AQA Chemistry Paper 1

757 questions with model answers · Chemistry Paper 1 · GCSE Chemistry revision

Ionic Bonding

Common35
1.

Describe and explain how ionic compounds are formed, using sodium chloride as an example. Include in your answer: how ions are formed, the structure of sodium chloride, and at least two physical properties of sodium chloride and their explanations. [6 marks]

6 marks · higherCommon

Ionic bonding occurs between a metal (sodium) and a non-metal (chlorine). Sodium has one electron in its outer shell and loses this electron to chlorine, forming the Na+ ion with a stable full outer shell. Chlorine has seven electrons in its outer shell and gains one electron, forming the Cl- ion with a stable full outer shell of eight electrons. The electron is completely transferred from sodium to chlorine — it is not shared. The Na+ and Cl- ions are held together by strong electrostatic forces of attraction between the oppositely charged ions. In solid sodium chloride, billions of Na+ and Cl- ions are arranged in a regular repeating pattern called a giant ionic lattice, with each Na+ surrounded by six Cl- ions and vice versa. Physical property 1 — High melting point: Sodium chloride has a very high melting point (801 degrees C) because a large amount of energy is needed to overcome the strong electrostatic forces acting throughout the lattice. Physical property 2 — Electrical conductivity: Solid sodium chloride does not conduct electricity because the ions are held in fixed positions in the lattice and cannot carry charge. When molten or dissolved in water, the ions are free to move and carry charge, so sodium chloride conducts electricity in the liquid state or in solution.

  • Ionic bonding involves electron transfer from a metal to a non-metal (sodium loses 1 electron to chlorine) (1m)
  • Na+ formed (sodium loses 1 outer electron, achieves full outer shell); Cl- formed (chlorine gains 1 electron, achieves full outer shell of 8) (1m)
  • Strong electrostatic attraction between oppositely charged Na+ and Cl- ions (1m)
  • Giant ionic lattice — regular arrangement of Na+ and Cl- ions in all directions (1m)
  • High melting point because large energy needed to overcome strong electrostatic forces throughout the lattice (1m)
  • Conducts when molten or dissolved (free ions carry charge) but not as solid (ions fixed in lattice) (1m)

Sodium chloride has a giant ionic lattice structure where Na+ and Cl- ions alternate in a regular 3D arrangement held by strong electrostatic forces. Properties: high melting point (801°C, requires large energy to overcome strong forces), conducts electricity when molten or dissolved (ions free to move), brittle (like charges align when planes shift causing repulsion), and is generally soluble in water.

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2.

Compare the properties of sodium chloride and hydrogen chloride. Explain the differences in melting point and electrical conductivity in terms of structure and bonding. [6 marks]

6 marks · challengeCommon

Sodium chloride (NaCl) has a giant ionic lattice structure. It is held together by strong electrostatic forces of attraction between oppositely charged Na+ and Cl- ions throughout the lattice. A very large amount of energy is needed to overcome these forces, so sodium chloride has a high melting point (801°C). In the solid state, the ions are fixed in the lattice and cannot move, so it does not conduct electricity. When molten, the ions are free to move and carry charge, so it conducts electricity. Hydrogen chloride (HCl) is a simple molecular compound. It consists of small HCl molecules held together by weak intermolecular forces (London dispersion forces and permanent dipole-dipole interactions). Only a small amount of energy is needed to overcome these weak forces, so HCl has a very low melting point (-114°C). HCl does not conduct electricity in any state because there are no free ions or delocalised electrons to carry charge.

  • NaCl has a giant ionic lattice structure of positive and negative ions (1m)
  • Strong electrostatic forces of attraction between oppositely charged ions require a large amount of energy to overcome, giving a high melting point (1m)
  • NaCl conducts electricity when molten (or in solution) because ions are free to move and carry charge; does not conduct when solid as ions are fixed (1m)
  • HCl consists of simple molecules (small covalent molecules) with weak intermolecular forces between them (1m)
  • Only a small amount of energy is needed to overcome the weak intermolecular forces, so HCl has a low melting point (1m)
  • HCl does not conduct electricity in any state because it has no free ions or delocalised electrons to carry charge (1m)

This question tests your ability to link structure, bonding and properties across two different substance types. Sodium chloride is an ionic compound — it forms a giant lattice of Na+ and Cl- ions held by strong electrostatic attraction throughout the entire structure. Because these forces are so strong, a huge amount of energy is needed to break them: this is why NaCl melts at 801°C. The ions are fixed in the solid lattice, so NaCl cannot conduct electricity until it melts and the ions become free to move. Hydrogen chloride is completely different — it is a simple molecular substance. The covalent bond within each HCl molecule is strong, but the forces between separate HCl molecules (intermolecular forces) are very weak. Very little energy is needed to overcome these weak forces, so HCl melts at -114°C. Because HCl has no ions and no delocalised electrons in any state, it cannot conduct electricity at all. The key distinction: ionic substances conduct when liquid; simple molecular substances never conduct.

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3.

Compare and contrast the structure and bonding in sodium chloride (NaCl) and diamond. Use your answer to explain why both substances have high melting points but only sodium chloride can conduct electricity. [6 marks]

6 marks · challengeCommon

Sodium chloride has a giant ionic lattice structure composed of alternating positive Na+ and negative Cl- ions. The ions are held together by strong electrostatic forces of attraction between oppositely charged ions acting throughout the lattice. A very large amount of energy is needed to overcome all these electrostatic forces, giving sodium chloride a high melting point. When molten, the ions become free to move and carry electrical charge, so NaCl conducts electricity in the molten state. Diamond has a giant covalent structure. Each carbon atom is covalently bonded to four other carbon atoms in a rigid, three-dimensional network. All four outer electrons of each carbon atom are used in covalent bonding, leaving no delocalised electrons. The covalent bonds in diamond are very strong and extend throughout the entire structure. A very large amount of energy is needed to break the many strong covalent bonds, giving diamond an extremely high melting point. Diamond cannot conduct electricity because there are no free electrons or ions to carry charge — all electrons are held in covalent bonds.

  • NaCl has a giant ionic lattice of positive (Na+) and negative (Cl-) ions held by strong electrostatic forces of attraction (1m)
  • NaCl has a high melting point because a large amount of energy is needed to overcome the many strong electrostatic forces throughout the lattice (1m)
  • NaCl conducts electricity when molten because ions are free to move and carry charge (1m)
  • Diamond has a giant covalent structure in which each carbon atom is bonded to four others in a three-dimensional network (1m)
  • Diamond has a high melting point because a very large amount of energy is needed to break the many strong covalent bonds throughout the structure (1m)
  • Diamond cannot conduct electricity because there are no free electrons or ions — all electrons are held in covalent bonds (1m)

Both NaCl and diamond have very high melting points but for completely different structural reasons — and only NaCl can conduct electricity. NaCl is a giant ionic lattice: Na+ and Cl- ions are held by strong electrostatic forces of attraction throughout the 3D structure. Breaking all those forces demands a large amount of energy, hence the high melting point (801°C). When NaCl melts, the ions become mobile and can carry electrical charge — that is why it conducts when liquid. Diamond is a giant covalent structure: every carbon atom uses all four of its outer electrons to form covalent bonds to four other carbon atoms in an endless three-dimensional network. These covalent bonds are very strong, and there are millions of them throughout the solid, so an enormous amount of energy is needed to break them — diamond melts above 3500°C. Crucially, every electron in diamond is held in a covalent bond: there are no delocalised electrons and no ions, so diamond cannot carry an electrical current under any conditions. The examiner wants you to contrast 'electrostatic forces between ions' (NaCl) with 'strong covalent bonds throughout the network' (diamond), and explain why only ionic substances conduct when molten.

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4.

A student is given four substances: sodium chloride (NaCl), silicon dioxide (SiO2), water (H2O) and magnesium oxide (MgO). The student claims that all four substances have the same type of bonding because they are all made of two elements. Evaluate this claim and explain how the structure and bonding of each substance differs. [6 marks]

6 marks · challengeCommon

The student's claim is incorrect. The four substances have different types of bonding despite each being made of two elements. Sodium chloride (NaCl) and magnesium oxide (MgO) are ionic compounds. Metals (Na, Mg) transfer electrons to non-metals (Cl, O) to form oppositely charged ions. The ions are arranged in a giant ionic lattice held together by strong electrostatic forces of attraction. MgO has a higher melting point than NaCl because Mg2+ and O2- ions have a greater charge than Na+ and Cl-, producing stronger electrostatic forces. Silicon dioxide (SiO2) is a giant covalent structure. Silicon and oxygen atoms share electrons to form covalent bonds throughout a three-dimensional network. There are no ions or molecules — the covalent bonds extend through the entire solid, giving silicon dioxide a very high melting point. Water (H2O) is a simple molecular substance. Oxygen and hydrogen share electrons to form covalent bonds within each H2O molecule. The molecules are held together only by weak intermolecular forces. Very little energy is needed to overcome these forces, so water has a much lower melting point than the other three substances.

