massive enough, a black hole.

  • Both begin as a protostar, formed from a collapsing cloud of gas and dust (nebula); both then enter the main sequence where hydrogen fusion occurs (1m)
  • Sun-like star: when hydrogen is exhausted, expands to become a red giant (1m)
  • Sun-like star: outer layers drift off to form a planetary nebula; the core remains as a white dwarf (1m)
  • Massive star: when hydrogen runs out, expands to become a red supergiant (much larger than a red giant) (1m)
  • Massive star: undergoes a supernova explosion — a sudden catastrophic collapse and explosion (1m)
  • Massive star: after the supernova, the remnant becomes a neutron star or, if massive enough, a black hole (1m)

Sun-like: protostar -> main sequence (H fusion) -> red giant -> planetary nebula -> white dwarf. Massive star: protostar -> main sequence (H fusion, shorter) -> red supergiant -> supernova -> neutron star / black hole.

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2.

Describe the life cycle of a very massive star from the main sequence stage to its final state. [4 marks]

4 marks · higher

A very massive star leaves the main sequence and expands into a red supergiant as it runs out of hydrogen. When nuclear fuel is exhausted, the star undergoes a catastrophic supernova explosion, releasing enormous amounts of energy. The remnant of the explosion collapses. If the remnant mass is high enough it forms a black hole; otherwise it forms a neutron star.

  • Main sequence ends / becomes a red supergiant (star expands and cools) (1m)
  • Supernova explosion (when nuclear fuel exhausted, star collapses then explodes) (1m)
  • Core remnant forms a neutron star (1m)
  • If very massive, the remnant forms a black hole (gravity is so strong light cannot escape) (1m)

Life cycle of a massive star: Main sequence -> Red supergiant -> Supernova -> Neutron star or Black hole. The key difference from a Sun-like star is the dramatic supernova and the exotic remnant.

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3.

Explain what happens to a star similar in mass to our Sun when it runs out of hydrogen in its core.

3 marks · standard

When hydrogen in the core runs out, fusion stops in the core. The core contracts and heats up while hydrogen fusion continues in a shell around the core. The outer layers of the star expand greatly and cool, turning red. The star becomes a red giant.

  • Hydrogen in the core is used up / fusion in the core stops (1m)
  • Core contracts / heats up (due to gravity) (1m)
  • Outer layers expand and cool / star becomes a red giant (1m)

Fusion stops in the core. Gravity causes core to contract. Energy from contraction causes outer layers to expand enormously and cool, turning the star red - a red giant.

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4.

A student says: 'A star with twice the mass of our Sun will have twice the main sequence lifetime because it has twice as much hydrogen fuel.' The student is wrong. Suggest why a more massive star actually has a shorter main sequence lifetime.

3 marks · higher
  • More massive star has higher core pressure / temperature (1m)
  • Higher temperature causes faster rate of nuclear fusion (1m)
  • Fuel is used up more quickly / despite having more fuel it burns through it faster (1m)

More massive star => higher core pressure => higher temperature => faster fusion rate => fuel used faster => shorter lifetime despite having more fuel.

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5.

Scientists believe that most of the heavy elements in the universe (elements heavier than iron) were formed in supernova explosions. Explain how a supernova can produce and distribute heavy elements.

3 marks · higher

During a supernova explosion, the temperature and pressure are so extreme that nuclear fusion of heavy elements beyond iron can occur. These heavy elements are then distributed throughout space by the supernova explosion, eventually forming part of new nebulae, stars, and planets.

  • Extreme temperature / pressure during supernova allows fusion to produce heavy elements (1m)
  • Elements heavier than iron can only form in a supernova (not in normal stellar fusion) (1m)
  • Supernova explosion distributes / scatters heavy elements into space / interstellar medium (1m)

Normal stellar fusion stops at iron because fusing iron absorbs rather than releases energy. Only the extreme supernova environment has enough energy to fuse beyond iron. The explosion then distributes these elements.

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6.

Explain why a main sequence star remains stable (in equilibrium) for billions of years.

2 marks · standard

A main sequence star is in equilibrium because the outward radiation pressure from nuclear fusion in the core is balanced by the inward gravitational force pulling all the mass together. As long as hydrogen fusion continues, these two forces balance and the star remains stable.

  • Outward radiation pressure from nuclear fusion in the core (or outward thermal pressure) (1m)
  • Balanced by / equal to the inward gravitational force pulling mass together (1m)

Equilibrium is maintained by a balance between outward radiation pressure (from fusion) and inward gravity. When fuel runs out this balance breaks.