  • The claim is incorrect — the type of bonding depends on the type of elements (metal + non-metal forms ionic; two non-metals form covalent), not just how many elements are involved (1m)
  • NaCl and MgO are ionic compounds with giant ionic lattices. Electrons are transferred from the metal to the non-metal to form ions held by strong electrostatic forces (1m)
  • MgO has a higher melting point than NaCl because Mg2+ and O2- ions have a greater charge than Na+ and Cl-, creating stronger electrostatic forces that require more energy to overcome (1m)
  • SiO2 is a giant covalent structure in which silicon and oxygen atoms are joined by strong covalent bonds in a three-dimensional network throughout the solid (1m)
  • H2O is a simple molecular substance — the H2O molecules are held together by weak intermolecular forces, requiring very little energy to overcome (1m)
  • Comparison of melting points: ionic compounds and giant covalent structures have high melting points; simple molecular substances have low melting points, justified by the strength and extent of the forces involved (1m)

This is a classic AQA Higher 'evaluate the claim' question requiring you to apply knowledge of all three bonding types across four substances. The student's claim is wrong for a fundamental reason: the type of bonding depends on what type of elements combine, not how many. Metal + non-metal always gives ionic bonding; two non-metals give covalent bonding (either simple molecular or giant covalent depending on the elements). NaCl and MgO are both ionic compounds — metals (Na, Mg) transfer electrons to non-metals (Cl, O) forming giant ionic lattices held by strong electrostatic forces. MgO has a higher melting point than NaCl because the Mg2+ and O2- ions each carry a 2+ or 2- charge, creating much stronger electrostatic forces than the 1+ and 1- charges in NaCl — more energy is needed to break stronger forces. SiO2 is entirely different: silicon and oxygen are both non-metals so they share electrons to form covalent bonds. These bonds extend throughout a rigid 3D network (giant covalent structure), not discrete molecules, giving SiO2 a very high melting point without containing any ions. H2O is also covalent, but it forms simple discrete molecules. The intermolecular forces between H2O molecules are weak, so very little energy is needed to separate them — hence the low melting point of 0°C. Knowing the four key structure types (giant ionic, giant covalent, simple molecular, metallic) and being able to compare them is a core Grade 8-9 skill.

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5.

A student tests an unknown solid substance. It has a high melting point, does not conduct electricity as a solid, but conducts electricity when melted. Deduce the type of structure and bonding present in the substance. Justify your reasoning. [5 marks]

5 marks · challengeCommon

The substance has an ionic structure. It is held together by strong electrostatic forces of attraction between positively and negatively charged ions arranged in a giant ionic lattice. The high melting point is explained by the large amount of energy needed to overcome the many strong electrostatic forces throughout the lattice. In the solid state, the ions are held in fixed positions in the lattice and cannot move, so the substance cannot conduct electricity. When the substance is melted, the ions become free to move and carry charge, which explains why the molten substance conducts electricity.

  • The substance has an ionic structure / ionic bonding (not covalent or metallic) (1m)
  • Strong electrostatic forces of attraction hold the ions together in a giant ionic lattice (1m)
  • High melting point because a large amount of energy is required to overcome the strong electrostatic forces throughout the lattice (1m)
  • Does not conduct as a solid because ions are in fixed positions and cannot move to carry charge (1m)
  • Conducts when molten because ions are free to move and carry electrical charge (1m)

When you see a substance with a high melting point, no electrical conductivity as a solid, but conductivity when melted, these three observations together point specifically to an ionic compound. No other bonding type fits all three clues simultaneously. Giant covalent structures have high melting points but never conduct electricity (no free ions or electrons). Metals conduct in all states. Simple molecular substances have low melting points. Only an ionic compound has all three features. The explanation runs as follows: oppositely charged ions in a giant ionic lattice are held by strong electrostatic forces — you need a lot of energy to break those, hence the high melting point. In the solid, all ions are locked in fixed lattice positions and cannot move, so no current can flow. Melt it, and the ions become mobile, allowing them to carry charge and conduct electricity. A GCSE examiner expects you to use the terms 'giant ionic lattice', 'electrostatic forces', 'fixed positions' and 'free to move' — these are the key phrases.

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6.

A student dissolves sodium chloride in water and measures that the solution conducts electricity. The student then dissolves iodine in water and finds that the solution does not conduct electricity. Explain these observations in terms of the structure and bonding of each substance. [5 marks]

5 marks · challengeCommon

Sodium chloride has a giant ionic lattice structure. When it dissolves in water, the water molecules break apart the lattice and the Na+ and Cl- ions become free to move throughout the solution. These free-moving ions can carry electrical charge through the solution, which is why it conducts electricity. Iodine is a simple molecular substance. It consists of I2 molecules held together by weak intermolecular forces. When iodine dissolves in water, the I2 molecules spread through the solution but remain as neutral, uncharged molecules. There are no ions in the solution and no delocalised electrons, so there are no charge carriers available. This is why the iodine solution does not conduct electricity.

  • NaCl has a giant ionic lattice / contains ions (Na+ and Cl-) (1m)
  • Dissolving in water releases / separates the ions from the lattice, allowing them to move freely through the solution (1m)
  • The free-moving ions carry electrical charge, so the solution conducts electricity (1m)
  • Iodine is a simple molecular substance (consists of I2 molecules) (1m)
  • Iodine dissolves as neutral molecules — no ions are formed, so there are no charge carriers and the solution does not conduct electricity (1m)

This question links ionic structure (T9/T10) with simple molecular structure (T12) and applies them to electrical conductivity in solution. The key principle is that electrical conductivity requires charged particles that can move freely. When NaCl (a giant ionic lattice) dissolves in water, the water molecules break apart the lattice and release individual Na+ and Cl- ions. These ions are free to move through the solution and carry electrical charge — that is why the solution conducts electricity. Iodine is a simple molecular substance made of I2 molecules. Dissolving iodine in water gives a solution of neutral I2 molecules — they do not break up into ions. Because there are no charged particles in the iodine solution (no ions and no delocalised electrons), there is nothing to carry an electrical current. A common mistake is to say that iodine 'forms ions' when dissolved — it does not. Only ionic compounds (and some polar covalent substances like HCl) produce ions when dissolved in water.

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7.

A student says: 'Magnesium oxide has a much higher melting point than sodium chloride because it has stronger ionic bonds.' Explain, in terms of ion charges and structure, why this statement is correct. [4 marks]

4 marks · higherCommon

In magnesium oxide, the ions are Mg2+ (charge 2+) and O2- (charge 2-), giving a greater charge on each ion compared to Na+ and Cl- in sodium chloride. Greater ion charges produce stronger electrostatic attraction between the ions. Magnesium oxide forms a giant ionic lattice, as does sodium chloride, but the higher charges in MgO produce stronger electrostatic forces throughout the lattice. More energy is needed to overcome these stronger forces, which is why magnesium oxide has a higher melting point than sodium chloride.

  • MgO contains Mg2+ and O2- ions; NaCl contains Na+ and Cl- ions — MgO ions have greater (double) charge (1m)
  • Greater charge on ions produces stronger electrostatic forces of attraction between ions (1m)
  • Both compounds form giant ionic lattices (1m)
  • More energy is required to overcome the stronger forces in MgO, hence higher melting point (1m)

When drawing a dot-and-cross diagram for ionic bonding: draw the outer electrons of each atom. Show one electron being transferred (arrow optional) from the metal to the non-metal. Show the resulting ions in square brackets with their charges. The receiving atom gains a full outer shell; the donating atom achieves a full outer shell by losing electrons.

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8.

Evaluate the properties of ionic compounds in terms of their structure. Your answer should address melting point, electrical conductivity, and solubility. [4 marks]

4 marks · higherCommon

Ionic compounds have high melting points because they form a giant ionic lattice in which strong electrostatic forces of attraction act between all the oppositely charged ions. A large amount of energy is needed to overcome these forces. Ionic compounds do not conduct electricity when solid because the ions are fixed in position and cannot carry charge. However, when melted or dissolved in water, the ions become free to move and can carry charge, so they conduct electricity. Many ionic compounds dissolve in water because the polar water molecules attract and surround the ions, pulling them out of the lattice.

  • High melting point — giant ionic lattice, strong electrostatic forces of attraction, large energy needed to overcome (1m)
  • Do not conduct electricity as solids — ions fixed in lattice, cannot move to carry charge (1m)
  • Conduct when molten or in aqueous solution — ions free to move and carry charge (1m)
  • Soluble in water — polar water molecules attract and surround / separate ions from lattice (1m)

To work out the formula of aluminium oxide: aluminium forms Al3+ and oxygen forms O2-. The lowest common multiple of 3 and 2 is 6, so we need 2 Al3+ ions (giving +6) and 3 O2- ions (giving -6). Total charge = (+6) + (-6) = 0. The formula is Al2O3.

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9.

Describe the structure of an ionic compound and explain why ionic compounds have high melting points. [3 marks]

3 marks · standardCommon

Ionic compounds form a giant ionic lattice structure. The positive and negative ions are arranged in a regular repeating pattern. Strong electrostatic forces of attraction act between all the oppositely charged ions in all directions. A large amount of energy is needed to overcome these strong forces, so ionic compounds have high melting points.

  • Giant ionic lattice / ions arranged in a regular pattern (1m)
  • Strong electrostatic forces of attraction between oppositely charged ions / act in all directions (1m)
  • Large amount of energy needed to overcome / break these strong forces, hence high melting point (1m)

Ionic compounds form a giant ionic lattice structure where positive and negative ions are arranged in a regular repeating 3D pattern. Strong electrostatic forces of attraction act between all oppositely charged ions in all directions. A large amount of energy is needed to overcome these strong forces, which is why ionic compounds have high melting points.

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10.

Explain what happens when sodium reacts with chlorine to form sodium chloride. Include what happens to the electrons. [3 marks]

3 marks · standardCommon

When sodium reacts with chlorine, one electron is transferred from the sodium atom to the chlorine atom. Sodium loses this electron from its outer shell, forming the Na+ ion with a full outer shell. Chlorine gains this electron into its outer shell, forming the Cl- ion with a full outer shell. The oppositely charged Na+ and Cl- ions are then attracted to each other by electrostatic forces.

  • One electron is transferred from sodium to chlorine (1m)
  • Sodium forms Na+ (loses electron, achieves full outer shell) AND chlorine forms Cl- (gains electron, achieves full outer shell) (1m)
  • Na+ and Cl- are held together by electrostatic attraction between opposite charges (1m)

When sodium reacts with chlorine, one electron is transferred from the sodium atom to the chlorine atom. Sodium (2,8,1) loses its outer electron to form Na+ (2,8 — full outer shell). Chlorine (2,8,7) gains that electron to form Cl- (2,8,8 — full outer shell). The oppositely charged Na+ and Cl- ions are attracted together by strong electrostatic forces, forming ionic bonds.