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7.

Our Sun has been on the main sequence for approximately 5 billion years and is expected to remain there for another 5 billion years. What is the total main sequence lifetime of the Sun in years? Give your answer in standard form.

2 marks · standard
  • Total lifetime = 5 + 5 = 10 billion years (1m)
  • Correct standard form: 1 x 10^10 years (1m)

5 billion + 5 billion = 10 billion = 10 x 10^9 = 1 x 10^10 years.

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8.

Describe what happens to a star similar to the Sun after the red giant stage.

2 marks · standard

The outer layers of the red giant are ejected as a planetary nebula. The remaining core cools and contracts to form a very small, dense white dwarf star that slowly cools over billions of years.

  • Outer layers are ejected / shed as a planetary nebula (1m)
  • The remaining core becomes a white dwarf (small, very dense, hot then cools) (1m)

After the red giant stage: outer layers are expelled as a planetary nebula; the core contracts into a white dwarf. A white dwarf is very hot and dense but slowly cools over billions of years.

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9.

What is a protostar?

  • A. A cloud of gas and dust in space
  • B. A star that is forming from a collapsing cloud of gas and dust
  • C. A star that has used up all its hydrogen
  • D. A star that has exploded as a supernova
1 mark · foundation

A protostar is an early stage in stellar formation where a cloud of gas and dust (nebula) collapses under gravity, heating up until nuclear fusion begins.

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10.

What nuclear reaction takes place in the core of a main sequence star like our Sun?

  • A. Hydrogen nuclei fuse to form helium nuclei
  • B. Helium nuclei split to release energy
  • C. Uranium nuclei undergo fission
  • D. Carbon nuclei fuse to form oxygen
1 mark · foundation

Main sequence stars fuse hydrogen nuclei (protons) into helium nuclei. This nuclear fusion reaction releases enormous amounts of energy that support the star against gravitational collapse.

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11.

What force causes a nebula to collapse and form a protostar?

  • A. Magnetic force
  • B. Nuclear force
  • C. Gravitational force
  • D. Electrostatic force
1 mark · foundation

Gravity causes the gas and dust in a nebula to clump together and collapse inward, increasing in density and temperature until nuclear fusion begins.

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12.

State one source of the energy released by a main sequence star.

1 mark · foundation

Nuclear fusion of hydrogen nuclei into helium nuclei in the core of the star.

  • Nuclear fusion (of hydrogen into helium / in the core) (1m)

Nuclear fusion joins small atomic nuclei (hydrogen) into larger ones (helium), releasing energy. This is the power source of stars.

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13.

A star much more massive than our Sun reaches the end of its main sequence life. What sequence of stages does it go through next?

  • A. Red giant then white dwarf
  • B. Red supergiant, supernova, neutron star or black hole
  • C. Supernova then white dwarf
  • D. Red giant, planetary nebula, neutron star
1 mark · standard

A very massive star becomes a red supergiant, then undergoes a supernova explosion. The remnant becomes a neutron star (if mass is moderate) or a black hole (if very massive).

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Life Cycle of Stars

13
1.

Evaluate the evidence for the Big Bang theory. In your answer refer to: red-shift of galaxies, the cosmic microwave background radiation, and any limitations of the theory. [6 marks]

6 marks · higher

Red-shift is the observation that light from distant galaxies is shifted towards longer (red) wavelengths. This indicates that galaxies are moving away from us. More distant galaxies show greater red-shift, which means they are moving away faster. This is consistent with an expanding universe that originated from a single hot dense point — the Big Bang. The cosmic microwave background radiation (CMBR) is low-energy microwave radiation detected uniformly from all directions in the universe. It is interpreted as the remnant thermal radiation from the hot early universe, produced shortly after the Big Bang when the universe had cooled enough for photons to travel freely. This is strong independent evidence for a hot dense origin. However, the theory has limitations: it cannot describe what existed before the Big Bang or explain the universe in the very earliest moments (Planck time). Additionally, dark matter and dark energy — introduced to explain the observed rate of expansion — are not fully understood, suggesting the standard model is incomplete.