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11.

Explain how the position of an element in the periodic table determines the charge of the ion it forms. Use examples to support your answer. [3 marks]

3 marks · standardCommon

Metals in Groups 1, 2 and 3 lose electrons from their outer shell to form positive ions. The charge of the positive ion equals the group number: Group 1 metals (e.g. Na) form 1+ ions, Group 2 metals (e.g. Mg) form 2+ ions. Non-metals in Groups 6 and 7 gain electrons to form negative ions: Group 7 elements (e.g. Cl) gain 1 electron to form 1- ions, and Group 6 elements (e.g. O) gain 2 electrons to form 2- ions. In each case, the ion has a full outer shell.

  • Group number of metal = number of electrons lost = charge of positive ion (e.g. Group 1 forms 1+ ion, Group 2 forms 2+ ion) (1m)
  • Non-metals gain electrons: Group 7 forms 1- ion, Group 6 forms 2- ion (with specific examples credited) (1m)
  • Both processes result in a full outer shell / stable electron configuration — reference to specific example(s) (1m)

When magnesium reacts with oxygen, each magnesium atom (2,8,2) loses 2 electrons to form Mg2+ (2,8). Each oxygen atom (2,6) gains 2 electrons to form O2- (2,8). The ions are held together in a giant ionic lattice by strong electrostatic attractions. The balanced equation is: 2Mg + O2 → 2MgO.

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12.

Using the diagram, describe what happens to the electrons during ionic bond formation between sodium and chlorine. [3 marks]

3 marks · standardCommon

Sodium has one electron in its outer shell. This electron is transferred from sodium to chlorine. Sodium loses the electron and becomes a positively charged Na+ ion with a stable full outer shell (electron configuration 2,8). Chlorine gains the electron and becomes a negatively charged Cl- ion with a stable full outer shell (electron configuration 2,8,8). The transfer of the electron creates two oppositely charged ions.

  • The outer electron from sodium is transferred to chlorine / sodium loses one electron and chlorine gains one electron (1m)
  • Sodium becomes Na+ ion / sodium has electron configuration 2,8 after the transfer / sodium has a full outer shell (1m)
  • Chlorine becomes Cl- ion / chlorine has electron configuration 2,8,8 after the transfer / chlorine has a full outer shell (1m)

Ionic bond formation between sodium and chlorine: (1) sodium's single outer electron is transferred to chlorine; (2) sodium loses the electron to become Na+ (configuration 2,8 — stable full outer shell); (3) chlorine gains the electron to become Cl- (configuration 2,8,8 — stable full outer shell). Both ions now have complete outer shells, which is the thermodynamic driving force for the transfer.

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13.

An engineer is selecting materials for high-temperature industrial equipment. She is considering using ionic compounds because of their physical properties. Explain THREE properties of ionic compounds in the solid state that could make them suitable or unsuitable for industrial applications. [3 marks]

3 marks · standardCommon

Ionic compounds have high melting points because they have a giant ionic lattice held together by strong electrostatic forces of attraction between oppositely charged ions. A large amount of energy is needed to overcome these forces, so they remain solid at high temperatures, making them suitable for high-temperature equipment. Ionic compounds are hard and rigid because of the strong electrostatic attractions throughout the lattice, which makes them resistant to deformation. However, ionic compounds are brittle — when a force is applied, layers of ions shift and ions of the same charge come alongside each other, causing repulsion and the structure to shatter. In the solid state, ionic compounds do not conduct electricity because the ions are held in fixed positions in the lattice and cannot move to carry charge.

  • High melting point: giant ionic lattice / strong electrostatic forces / large energy needed to break (1m)
  • Hard/rigid OR brittle: strong forces resist deformation OR layers of ions shift causing same-charge repulsion and shattering (1m)
  • Non-conducting as solid: ions fixed in lattice / cannot move / no charge carriers (1m)

Ionic compounds form giant ionic lattices — regular arrangements of oppositely charged ions held by strong electrostatic attractions throughout the structure. These strong forces require a lot of energy to break, giving ionic compounds very high melting points (often above 600 °C). The strong, rigid lattice also makes ionic compounds hard, but brittle — when struck, layers shift so that like-charged ions align and repel, causing the crystal to shatter. In the solid state, ions are locked into fixed positions so they cannot carry electrical charge. Note: ionic compounds DO conduct electricity when molten or dissolved in water, because the ions are then free to move.

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14.

Describe what a dot-and-cross diagram for sodium chloride (NaCl) would show about electron transfer in ionic bonding. [3 marks]

3 marks · higherCommon

A dot-and-cross diagram for NaCl shows the outer shell electrons of each atom. The sodium atom (shown with a cross in its outer shell) transfers its one outer electron to the chlorine atom. The diagram shows the sodium ion Na+ with an empty outer shell and a full inner shell. The chlorine ion Cl- is shown with a full outer shell of 8 electrons, including the transferred electron shown as a cross.

  • Shows outer shell electrons with different symbols (dots/crosses) for each atom; one electron in sodium's outer shell and seven in chlorine's outer shell (1m)
  • Shows the sodium electron transferred into chlorine's outer shell — Na+ has empty (or no) outer shell, Cl- has full outer shell of 8 (1m)
  • Ions are shown with square brackets and their charges (Na+ and Cl-) indicating the ionic charges formed (1m)

Ionic compounds conduct electricity when molten or dissolved in water because the ions are free to move and carry electrical charge. In the solid state, ions are locked in fixed positions in the giant lattice and cannot move, so the solid does not conduct. A common misconception is that ionic compounds always conduct — they only do so when ions are free to move.

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15.

Calcium is in Group 2. Chlorine is in Group 7. Explain how calcium chloride is formed and predict its formula. [3 marks]

3 marks · higherCommon

Calcium is in Group 2 and has 2 electrons in its outer shell. It loses both electrons to form Ca2+ with a full outer shell. Each chlorine atom is in Group 7 and gains one electron to form Cl- with a full outer shell. Two chlorine atoms are needed to accept both electrons from one calcium atom, so the formula is CaCl2.

  • Calcium (Group 2) loses 2 electrons to form Ca2+ with a full outer shell (1m)
  • Each chlorine (Group 7) gains 1 electron to form Cl- with a full outer shell (1m)
  • Formula is CaCl2 — two Cl- ions are needed to accept the 2 electrons from Ca and balance the 2+ charge (1m)

To work out the formula of an ionic compound: find the charges on each ion, then find the ratio that makes the total charge zero. Calcium forms Ca2+ and chloride forms Cl-. To balance (+2) with (-1) charges, you need 2 Cl- for every Ca2+: (+2) + 2(-1) = 0. The formula is CaCl2.

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16.

Using the diagram, explain why Na+ and Cl- ions are attracted to each other after the electron has been transferred, and state what type of bonding this produces. [3 marks]

3 marks · higherCommon

After the electron transfer, sodium has more protons than electrons so it carries a positive charge (Na+), and chlorine has more electrons than protons so it carries a negative charge (Cl-). Opposite electrical charges attract each other, so there is a strong electrostatic force of attraction between the Na+ and Cl- ions. This attraction between oppositely charged ions is called an ionic bond.

  • Na+ is positively charged (more protons than electrons) and Cl- is negatively charged (more electrons than protons) (1m)
  • Opposite charges attract / there is an electrostatic force of attraction between the oppositely charged ions (1m)
  • This attraction is called an ionic bond (1m)

After electron transfer, Na+ (11 protons, 10 electrons) is positively charged and Cl- (17 protons, 18 electrons) is negatively charged. Opposite electrical charges attract each other — this is the fundamental principle of electrostatics. The resulting strong electrostatic force of attraction between Na+ and Cl- is called an ionic bond. This is different from covalent bonding, where electrons are shared rather than transferred.

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17.

Using the diagram, explain why ionic compounds have high melting points. [3 marks]

3 marks · higherCommon

Ionic compounds consist of a giant lattice of oppositely charged ions, held together by strong electrostatic forces of attraction between the positive and negative ions (as shown in the diagram). To melt an ionic compound, these strong electrostatic forces between all the ions in the lattice must be overcome. This requires a very large amount of energy, which is why ionic compounds have high melting points.

  • Ionic compound forms a giant lattice / giant structure of positive and negative ions (1m)
  • Strong electrostatic forces of attraction between oppositely charged ions throughout the lattice (1m)
  • A large amount of energy is required to overcome / break these forces, so the melting point is high (1m)

Ionic compounds form giant ionic lattices — regular 3D arrays of alternating positive and negative ions. Strong electrostatic forces of attraction act between every pair of oppositely charged neighbouring ions throughout the entire lattice. Melting requires breaking all these forces, which demands a very large amount of thermal energy. This is why ionic compounds consistently have high melting points (sodium chloride melts at 801°C).

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18.

Define ionic bonding. [2 marks]

2 marks · foundationCommon

Ionic bonding is the strong electrostatic attraction between oppositely charged ions. It occurs when electrons are transferred from a metal atom to a non-metal atom.

  • Strong electrostatic attraction between oppositely charged ions (positive and negative ions) (1m)
  • Occurs between a metal and a non-metal / involves electron transfer from metal to non-metal (1m)

Ionic bonding is the strong electrostatic attraction between oppositely charged ions. It occurs when electrons are transferred from a metal atom to a non-metal atom: the metal loses electrons to form a positive ion (cation) and the non-metal gains electrons to form a negative ion (anion).

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19.

Explain how a sodium atom (Na) forms a sodium ion (Na+). [2 marks]

2 marks · foundationCommon

Sodium has one electron in its outer shell. It loses this electron to achieve a full outer shell with 8 electrons. Losing one negative electron gives the sodium ion a positive charge, forming Na+.

  • Sodium loses one electron (from its outer shell) (1m)
  • This gives a full outer shell / stable electron configuration, forming a positive ion Na+ (1m)

A sodium atom has one electron in its outer shell (configuration 2,8,1). It loses this single electron to achieve a full outer shell (2,8), becoming Na+. Losing one negative electron gives the ion a net positive charge of +1. This is the driving force: atoms transfer electrons to achieve the stable configuration of the nearest noble gas.

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20.

Explain how an oxygen atom forms an O2- ion. [2 marks]

2 marks · foundationCommon

Oxygen is in Group 6 and has 6 electrons in its outer shell. It gains 2 electrons to fill its outer shell and achieve a stable electron configuration. Gaining 2 negative electrons gives oxygen a 2- charge, forming the O2- ion.

  • Oxygen gains 2 electrons (into its outer shell) (1m)
  • This gives a full outer shell with 8 electrons / forms O2- with a 2- charge (1m)

Oxygen is in Group 6 and has 6 electrons in its outer shell. It needs 2 more electrons to achieve a full outer shell of 8. By gaining 2 electrons, oxygen achieves a stable configuration and gains 2 units of negative charge, forming the O2- ion. Non-metals gain electrons in ionic bonding to form negative ions (anions).

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21.

A student dissolves a spatula of sodium chloride (table salt) in water for a school experiment. She finds that the salt dissolves completely and the resulting solution conducts electricity. Explain why sodium chloride dissolves in water and why the resulting solution conducts electricity. [2 marks]

2 marks · foundationCommon

Sodium chloride dissolves in water because water molecules are polar and attract the sodium and chloride ions at the surface of the ionic lattice, pulling them away from the structure. The ions disperse throughout the water. The solution conducts electricity because the dissolved sodium and chloride ions are free to move through the solution and carry electrical charge.

  • Dissolves because water molecules attract and separate the ions from the ionic lattice / lattice breaks apart in water (1m)
  • Conducts because ions are free to move in solution and carry electrical charge (1m)

Sodium chloride has a giant ionic lattice. When placed in water, the polar water molecules are attracted to the ions at the lattice surface and pull them away, breaking the lattice apart. The ions spread throughout the water. Once free to move in solution, the sodium ions (Na⁺) and chloride ions (Cl⁻) can carry electrical charge when a voltage is applied, so the solution conducts. This is why ionic compounds generally dissolve in water and conduct electricity when dissolved — but NOT in the solid state (where ions are fixed).

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22.

Explain why solid sodium chloride does not conduct electricity, but molten sodium chloride does. [2 marks]

2 marks · standardCommon

In solid sodium chloride, the ions are held in fixed positions in the lattice and cannot move, so the compound cannot conduct electricity. When molten, the ions are free to move and can carry charge through the liquid, so it can conduct electricity.

  • In solid NaCl, ions are in fixed positions and cannot move / ions are not free to move (1m)
  • When molten, ions are free to move and can carry charge / conduct electricity (1m)

Ionic bonding occurs between metals and non-metals. Metals lose electrons to form positive ions and non-metals gain electrons to form negative ions. Ionic compounds include: NaCl (Na+ and Cl-), MgO (Mg2+ and O2-), CaCl2 (Ca2+ and 2Cl-). Covalent compounds such as CO2, H2O, and CH4 are formed between non-metals and do not involve ion formation.

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23.

Using the diagram, describe what happens to the outer electrons of sodium and chlorine when an ionic bond forms between them. [2 marks]

2 marks · standardCommon

Sodium loses its one outer electron to chlorine, forming a positively charged sodium ion (Na+). Chlorine gains the electron into its outer shell, forming a negatively charged chloride ion (Cl-), which now has a full outer shell of eight electrons.

  • Sodium loses its outer electron / sodium loses 1 electron and becomes Na+ (a positive ion) (1m)
  • Chlorine gains the electron / chlorine gains 1 electron to fill its outer shell and becomes Cl- (a negative ion) (1m)

In ionic bonding, electrons are completely transferred. Sodium (2,8,1) loses its single outer electron to become Na+ — a positive ion with the stable configuration 2,8. Chlorine (2,8,7) gains that electron to become Cl- — a negative ion with the stable full outer shell configuration 2,8,8.

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24.

Explain why the Na+ ion has a positive charge using the diagram. [2 marks]

2 marks · standardCommon

The sodium atom starts with 11 protons and 11 electrons, so it is electrically neutral. When ionic bonding occurs, sodium loses one electron to chlorine (as shown by the arrow in the diagram). After losing the electron, sodium has 11 protons but only 10 electrons. Because there are more protons than electrons, there is a net positive charge, so the ion is called Na+.

  • Sodium loses an electron (to chlorine) during ionic bond formation / electron is transferred away from sodium (1m)
  • Na+ has more protons than electrons / 11 protons and 10 electrons / excess of positive charge / net positive charge (1m)

A neutral sodium atom has 11 protons and 11 electrons (equal positive and negative charges, so neutral overall). In ionic bonding, sodium transfers its outer electron to chlorine. After losing one electron, sodium has 11 protons but only 10 electrons. The excess of 1 proton over electrons gives a net charge of +1, which is why the ion is written as Na+.

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25.

Which combination of elements forms an ionic compound?

  • A. Sodium and chlorine
  • B. Carbon and hydrogen
  • C. Nitrogen and oxygen
  • D. Carbon and oxygen
1 mark · foundationCommon

Sodium is a metal and chlorine is a non-metal. Ionic bonding occurs between metals and non-metals. Sodium loses one electron to become Na+ and chlorine gains one electron to become Cl-. The other pairs are all non-metals, which form covalent bonds by sharing electrons.

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26.

When magnesium reacts with oxygen to form magnesium oxide, what happens to the magnesium atoms?

  • A. They gain two electrons to form Mg2-
  • B. They share two electrons with oxygen
  • C. They lose two electrons to form Mg2+
  • D. They gain one electron to form Mg+
1 mark · foundationCommon

Magnesium is in Group 2, so it has 2 electrons in its outer shell. It loses both electrons to achieve a full outer shell, forming the Mg2+ ion. The 2 electrons are transferred to oxygen, which gains them to form O2-.

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27.

What charge does a chlorine ion (Cl-) have, and how is it formed?

  • A. Positive charge, by losing one electron
  • B. Positive charge, by gaining one electron
  • C. Negative charge, by losing one electron
  • D. Negative charge, by gaining one electron
1 mark · foundationCommon

Chlorine is in Group 7 and has 7 outer electrons. It gains one electron to complete its outer shell (achieving 8 electrons), forming Cl-. Gaining an electron adds negative charge, so the ion is negatively charged. Non-metals gain electrons to form negative ions (anions).

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28.

What is the chemical formula of sodium chloride?

1 mark · foundationCommon
  • NaCl (1m)

Sodium forms Na+ (charge 1+) and chlorine forms Cl- (charge 1-). The charges balance in a 1:1 ratio, so the formula is NaCl. There is one sodium ion for every chloride ion in the lattice.

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29.

The diagram shows ionic bonding between sodium and chlorine. What does the curved red arrow between the two atoms represent?

  • A. A covalent bond being shared between sodium and chlorine
  • B. An electron being transferred from sodium to chlorine
  • C. Energy being released during the reaction
  • D. A proton moving from sodium to chlorine
1 mark · foundationCommon

In ionic bonding, electrons are transferred from a metal atom to a non-metal atom. Sodium has one electron in its outer shell which it transfers to chlorine. The red arrow in the diagram shows this electron transfer. This is not sharing (which occurs in covalent bonding), and protons never move between atoms in a chemical reaction.

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30.

How many electrons are transferred from sodium to chlorine in the diagram?

  • A. Two electrons
  • B. Seven electrons
  • C. One electron
  • D. Eight electrons
1 mark · foundationCommon

Sodium has one electron in its outer shell (electron configuration 2,8,1). Only this one outer electron is transferred to chlorine. This gives sodium a full outer shell (2,8) becoming Na+, and gives chlorine a full outer shell (2,8,8) becoming Cl-. Only one electron is ever transferred in this reaction.

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31.

Sodium chloride has a melting point of 801 °C. Which property of sodium chloride best explains this high melting point?

  • A. It has a giant ionic lattice with strong electrostatic forces of attraction between oppositely charged ions
  • B. It has metallic bonds between sodium atoms
  • C. It has weak intermolecular forces between small molecules
  • D. It has covalent bonds between sodium and chlorine atoms
1 mark · foundationCommon

Sodium chloride has a giant ionic lattice structure — a regular 3D arrangement of Na⁺ and Cl⁻ ions held together by strong electrostatic forces of attraction. These forces act in all directions throughout the lattice and require a large amount of energy to overcome, giving the compound a very high melting point of 801 °C. Metallic bonding applies to metals, not ionic compounds. Weak intermolecular forces describe simple molecular compounds which have LOW melting points. Sodium chloride does not contain covalent bonds.

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32.

What holds positive and negative ions together in an ionic compound?

  • A. Strong electrostatic attraction between oppositely charged ions
  • B. Shared electrons between the ions
  • C. Weak van der Waals forces between the ions
  • D. Covalent bonds formed by electron pairs
1 mark · standardCommon

Ionic bonds are the strong electrostatic attraction between oppositely charged ions (positive cations and negative anions). This electrostatic force acts in all directions, which is why ions arrange into a regular giant ionic lattice. This strong attraction is why ionic compounds have high melting points.

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33.

Calcium is in Group 2. What ion does calcium form?

  • A. Ca2-
  • B. Ca+
  • C. Ca3+
  • D. Ca2+
1 mark · standardCommon

Calcium is in Group 2, so it has 2 electrons in its outer shell. To achieve a stable full outer shell, it loses both electrons. Losing 2 electrons removes 2 negative charges, leaving the ion with 2 more protons than electrons, giving a 2+ charge. This rule applies across Group 2: all Group 2 metals form 2+ ions.

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34.