  • Red-shift: light from distant galaxies is shifted towards the red end of the spectrum, showing galaxies are moving away from us (1m)
  • More distant galaxies have greater red-shift, showing the universe is expanding — consistent with the Big Bang origin (1m)
  • Cosmic microwave background radiation (CMBR): low-level microwave radiation detected uniformly from all directions across the universe (1m)
  • CMBR is interpreted as thermal radiation left over from the hot early universe shortly after the Big Bang — strong evidence for a hot dense beginning (1m)
  • Limitation: the theory cannot fully explain what existed before the Big Bang or describe the universe in the first tiny fraction of a second (1m)
  • Limitation: dark matter and dark energy are not fully understood; they were introduced to explain observations that the standard Big Bang model alone cannot account for (1m)

Strong evidence: red-shift (expanding universe -> hot beginning), CMBR (thermal relic of hot early universe). Limitations: assumes constant expansion rate, dark matter/energy not fully understood, theory breaks down before Planck time.

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2.

The Hubble constant H0 = 2.2 x 10^-18 s^-1. The age of the universe can be estimated as t = 1/H0. Calculate an estimate for the age of the universe in years. (1 year = 3.15 x 10^7 s)

4 marks · challenge
  • Calculate t = 1 / H0 = 1 / (2.2 x 10^-18) = 4.55 x 10^17 s (1m)
  • Convert to years: 4.55 x 10^17 / 3.15 x 10^7 = 1.44 x 10^10 years (1m)
  • Express as approximately 14 billion years (or 1.44 x 10^10 years) (1m)
  • Recognise this is an estimate / depends on assuming constant expansion rate (1m)

t = 1/H0 = 1/(2.2e-18) = 4.55e17 s. Convert: 4.55e17 / 3.15e7 = 1.44e10 years = about 14.4 billion years. Actual accepted age is ~13.8 billion years.

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3.

Describe two pieces of evidence that support the Big Bang theory.

3 marks · standard

First, the red-shift of light from distant galaxies shows that galaxies are moving away from us. The further away a galaxy is, the greater its red-shift, showing the universe is expanding. Running this expansion backwards leads to the conclusion the universe started from a single very hot, dense point. Second, the cosmic microwave background radiation (CMBR) is low-level microwave radiation detected from all directions in space. This is the cooled remnant of the extremely hot radiation that filled the early universe, and its existence is predicted by the Big Bang theory.

  • Red-shift of galaxies: galaxies moving away from us / universe is expanding (1m)
  • More distant galaxies have greater red-shift / expansion supports the idea of a beginning (Big Bang) (1m)
  • CMBR: low-level microwave radiation detected from all directions, relic of the early hot dense universe / predicted by Big Bang (1m)

Red-shift + expanding universe -> implies the universe was once extremely small/hot (Big Bang). CMBR is the thermal afterglow of the Big Bang, now cooled to microwave frequencies.

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4.

The Steady State theory was an alternative to the Big Bang theory. It proposed that the universe has always existed and looks the same at all times. Explain why the discovery of CMBR led scientists to favour the Big Bang theory over the Steady State theory.

3 marks · higher

The Steady State theory predicted no CMBR since the universe has always existed in the same state with no hot beginning. The Big Bang theory predicted that a relic of radiation from the early hot dense universe should exist, now cooled to microwave wavelengths. When CMBR was discovered in 1965, it matched the Big Bang prediction exactly. The Steady State model could not explain the existence of CMBR, so scientists rejected it in favour of the Big Bang.

  • Big Bang theory predicted CMBR (as remnant of early hot dense universe / now cooled) (1m)
  • Steady State theory did NOT predict / cannot explain CMBR (1m)
  • Discovery of CMBR matches Big Bang prediction, so scientists rejected Steady State in favour of Big Bang (1m)

CMBR is the smoking gun for the Big Bang. Steady State has no hot beginning so cannot explain CMBR. Big Bang predicted it from the start. Discovery settled the debate.

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5.

A galaxy is 2.5 x 10^24 m from Earth. The Hubble constant is 2.2 x 10^-18 s^-1. Calculate the recession velocity of the galaxy. Use the equation: v = H0 x d

3 marks · higher
  • Correct substitution: v = 2.2 x 10^-18 x 2.5 x 10^24 (1m)
  • Correct multiplication: 2.2 x 2.5 = 5.5, 10^(-18+24) = 10^6 (1m)
  • Correct answer: 5.5 x 10^6 m/s (1m)

v = H0 x d = 2.2 x 10^-18 x 2.5 x 10^24 = 5.5 x 10^6 m/s (about 5,500 km/s).