Calcium forms Ca2+ ions and chlorine forms Cl- ions. What is the correct formula for calcium chloride?

  • A. CaCl
  • B. CaCl2
  • C. Ca2Cl
  • D. Ca2Cl2
1 mark · standardCommon

In an ionic compound, the total positive charge must equal the total negative charge. Ca2+ has a 2+ charge and Cl- has a 1- charge. To balance, you need 2 Cl- ions for every 1 Ca2+ ion: (+2) + 2(-1) = 0. This gives the formula CaCl2. This is why the formula is not simplified — CaCl2 accurately shows the 1:2 ratio of Ca to Cl.

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35.

Magnesium forms Mg2+ ions and oxygen forms O2- ions. What is the formula of magnesium oxide?

1 mark · standardCommon
  • MgO (charges balance: 2+ and 2- in 1:1 ratio) (1m)

Mg2+ has a 2+ charge and O2- has a 2- charge. These equal and opposite charges balance in a 1:1 ratio: (+2) + (-2) = 0. So the formula is MgO — one magnesium ion for every oxygen ion.

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Ionic Compounds

Common20
1.

A chemist tests two white ionic solids, substance X and substance Y. The results are shown below: - Substance X: melting point 801 °C; conducts electricity when molten; insoluble in water; brittle - Substance Y: melting point 2852 °C; conducts electricity when molten; insoluble in water; brittle Using your knowledge of giant ionic lattices, explain the differences and similarities in the properties of substances X and Y. Suggest why substance Y has a higher melting point than substance X.

6 marks · higherCommon

Both substances X and Y are ionic compounds with a giant ionic lattice structure. In both compounds the ions are arranged in a regular three-dimensional pattern and are held together by strong electrostatic forces of attraction acting in all directions. This explains their shared properties: both are brittle because a force causes layers of ions to slide and like charges align next to each other, creating strong repulsion that shatters the crystal; both conduct electricity when molten because the ions are free to move and carry electrical charge; and both are solids at room temperature with high melting points due to the large amount of energy needed to overcome the strong electrostatic forces. Substance Y has a much higher melting point than substance X. This is because the ions in substance Y carry higher charges than those in substance X. Higher ionic charges produce stronger electrostatic forces of attraction throughout the lattice. Therefore an even greater amount of energy is needed to overcome these stronger forces, resulting in a much higher melting point. Substance Y is likely to be magnesium oxide (MgO, with Mg2+ and O2- ions) and substance X is likely to be sodium chloride (NaCl, with Na+ and Cl- ions).

  • Both have a giant ionic lattice structure with ions in a regular 3D arrangement [1 mark] (1m)
  • Both held by strong electrostatic forces of attraction between oppositely charged ions acting in all directions [1 mark] (1m)
  • Both brittle: force causes planes to slide, like charges align, strong repulsion shatters crystal [1 mark] (1m)
  • Both conduct when molten: ions are free to move and carry electrical charge [1 mark] (1m)
  • Y has higher ionic charges than X [1 mark] (1m)
  • Higher ionic charges produce stronger electrostatic forces, requiring more energy to overcome, giving a higher melting point [1 mark] (1m)

Both substances X and Y are ionic compounds with giant ionic lattices, explaining their shared properties (brittle, conduct when molten, high melting points). Substance Y has a much higher melting point because its ions carry higher charges, producing stronger electrostatic forces that require more energy to overcome. Substance Y is likely MgO (Mg2+ and O2-) and X is likely NaCl (Na+ and Cl-).

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2.

Explain why the melting point of magnesium oxide (MgO) is much higher than that of sodium chloride (NaCl). Refer to the charges on the ions in your answer.

4 marks · higherCommon

Both compounds have a giant ionic lattice with ions held together by strong electrostatic forces of attraction acting in all directions. In magnesium oxide, the ions carry higher charges: Mg2+ and O2-. In sodium chloride, the ions carry lower charges: Na+ and Cl-. Higher charges on the ions produce stronger electrostatic forces. Therefore more energy is required to overcome the forces in magnesium oxide, giving it a much higher melting point.

  • Both have a giant ionic lattice held by electrostatic forces (of attraction) (1m)
  • MgO has ions with higher charges: Mg2+ and O2- (2+ and 2-) (1m)
  • Higher charges produce stronger electrostatic forces (of attraction) (1m)
  • More energy is required to overcome the stronger forces, so MgO has a higher melting point (1m)

Both MgO and NaCl have giant ionic lattices held by strong electrostatic forces. MgO has doubly charged ions (Mg2+ and O2-), while NaCl has singly charged ions (Na+ and Cl-). Higher ionic charges produce stronger electrostatic forces throughout the lattice. More energy is therefore required to overcome the forces in MgO, giving it a much higher melting point (2852°C vs 801°C for NaCl).

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3.

Describe and explain the properties of sodium chloride that arise from its giant ionic lattice structure.

4 marks · higherCommon

Sodium chloride has a giant ionic lattice structure in which sodium ions (Na+) and chloride ions (Cl-) are arranged in a regular three-dimensional pattern. The ions are held together by strong electrostatic forces of attraction acting in all directions. This gives sodium chloride a high melting point because a large amount of energy is needed to overcome these forces. Sodium chloride is also brittle: if a force is applied, planes of ions slide so that like charges align next to each other, and the strong repulsion between them causes the crystal to shatter. In the solid state, the ions are fixed in position and sodium chloride does not conduct electricity. When molten or dissolved in water, the ions are free to move and can carry electrical charge, so it conducts electricity.

  • Giant ionic lattice: ions in regular 3D arrangement held by strong electrostatic forces (1m)
  • High melting point: large energy needed to overcome strong forces (1m)
  • Brittle: layers shift under force, like charges align, strong repulsion causes crystal to shatter (1m)
  • Does not conduct when solid (ions fixed); does conduct when molten or dissolved (ions free to move and carry charge) (1m)

Sodium chloride (NaCl) has a giant ionic lattice with Na+ and Cl- in a regular arrangement held by strong electrostatic forces. This gives: high melting point (large energy needed to overcome strong forces); brittleness (force causes planes to slide, like charges align and repel, shattering the crystal); non-conduction as solid (ions fixed); conduction when molten or dissolved (ions free to move and carry charge).

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4.

Explain why ionic compounds have high melting points.

3 marks · standardCommon

Ionic compounds have a giant ionic lattice structure. The positive and negative ions are held together by strong electrostatic forces of attraction acting in all directions. A large amount of energy is needed to overcome these strong forces and separate the ions, so ionic compounds have high melting points.

  • Ionic compounds have a giant ionic lattice structure (ions arranged in a regular pattern) (1m)
  • Strong electrostatic forces of attraction between oppositely charged ions (acting in all directions) (1m)
  • A large amount of energy is needed to overcome these forces, so melting points are high (1m)

Ionic compounds have a giant ionic lattice structure where the ions are held together by strong electrostatic forces of attraction acting in all directions. A large amount of energy is needed to overcome these strong forces to separate the ions and melt the compound. This is why ionic compounds consistently have high melting points.

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5.

Explain why potassium bromide solution conducts electricity but solid potassium bromide does not.

3 marks · standardCommon

When potassium bromide is dissolved in water, the ions are free to move through the solution and can carry electrical charge. In the solid state, the potassium and bromide ions are held in fixed positions in the giant ionic lattice and cannot move, so charge cannot be transported and the solid does not conduct electricity.

  • In solution, ions are free to move (through the water/solution) (1m)
  • Moving ions carry (electrical) charge (1m)
  • In the solid, ions are fixed/held in position in the (giant ionic) lattice and cannot move (1m)

When potassium bromide dissolves in water, the K+ and Br- ions are free to move through the solution and can carry electrical charge — so it conducts. In the solid state, the potassium and bromide ions are fixed in the giant ionic lattice and cannot move, so charge cannot be transported and the solid does not conduct electricity.

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6.

Explain why ionic compounds are brittle.

3 marks · standardCommon

When a force is applied to an ionic crystal, layers of ions are forced to shift or slide past each other. This brings ions of the same charge next to each other. Like charges repel each other strongly, which causes the crystal to shatter or crack, making ionic compounds brittle.

  • A force causes layers/planes of ions to shift/slide (1m)
  • Like charges (same charges) become aligned next to each other (1m)
  • Like charges repel (strongly), causing the crystal to shatter/crack/break (1m)

When a force is applied to an ionic crystal, layers of ions shift or slide relative to each other. This causes ions of the same charge to end up next to each other. The strong repulsion between like charges causes the crystal to crack and shatter. This is why ionic compounds are brittle — they cannot deform like metals because there are no delocalised electrons to allow layer sliding.

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7.

A student says: 'Calcium chloride conducts electricity in every state.' Evaluate this statement.

3 marks · higherCommon

The statement is incorrect. Calcium chloride does conduct electricity when molten or dissolved in water because in these states the calcium and chloride ions are free to move and carry electrical charge. However, in the solid state the ions are held in fixed positions in the giant ionic lattice and cannot move, so solid calcium chloride does not conduct electricity.

  • Statement is incorrect / partially correct — solid calcium chloride does not conduct electricity (1m)
  • When molten or dissolved in water, ions are free to move and carry charge (1m)
  • In the solid state, ions are held in fixed positions in the (giant ionic) lattice and cannot move (1m)

The statement is incorrect. Solid calcium chloride does NOT conduct electricity because its ions are locked in fixed positions in the giant ionic lattice and cannot move to carry charge. When molten or dissolved in water, the Ca2+ and Cl- ions are free to move and can carry electrical charge, so it conducts in those states only.

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8.

Compare the structure and bonding of a giant ionic lattice with that of a simple molecular compound such as hydrogen chloride (HCl). Include reference to how their structures relate to their melting points.

3 marks · higherCommon

A giant ionic lattice such as sodium chloride contains positive and negative ions arranged in a regular three-dimensional pattern. These ions are held together by strong electrostatic forces of attraction acting in all directions, so a large amount of energy is required to separate them and the melting point is high. Hydrogen chloride is a simple molecular compound made up of small HCl molecules held together by weak intermolecular forces. Only a small amount of energy is needed to overcome these weak forces, so hydrogen chloride has a low melting point.

  • Giant ionic lattice: ions in a regular 3D arrangement, held by strong electrostatic forces; high melting point because large energy needed to overcome strong forces (2m)
  • Simple molecular (HCl): small molecules, weak intermolecular forces between molecules; low melting point because little energy needed to overcome weak forces (1m)

A giant ionic lattice such as NaCl has ions in a regular 3D arrangement held by strong electrostatic forces in all directions, giving a high melting point (large energy to overcome forces). Hydrogen chloride (HCl) is a simple molecular compound with small molecules held together by weak intermolecular forces. Only a small amount of energy is needed to overcome these weak forces, so HCl has a very low melting point.

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9.

Describe the structure of a giant ionic lattice.

2 marks · foundationCommon

A giant ionic lattice consists of positive and negative ions arranged in a regular repeating pattern in three dimensions. The ions are held together by strong electrostatic forces of attraction acting in all directions.

  • Positive and negative ions arranged in a regular (repeating/ordered) pattern or 3D arrangement (1m)
  • Ions held together by strong electrostatic forces of attraction (between oppositely charged ions) (1m)

A giant ionic lattice consists of positive and negative ions arranged in a regular, repeating three-dimensional pattern. The ions are held in position by strong electrostatic forces of attraction acting between all oppositely charged ions in all directions. This regular, extended structure is why ionic compounds are crystalline solids at room temperature.

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10.

State two properties of a giant ionic lattice structure.

2 marks · foundationCommon

A giant ionic lattice contains positive and negative ions arranged in a regular pattern. The ions are held together by strong electrostatic forces of attraction.

  • Ions (positive and negative) arranged in a regular/repeating/ordered pattern (3D arrangement) (1m)
  • Strong electrostatic forces of attraction between oppositely charged ions (1m)

A giant ionic lattice has two key properties: (1) positive and negative ions arranged in a regular, ordered three-dimensional pattern; and (2) strong electrostatic forces of attraction between the oppositely charged ions acting in all directions throughout the lattice.

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11.

Explain why magnesium oxide conducts electricity when it is molten but not when it is solid.

2 marks · standardCommon

When molten, the ions in magnesium oxide are free to move and can carry electrical charge through the liquid. In the solid state, the ions are held in fixed positions in the giant ionic lattice and cannot move, so charge cannot be carried and it does not conduct electricity.

  • When molten, ions are free to move (and carry electrical charge) (1m)
  • In the solid state, ions are fixed in position (in the lattice) and cannot move (1m)

When magnesium oxide melts, the ions gain enough energy to overcome the electrostatic forces holding them in the lattice and become free to move. These mobile ions can carry electrical charge, so molten MgO conducts. In the solid state, the ions are fixed in the lattice and cannot move, so charge cannot be transported and solid MgO does not conduct.

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12.

Explain why many ionic compounds are soluble in water.

2 marks · standardCommon

Water molecules are polar and have partially charged regions. They attract and surround the individual ions on the surface of the ionic compound, pulling them away from the lattice into solution. The ions spread throughout the water and the ionic compound dissolves.

  • Water molecules are polar / have partially charged regions that attract the ions (1m)
  • Water molecules surround the ions and pull them away from the lattice into solution (1m)

Water molecules are polar — they have a partial positive charge (delta+) on the hydrogen atoms and a partial negative charge (delta-) on the oxygen atom. These charged regions attract the ions at the surface of the ionic lattice, pulling them away one by one and surrounding them with water molecules. This is why many ionic compounds dissolve in water.

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13.

What type of structure is found in all ionic compounds?

  • A. Giant ionic lattice
  • B. Simple molecular
  • C. Giant covalent
  • D. Metallic lattice
1 mark · foundationCommon

Ionic compounds form a giant ionic lattice — a regular three-dimensional arrangement of alternating positive and negative ions held together by strong electrostatic forces in all directions.

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14.

Why do ionic compounds have high melting points?

  • A. They have weak covalent bonds between atoms
  • B. They have strong electrostatic forces between oppositely charged ions
  • C. They have lots of delocalised electrons
  • D. They have weak intermolecular forces between molecules
1 mark · foundationCommon

Ionic compounds have high melting points because the oppositely charged ions are held together by strong electrostatic forces of attraction in all directions. A large amount of energy is needed to overcome these forces and separate the ions.

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15.

Which statement correctly describes the electrical conductivity of sodium chloride (NaCl)?

  • A. It conducts electricity when solid but not when molten
  • B. It does not conduct electricity in any state
  • C. It conducts electricity when molten or dissolved in water but not when solid
  • D. It always conducts electricity regardless of state
1 mark · foundationCommon

Sodium chloride conducts electricity only when molten or dissolved in water because in these states the ions are free to move and carry charge. In the solid state the ions are held in fixed positions in the lattice and cannot move, so it does not conduct.

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16.

State why solid sodium chloride does not conduct electricity.

1 mark · foundationCommon
  • Ions are held in fixed positions (in the lattice) and cannot move to carry electric charge (1m)

In the solid state, the ions in sodium chloride are locked in fixed positions within the giant ionic lattice. They cannot move from place to place, so they cannot carry electrical charge through the material.

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17.

Give the chemical formula of calcium fluoride, an ionic compound formed between calcium (Ca2+) and fluoride (F-) ions.

1 mark · foundationCommon
  • CaF2 — correct formula balancing one Ca2+ ion with two F- ions (1m)

Calcium forms a 2+ ion (Ca2+) and fluoride forms a 1- ion (F-). To balance the charges, one calcium ion must combine with two fluoride ions, giving the formula CaF2.

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18.

Ionic compounds are brittle. Which explanation best describes why they shatter when a force is applied?

  • A. The covalent bonds break easily under pressure
  • B. The delocalised electrons are forced out, removing the bonding
  • C. Layers of ions shift so that like charges align, causing strong repulsion
  • D. A force causes planes of ions to slide so that like charges line up, creating repulsion that shatters the crystal
1 mark · standardCommon

When a force is applied to an ionic crystal, planes of ions shift slightly. This brings ions of the same charge next to each other. The strong repulsion between like charges causes the crystal to crack and shatter, making ionic compounds brittle.

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19.

A student has four solid substances: sodium chloride, iron, sulfur, and magnesium oxide. Which two of these are most likely to dissolve in water?

  • A. Sodium chloride and magnesium oxide
  • B. Iron and sulfur
  • C. Sodium chloride and iron
  • D. Sulfur and magnesium oxide
1 mark · standardCommon

Ionic compounds are generally soluble in water because the polar water molecules can surround and separate the ions. Sodium chloride (NaCl) is an ionic compound and dissolves readily. Magnesium oxide (MgO) is also ionic, though less soluble due to its higher charge density. Iron (metallic) and sulfur (simple molecular, non-polar) do not dissolve in water.

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20.

In a giant ionic lattice, the electrostatic forces of attraction act between oppositely charged ions in which directions?

  • A. Only vertically
  • B. Only horizontally
  • C. Only between adjacent ions
  • D. In all directions throughout the lattice
1 mark · standardCommon

The electrostatic forces of attraction in a giant ionic lattice act in all directions. Each ion is attracted to all its neighbouring oppositely charged ions simultaneously. This three-dimensional network of strong forces is why ionic compounds have high melting points and are hard.

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Covalent Bonding

Common25
1.

Describe and explain covalent bonding. In your answer, include: the definition of a covalent bond, why atoms form covalent bonds, the difference between single, double, and triple bonds, and examples of molecules that contain each type of bond.

6 marks · higherCommon

A covalent bond is a shared pair of electrons between two non-metal atoms. Atoms form covalent bonds to achieve a full outer electron shell, which makes them more stable. In each covalent bond, both atoms share electrons — they each contribute one electron to the shared pair, and both atoms count the shared electrons as part of their outer shell. A single bond consists of one shared pair of electrons, as in hydrogen (H₂) or hydrogen chloride (HCl). A double bond consists of two shared pairs of electrons, as in oxygen (O₂). A triple bond consists of three shared pairs of electrons, as in nitrogen (N₂). The number of bonds an atom forms depends on how many electrons it needs to fill its outer shell. For Group 4-7 non-metals, the number of bonds equals 8 minus the group number. For example, carbon (Group 4) forms 4 bonds, oxygen (Group 6) forms 2 bonds, and chlorine (Group 7) forms 1 bond. Atoms also have lone pairs — pairs of outer electrons not involved in bonding.

  • A covalent bond is a shared pair of electrons between two non-metal atoms (1m)
  • Atoms form covalent bonds to achieve a full outer electron shell / to become more stable (1m)
  • A single bond = one shared pair; correct example given (e.g. H₂, HCl, Cl₂) (1m)
  • A double bond = two shared pairs; correct example given (e.g. O₂) (1m)
  • A triple bond = three shared pairs; correct example given (e.g. N₂) (1m)
  • Number of bonds related to electrons needed for full outer shell (accept: 8 minus group number; accept: atoms also have lone pairs not involved in bonding) (1m)

A single bond is one shared pair of electrons; a double bond is two shared pairs of electrons; a triple bond is three shared pairs. N2 has a triple bond (N-triple bond-N). O2 has a double bond (O=O). Multiple bonds are shorter and stronger than single bonds between the same atoms.

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2.

Explain how the number of covalent bonds formed by a non-metal atom is related to its group number in the periodic table. Use examples from at least two different elements.