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6.

Explain what red-shift is and what it tells us about a distant galaxy.

2 marks · standard

Red-shift is when the wavelength of light from a galaxy is stretched towards the red end of the spectrum. It tells us that the galaxy is moving away from us; the greater the red-shift, the faster it is receding.

  • Red-shift is an increase in wavelength of light (shifted towards red end of spectrum) (1m)
  • Indicates the galaxy is moving away from us (greater red-shift = faster recession) (1m)

Red-shift: wavelength stretched towards red end. Caused by galaxy moving away (Doppler effect). Greater red-shift = faster recession.

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7.

Scientists observe that distant galaxies are accelerating away from us. What does this suggest about the future of the universe?

2 marks · standard

If galaxies are accelerating away, the universe is expanding at an increasing rate. This suggests the universe will continue to expand forever, with galaxies eventually moving so far apart that the night sky will become completely dark.

  • The universe will continue to expand (forever) / expansion rate is increasing (1m)
  • Galaxies will become increasingly distant / universe will end in a cold, dark state (or similar reasonable consequence) (1m)

Accelerating expansion suggests a 'Big Freeze' scenario - universe expands forever, cools, stars burn out, galaxies drift apart until complete darkness.

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8.

A spectral line from a laboratory source of hydrogen is at a wavelength of 656 nm. The same spectral line observed from a distant galaxy is at 720 nm. Calculate the change in wavelength.

2 marks · standard
  • Change in wavelength = observed - original = 720 - 656 = 64 nm (2m)

Change in wavelength = 720 - 656 = 64 nm. The positive change confirms red-shift (wavelength increased), so the galaxy is moving away.

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9.

The light from a distant galaxy is red-shifted. What does this tell us about the galaxy?

  • A. The galaxy is moving towards us
  • B. The galaxy is moving away from us
  • C. The galaxy is stationary
  • D. The galaxy is getting smaller
1 mark · foundation

Red-shift means the wavelength of light is stretched (shifted towards the red end of the spectrum), which occurs when the source is moving away from the observer.

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10.

Which observation provides evidence that the universe began with the Big Bang?

  • A. The Sun produces light by nuclear fusion
  • B. Most galaxies are red-shifted and moving away from us
  • C. Planets orbit stars in elliptical paths
  • D. Some stars end their lives as black holes
1 mark · foundation

The red-shift of distant galaxies shows the universe is expanding. Running this expansion backwards in time leads to the Big Bang theory, where the universe originated from a single extremely hot dense point.

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11.

What is the cosmic microwave background radiation (CMBR)?

  • A. Radiation emitted by active galaxies today
  • B. Uniform low-level microwave radiation found throughout the universe, a relic of the early hot dense universe
  • C. Radiation from the surface of neutron stars
  • D. Radiation from the Sun reaching Earth
1 mark · foundation

CMBR is microwave radiation detected uniformly from all directions in space. It is the cooled remnant of radiation from the very early, hot, dense universe and provides strong evidence for the Big Bang.

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12.

Briefly describe what the Big Bang theory states about the origin of the universe.

1 mark · foundation

The Big Bang theory states that the universe began approximately 13.8 billion years ago from a single extremely hot and dense point. It has been expanding ever since.

  • Universe originated from a single very hot dense point / has been expanding since (1m)

Big Bang: 13.8 billion years ago the universe originated from an extremely hot, dense point and has been expanding ever since.

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13.

A scientist observes two galaxies A and B. Galaxy A shows a greater red-shift than Galaxy B. What can be concluded?

  • A. Galaxy A is closer than Galaxy B
  • B. Galaxy A is moving faster away from us than Galaxy B
  • C. Galaxy A is moving towards us
  • D. Galaxy A emits redder light than Galaxy B
1 mark · standard

A greater red-shift indicates greater recession speed. More distant galaxies also tend to have greater red-shifts (Hubble's law), so Galaxy A is likely both more distant and receding faster.

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Red Shift & Big Bang

13
1.

A telecommunications company is planning to launch a new satellite for internet broadband services. Evaluate whether a geostationary orbit or a low Earth orbit would be more suitable for this purpose. [6 marks]

6 marks · higher

A geostationary satellite orbits at approximately 36,000 km above the equator and remains stationary relative to the ground. This means a single geostationary satellite can continuously cover a large fixed area without the need for tracking equipment on the ground. However, the high altitude means a signal takes approximately 240 milliseconds to travel up to the satellite and back, causing significant latency that is too slow for real-time internet applications such as video calls and online gaming. A low Earth orbit (LEO) satellite orbits at a much lower altitude (typically 200–2000 km), which means the signal latency is much lower. This makes LEO satellites much better suited for internet broadband. However, each LEO satellite moves quickly across the sky and can only cover a small area at any one time. To provide continuous global coverage, a large constellation of LEO satellites is needed (such as Starlink). For internet broadband where low latency is critical, a LEO constellation would be more suitable than a single geostationary satellite, despite the higher cost of launching and maintaining many satellites.

  • Geostationary advantage: orbits at ~36,000 km, appears stationary relative to Earth — one satellite provides continuous coverage of the same area without tracking equipment needed (1m)
  • Geostationary disadvantage: the high altitude means significant signal latency (~240 ms one-way delay), which is too slow for real-time internet applications (1m)
  • LEO advantage: lower altitude (~200–2000 km) means much lower signal latency — much better for real-time internet use (1m)
  • LEO disadvantage: each satellite only covers a small area as it moves quickly across the sky — one satellite cannot provide continuous coverage (1m)
  • LEO solution: a large constellation of LEO satellites (e.g. Starlink) can provide global continuous coverage with low latency (1m)
  • Conclusion with reasoning: for internet broadband requiring real-time data transfer, LEO (constellation) is generally more suitable due to lower latency, despite the infrastructure cost of many satellites (1m)

Modern broadband uses LEO constellations (Starlink, OneWeb) because low latency is critical for internet. Single geostationary satellites provide better global coverage from one point but 240 ms latency makes real-time applications (gaming, video calls) poor.

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2.

Compare low Earth orbit (LEO) satellites with geostationary orbit satellites. State two advantages of LEO satellites and one advantage of geostationary satellites.

3 marks · higher

LEO advantage 1: Closer to Earth so cameras and sensors produce higher resolution images. LEO advantage 2: Shorter signal travel time (low latency) so better for two-way communication like phone calls. Geostationary advantage: Remains above the same point on Earth, so a fixed receiving dish can be used and continuous coverage of one area is provided.

  • LEO advantage: closer to Earth so higher resolution images (or less signal delay / lower latency) (1m)
  • LEO advantage: second valid point - e.g. shorter signal travel time (or easier to launch into lower orbit) (1m)
  • Geostationary advantage: stays above same point / fixed dish pointing / continuous coverage of one region (1m)

LEO: closer (higher resolution, lower latency). Geostationary: same point (fixed dish, 24-hour coverage). Both have specific use cases.

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3.

A geostationary satellite is at an altitude of 3.6 x 10^7 m above Earth. A signal is sent from a ground station to the satellite and back to a receiver on Earth. Calculate the total time for the signal to travel this path. (speed of light = 3.0 x 10^8 m/s)

3 marks · higher
  • Total distance = 2 x 3.6 x 10^7 = 7.2 x 10^7 m (signal up and back down) (1m)
  • Time = distance / speed = 7.2 x 10^7 / 3.0 x 10^8 (1m)
  • Correct answer: 0.24 s (1m)

Total distance = 2 x 3.6e7 = 7.2e7 m. Time = 7.2e7 / 3e8 = 0.24 s. This 240 ms delay explains why geostationary satellite phone calls have a noticeable echo.

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4.

Explain why a satellite in a smaller orbital radius travels faster than one in a larger orbital radius.

3 marks · higher

A satellite at a smaller orbital radius experiences a stronger gravitational force from Earth because gravity decreases with distance. This stronger force means greater centripetal acceleration, which requires a higher orbital speed to maintain a stable circular orbit. In contrast, a satellite at a larger orbital radius experiences weaker gravity and can maintain its orbit at a lower speed.

  • Gravitational force is stronger at smaller orbital radius (gravity decreases with distance) (1m)
  • Stronger centripetal force requires a higher orbital speed to maintain circular orbit (1m)
  • At larger orbital radius, gravity is weaker so a lower speed is sufficient to maintain orbit (1m)

Gravity is the centripetal force. Stronger gravity (at smaller r) requires faster speed for circular orbit. F = mv²/r: larger F with smaller r means higher v.

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5.

Explain why a geostationary satellite stays above the same point on Earth's surface.

2 marks · standard

A geostationary satellite orbits in the plane of the equator with an orbital period of 24 hours, which matches Earth's rotation period. Since the satellite and the Earth rotate at the same rate, the satellite stays above the same fixed point on the Earth's surface.