4 marks · higherCommon

The number of covalent bonds a non-metal atom forms equals 8 minus its group number. This is because each atom needs to gain enough electrons to fill its outer shell to 8. An atom in Group 6, such as oxygen, has 6 outer electrons and needs 2 more, so it forms 2 covalent bonds. An atom in Group 7, such as chlorine, has 7 outer electrons and needs 1 more, so it forms 1 covalent bond. An atom in Group 4, such as carbon, has 4 outer electrons and needs 4 more, so it forms 4 covalent bonds.

  • Number of bonds = 8 minus group number (or equivalent statement that an atom forms bonds equal to the number of electrons needed) (1m)
  • This is because each atom needs to achieve a full outer shell of 8 electrons (1m)
  • Correct example 1 with group number, outer electrons, and bonds stated (e.g. oxygen Group 6, 6 outer electrons, forms 2 bonds) (1m)
  • Correct example 2 with group number, outer electrons, and bonds stated (e.g. nitrogen Group 5, 5 outer electrons, forms 3 bonds) (1m)

Simple covalent molecules do not conduct electricity because they contain no charged particles — there are no free electrons or ions. The molecules are electrically neutral and do not move to carry charge. This contrasts with ionic compounds (which conduct when molten/dissolved due to free ions) and metals (which conduct due to delocalised electrons).

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3.

Compare and contrast ionic bonding and covalent bonding, including the types of atoms involved, the movement of electrons, and the particles formed.

4 marks · higherCommon

Ionic bonding occurs between a metal and a non-metal, while covalent bonding occurs between two non-metal atoms. In ionic bonding, electrons are transferred from the metal atom to the non-metal atom, forming oppositely charged ions. In covalent bonding, electrons are shared between the atoms as shared pairs — no ions are formed. Ionic bonding produces a giant ionic lattice of oppositely charged ions, while covalent bonding produces individual molecules.

  • Ionic bonding involves a metal and a non-metal; covalent bonding involves two non-metal atoms (1m)
  • Ionic bonding involves transfer of electrons; covalent bonding involves sharing of electrons (shared pairs) (1m)
  • Ionic bonding forms ions (positive and negative); covalent bonding does NOT form ions — it forms molecules (1m)
  • Ionic compounds form a giant lattice; covalent compounds form discrete molecules (1m)

HCl contains one shared pair of electrons between H and Cl — a single covalent bond. H2O has two O-H single bonds (and 2 lone pairs on oxygen). NH3 has three N-H single bonds (and 1 lone pair on nitrogen). All are simple covalent molecules with weak intermolecular forces between molecules, giving low melting and boiling points.

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4.

Describe the covalent bonding in a water molecule (H₂O), including the number of bonds formed and any lone pairs present.

3 marks · standardCommon

Water contains two O-H covalent bonds. Oxygen forms two single covalent bonds, one with each hydrogen atom. Each bond consists of one shared pair of electrons. Oxygen also has two lone pairs of electrons that are not involved in bonding. This gives oxygen a full outer shell of 8 electrons.

  • Water contains two O-H covalent bonds / oxygen forms two single covalent bonds (1m)
  • Each bond is a shared pair of electrons (one from oxygen, one from hydrogen) (1m)
  • Oxygen has two lone pairs of electrons not involved in bonding (1m)

Water (H2O) has two O-H covalent bonds. Oxygen forms one single covalent bond with each hydrogen atom; each bond consists of one shared pair of electrons. Oxygen also has two lone pairs of electrons not involved in bonding. This gives oxygen a complete outer shell of 8 electrons (4 pairs total: 2 bonding, 2 lone).

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5.

Describe the covalent bonding in ammonia (NH₃), including the number of covalent bonds and the lone pair on nitrogen.

3 marks · standardCommon

Ammonia contains three N-H covalent bonds. Nitrogen forms three single covalent bonds, one with each hydrogen atom. Each bond is a shared pair of electrons. The nitrogen atom also has one lone pair of electrons that is not involved in bonding, giving nitrogen a full outer shell of 8 electrons.

  • Ammonia contains three N-H covalent bonds / nitrogen forms three single covalent bonds (1m)
  • Each bond is a shared pair of electrons (one from nitrogen, one from hydrogen) (1m)
  • Nitrogen has one lone pair of electrons not involved in bonding (1m)

Ammonia (NH3) has three N-H single covalent bonds. Each bond consists of one shared pair of electrons between nitrogen and a hydrogen atom. Nitrogen also has one lone pair of electrons not involved in bonding. This gives nitrogen a full outer shell of 8 electrons (3 bonding pairs + 1 lone pair).

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6.

Describe the covalent bonding in a chlorine molecule (Cl₂), including the type of bond formed and the lone pairs present on each chlorine atom.

3 marks · standardCommon

Chlorine (Cl₂) contains one single covalent bond between the two chlorine atoms. This bond consists of one shared pair of electrons. Each chlorine atom also has three lone pairs of electrons that are not involved in bonding, giving each chlorine atom a full outer shell of 8 electrons.

  • One single covalent bond between the two chlorine atoms (1m)
  • The bond consists of one shared pair of electrons (1m)
  • Each chlorine atom has three lone pairs of electrons not involved in bonding (1m)

Cl2 has one single covalent bond — one shared pair of electrons between the two chlorine atoms. Each chlorine atom also has 3 lone pairs of electrons not involved in bonding. Each chlorine therefore has 8 electrons in its outer shell (1 bonding pair + 3 lone pairs = 8 electrons).

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7.

Oxygen forms a double bond in O₂. Explain what a double bond is and why oxygen needs to form a double bond rather than a single bond to achieve a full outer shell.

3 marks · higherCommon

A double bond consists of two shared pairs of electrons between the same two atoms. Oxygen is in Group 6 and has 6 outer electrons, meaning it needs 2 more electrons to achieve a full outer shell of 8. By sharing two pairs of electrons with the other oxygen atom, each oxygen gains 2 extra electrons in its outer shell, completing it. A single bond would only provide one extra electron, leaving each oxygen with only 7 outer electrons — not a full shell.

  • A double bond consists of two shared pairs of electrons between two atoms (1m)
  • Oxygen has 6 outer electrons and needs 2 more to achieve a full outer shell of 8 (1m)
  • A single bond would only give each oxygen atom one extra electron (not enough for a full outer shell) (1m)

Carbon dioxide (CO2) has two C=O double bonds. A double bond consists of two shared pairs of electrons (4 electrons) between carbon and each oxygen. Carbon forms two double bonds to complete its outer shell (4 shared pairs = 8 electrons). Each oxygen has 2 lone pairs in addition to the shared pairs.

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8.

Describe the bonding in a nitrogen molecule (N₂), explaining why a triple bond is formed and the electron arrangement around each nitrogen atom.

3 marks · higherCommon

Nitrogen has 5 outer electrons and needs 3 more to achieve a full outer shell of 8. Each nitrogen atom contributes 3 electrons to form three shared pairs between the two atoms, creating a triple bond. Each nitrogen atom also retains one lone pair of non-bonding electrons. This gives each nitrogen 8 electrons in total in its outer shell.

  • Nitrogen has 5 outer electrons and needs 3 more for a full outer shell of 8 / nitrogen forms a triple bond because it needs to share 3 pairs (1m)
  • The triple bond consists of three shared pairs of electrons between the two nitrogen atoms (1m)
  • Each nitrogen atom has one lone pair of electrons not involved in bonding (1m)

Simple covalent molecules have strong covalent bonds within the molecule but only weak intermolecular forces (van der Waals/London dispersion forces) between different molecules. Only a small amount of energy is needed to overcome these weak forces between molecules (NOT to break the strong covalent bonds themselves), so simple molecular substances have low melting and boiling points.

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9.

Explain why covalent compounds typically have low melting points using the diagram. [3 marks]

3 marks · higherCommon

Covalent compounds form simple molecules (like H2 as shown). The covalent bonds within each molecule are strong, but the forces between separate molecules (intermolecular forces) are very weak. When a covalent compound melts, it is the weak intermolecular forces between molecules that are overcome — not the strong covalent bonds within them. Because these intermolecular forces are weak, only a small amount of energy is required to separate the molecules, giving simple covalent compounds low melting points.

  • Covalent compounds form simple molecules (not giant structures) / the diagram shows individual molecules (1m)
  • Intermolecular forces between molecules are weak / forces between separate molecules are weak (1m)
  • Melting only requires overcoming the weak intermolecular forces (not breaking covalent bonds), so little energy is needed / low melting point (1m)

Simple covalent molecules (like H2 shown) have strong covalent bonds WITHIN each molecule, but only weak intermolecular forces BETWEEN molecules. When the substance melts, only the intermolecular forces are overcome — the covalent bonds inside molecules remain intact. Because the intermolecular forces are weak, very little energy is needed to separate the molecules, resulting in low melting points. (Note: giant covalent structures like diamond are an exception — they have high melting points because strong covalent bonds must be broken throughout.)

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10.

Define a covalent bond.

2 marks · foundationCommon

A covalent bond is a shared pair of electrons between two non-metal atoms. Both atoms are attracted to the shared electrons, holding the atoms together.

  • A shared pair of electrons (between two atoms) (1m)
  • Occurs between non-metal atoms (accept: atoms share electrons to achieve full outer shells) (1m)

A covalent bond is a shared pair of electrons between two non-metal atoms. Each atom contributes one electron to the shared pair. Both atoms are attracted to the shared electrons, holding them together. This differs from ionic bonding (electron transfer) and metallic bonding (delocalised electron sea).

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11.

Explain why atoms form covalent bonds by sharing electrons.

2 marks · foundationCommon

Atoms share electrons to achieve a full outer electron shell, which makes them more stable. By sharing a pair of electrons, both atoms can count the shared pair as part of their outer shell.

  • To achieve a full outer electron shell (1m)
  • This makes the atoms more stable (accept: lowers their energy) (1m)

Atoms form covalent bonds to achieve a full outer electron shell, which is the most stable arrangement (matching the electron configuration of the nearest noble gas). By sharing electrons, both atoms can count the shared pair as part of their own outer shell, achieving stability without a full electron transfer.