  • Orbital period is 24 hours / same as Earth's rotation period (1m)
  • Because the satellite and Earth rotate at the same rate, the satellite stays above the same fixed point on the surface (1m)

Orbital period = 24 hours = Earth's rotation period. Same angular speed means fixed relative position above equator.

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6.

A satellite orbits Earth at an altitude of 400 km above the surface. Earth's radius is 6.4 x 10^6 m. The orbital period is 5500 s. Calculate the orbital speed of the satellite. Use the equation: speed = 2 x pi x orbital radius / period

2 marks · standard
  • Orbital radius = 6.4 x 10^6 + 4.0 x 10^5 = 6.8 x 10^6 m (1m)
  • v = 2 x pi x 6.8x10^6 / 5500 = 4.274x10^7 / 5500 = 7771 m/s (accept 7700-7800 m/s) (1m)

Orbital radius = 6.4e6 + 4.0e5 = 6.8e6 m. v = 2pi x 6.8e6 / 5500 = 7771 m/s (approximately 7700 m/s).

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7.

Explain why telescopes that detect X-rays or infrared radiation need to be placed in space rather than on Earth's surface.

2 marks · standard

Earth's atmosphere absorbs X-ray and infrared radiation before it reaches the ground. A space-based telescope is above the atmosphere, so it can detect these wavelengths without them being blocked or absorbed.

  • X-ray / infrared radiation is absorbed / blocked by Earth's atmosphere (does not reach the ground) (1m)
  • Space telescope is above the atmosphere so these wavelengths can be detected (1m)

Earth's atmosphere is opaque to X-ray and much of the infrared spectrum. Space telescopes (Hubble, James Webb) circumvent this by operating above the atmosphere.

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8.

The International Space Station (ISS) orbits at an altitude of 408 km above Earth's surface. Earth's radius is 6371 km. Calculate the orbital radius of the ISS in km.

2 marks · standard
  • Orbital radius = Earth's radius + altitude = 6371 + 408 = 6779 km (2m)

Orbital radius = 6371 + 408 = 6779 km. The orbital radius is measured from Earth's centre, not its surface.

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9.

What is the orbital period of a geostationary satellite?

  • A. 90 minutes
  • B. 12 hours
  • C. 24 hours
  • D. 7 days
1 mark · foundation

A geostationary satellite has an orbital period of exactly 24 hours, the same as Earth's rotation period. This means it remains fixed above the same point on Earth's surface.

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10.

What is one advantage of placing a telescope in space rather than on Earth's surface?

  • A. It is cheaper to build and maintain
  • B. It does not suffer from atmospheric distortion of light
  • C. It can only detect visible light
  • D. It is closer to the stars being observed
1 mark · foundation

Earth's atmosphere absorbs and distorts light from space. A space-based telescope is above the atmosphere, so it can collect undistorted images and observe wavelengths (like X-rays and UV) that are blocked by the atmosphere.

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11.

State one use of artificial satellites in everyday life.

1 mark · foundation

GPS navigation satellites allow devices to determine their precise location anywhere on Earth.

  • Any valid use: GPS / navigation, satellite TV, weather monitoring, communications, Earth observation (1m)

Common satellite uses: GPS (navigation), satellite TV, weather monitoring, internet relay, scientific observation, military surveillance.

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12.

A low Earth orbit (LEO) satellite orbits at about 400 km above Earth. Which of the following is true about a LEO satellite compared to a geostationary satellite?

  • A. It orbits more slowly and has a longer period
  • B. It orbits faster and has a shorter period
  • C. It orbits at the same speed but at a different altitude
  • D. It orbits faster but stays over the same point on Earth
1 mark · standard

Objects closer to Earth orbit faster due to stronger gravity. LEO satellites at 400 km complete an orbit in about 90 minutes, much faster than geostationary satellites at 36,000 km (24 hours).

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13.

Which of the following is the best use case for a geostationary satellite (rather than a LEO satellite)?

  • A. Monitoring detailed weather patterns in polar regions
  • B. Continuous satellite television broadcast to a fixed ground receiver dish
  • C. Photographing Earth's surface at high resolution
  • D. International space station missions
1 mark · standard

Geostationary satellites remain above the same point on Earth, so a satellite dish can be permanently pointed at them. This is ideal for continuous communication such as TV broadcasting.

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