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12.

A student draws a dot-and-cross diagram for hydrogen chloride (HCl). Describe what a dot-and-cross diagram shows and how the electrons are arranged in HCl.

2 marks · foundationCommon

A dot-and-cross diagram shows the outer shell electrons of each atom using dots for one atom and crosses for the other. In HCl, there is one shared pair of electrons between the hydrogen and chlorine atoms, and chlorine has three lone pairs of electrons not involved in bonding.

  • A dot-and-cross diagram shows the outer shell electrons from each atom using different symbols (dots and crosses) (1m)
  • HCl has one shared pair of electrons (the covalent bond) and three lone pairs on the chlorine atom (1m)

The number of covalent bonds an atom forms equals the number of electrons it needs to fill its outer shell. Hydrogen (1 outer electron) forms 1 bond. Oxygen (6 outer electrons) forms 2 bonds. Nitrogen (5 outer electrons) forms 3 bonds. Carbon (4 outer electrons) forms 4 bonds. This follows from their group numbers in the periodic table.

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13.

Explain the difference between a bonding pair and a lone pair of electrons in a covalent molecule.

2 marks · standardCommon

A bonding pair is a pair of electrons that is shared between two atoms and forms a covalent bond. A lone pair is a pair of electrons that belongs to one atom only and is not involved in bonding.

  • A bonding pair is a pair of electrons shared between two atoms (forming a covalent bond) (1m)
  • A lone pair is a pair of electrons on one atom that is not shared / not involved in bonding (1m)

A bonding pair is a pair of electrons shared between two atoms — these shared electrons form the covalent bond and hold the atoms together. A lone pair is a pair of electrons that belongs to only one atom and is not shared with another atom. Lone pairs do not contribute to bonding but affect molecular shape.

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14.

Using the diagram, describe how a covalent bond forms between two hydrogen atoms. [2 marks]

2 marks · standardCommon

Each hydrogen atom has one electron in its outer shell. The two hydrogen atoms come close together and each contributes one electron to form a shared pair of electrons between them. Both atomic nuclei attract the shared pair of electrons, holding the atoms together. This shared pair of electrons gives each hydrogen atom a full outer shell (equivalent to two electrons), which is the stable configuration of helium.

  • Each hydrogen atom contributes one electron / a pair of electrons is shared between the two hydrogen atoms (1m)
  • Both nuclei attract the shared pair / each atom achieves a full outer shell / stable electron configuration (1m)

Covalent bond formation: each hydrogen atom (electron configuration: 1) has one electron in its only shell. The atoms approach, each contributing one electron to form a shared pair between them. The positive nuclei of both atoms attract this shared electron pair — this electrostatic attraction is the covalent bond. With the shared pair, each hydrogen has 2 electrons associated with it (a full first shell), giving the stable helium configuration.

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15.

Which of the following best describes a covalent bond?

  • A. A shared pair of electrons between two non-metal atoms
  • B. The transfer of electrons from a metal to a non-metal
  • C. The electrostatic attraction between oppositely charged ions
  • D. A sea of delocalised electrons surrounding positive metal ions
1 mark · foundationCommon

A covalent bond is formed when two non-metal atoms each contribute one electron to make a shared pair. Both atoms are attracted to the shared electrons, holding them together. This is different from ionic bonding (transfer of electrons) and metallic bonding (delocalised sea of electrons).

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16.

Covalent bonding typically occurs between atoms of which type?

  • A. A metal and a non-metal
  • B. Two metal atoms
  • C. Two non-metal atoms
  • D. A metal and a noble gas
1 mark · foundationCommon

Covalent bonds form between non-metal atoms. Non-metals need to gain electrons to achieve a full outer shell, so they share electrons with each other rather than transferring them. Metals and non-metals form ionic bonds instead.

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17.

How many covalent bonds does a methane molecule (CH₄) contain?

1 mark · foundationCommon
  • Methane contains 4 covalent bonds (one C-H bond per hydrogen atom) (1m)

Carbon is in Group 4 and has 4 outer electrons. It needs 4 more to achieve a full outer shell of 8. Each of the 4 hydrogen atoms shares one pair of electrons with the carbon, forming 4 single C-H covalent bonds.

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18.

What is shared between atoms in the covalent bond shown in the diagram?

  • A. Protons from each atom
  • B. A pair of electrons
  • C. Neutrons from the nucleus
  • D. A single electron from one atom only
1 mark · foundationCommon

In a covalent bond, a pair of electrons is shared between the two bonding atoms. The diagram shows each hydrogen atom contributing one electron to the shared region, creating a shared pair. Both atoms attract this shared pair of electrons using electrostatic forces, holding the atoms together. This is completely different from ionic bonding where electrons are fully transferred.

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19.

State the number of shared pairs of electrons in the molecule shown in the diagram. [1 mark]

1 mark · foundationCommon

There is one shared pair of electrons in the H2 molecule shown. This single shared pair forms a single covalent bond between the two hydrogen atoms.

  • One shared pair of electrons / 1 / single pair / one covalent bond (1m)

The H2 molecule shown in the dot-and-cross diagram has one shared pair of electrons between the two hydrogen atoms (one electron from each). This forms a single covalent bond. Each hydrogen atom now has 2 electrons associated with it — a full outer shell matching the noble gas helium.

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20.

How many covalent bonds are present in a molecule of nitrogen (N₂)?

  • A. One single bond
  • B. One triple bond
  • C. Two double bonds
  • D. Three single bonds
1 mark · standardCommon

Nitrogen is in Group 5, so each nitrogen atom has 5 outer electrons and needs 3 more to fill its outer shell. Each nitrogen atom contributes 3 electrons to form 3 shared pairs — this is a triple bond (N≡N). The remaining 2 electrons on each atom form one lone pair each.

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21.

In a water molecule (H₂O), oxygen forms two covalent bonds with hydrogen. How many lone pairs of electrons does the oxygen atom have?

  • A. 0 lone pairs
  • B. 1 lone pair
  • C. 3 lone pairs
  • D. 2 lone pairs
1 mark · standardCommon

Oxygen has 6 outer electrons. It forms 2 covalent bonds with the two hydrogen atoms, using 2 of its outer electrons in bonding pairs. The remaining 4 outer electrons form 2 lone pairs. So oxygen in water has 2 bonding pairs and 2 lone pairs, giving a total of 8 electrons around it.

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22.

Oxygen (O₂) contains a double bond. Which statement correctly describes the electron arrangement in a double bond?

  • A. Two shared pairs of electrons between the two oxygen atoms
  • B. One shared pair of electrons between the two oxygen atoms
  • C. Three shared pairs of electrons between the two oxygen atoms
  • D. Four shared pairs of electrons between the two oxygen atoms
1 mark · standardCommon

A double bond consists of two shared pairs of electrons (four electrons total) between two atoms. In O₂, each oxygen atom has 6 outer electrons. Two electrons from each atom (4 total) form 2 shared pairs — the double bond. Each oxygen then has 2 lone pairs, giving it 8 electrons in total and a full outer shell.

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23.

Why do non-metal atoms form covalent bonds by sharing electrons rather than transferring them?

  • A. Because non-metals have too many electrons to transfer
  • B. Because non-metals are better conductors of electricity than metals
  • C. Because sharing electrons allows both atoms to achieve full outer electron shells
  • D. Because non-metals have lower melting points and cannot lose electrons
1 mark · standardCommon

Atoms become more stable when they have a full outer electron shell (usually 8 electrons, or 2 for hydrogen). Non-metals already have many outer electrons and it would require too much energy to remove them to form positive ions. By sharing electrons, both atoms can count the shared pair as part of their own outer shell, achieving the full shell without a full transfer.

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24.

Ammonia (NH₃) has nitrogen forming three covalent bonds. How many lone pairs of electrons does the nitrogen atom have in ammonia?

1 mark · standardCommon
  • Nitrogen in ammonia has 1 lone pair of electrons (1m)

Nitrogen has 5 outer electrons. It forms 3 covalent bonds with the 3 hydrogen atoms, using 3 of its outer electrons in bonding. The remaining 2 outer electrons form 1 lone pair. So nitrogen in NH₃ has 3 bonding pairs and 1 lone pair — 8 electrons in total around the nitrogen atom.

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25.

Which statement about the molecule shown is correct?

  • A. The two atoms are held together by a transfer of electrons from one to the other
  • B. The bond shown is a covalent bond formed by a shared pair of electrons
  • C. The bond shown is an ionic bond formed by electrostatic attraction between ions
  • D. The electrons in the outer shells are not involved in the bond
1 mark · standardCommon

The diagram shows a hydrogen molecule (H2), formed when two hydrogen atoms each contribute one electron to create a shared pair. This shared pair of electrons is attracted by both nuclei, forming a covalent bond. It is NOT ionic (no electron transfer, no ions formed) and NOT metallic (no delocalised electrons in a lattice).

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Giant Covalent Structures

Common20
1.

Compare and contrast the structures and properties of diamond and graphite. In your answer, explain how the different structures lead to different properties, and suggest one use for each substance that is linked to a specific property. [6 marks]

6 marks · higherCommon

Diamond and graphite are both allotropes of carbon, meaning they contain only carbon atoms but arranged in different ways, giving them very different properties. In diamond, each carbon atom forms 4 covalent bonds to 4 neighbouring carbon atoms in a tetrahedral arrangement. This creates a giant rigid three-dimensional network of strong covalent bonds throughout the entire structure. As a result, diamond is extremely hard and has a very high melting point, because a large amount of energy is required to break the many strong covalent bonds. Diamond does not conduct electricity because all four outer electrons of each carbon atom are involved in covalent bonds, leaving no delocalised electrons or free charge carriers. Diamond is used as a cutting tool because of its extreme hardness. In graphite, each carbon atom forms only 3 covalent bonds to neighbouring carbon atoms within flat hexagonal layers. The layers are held together by weak intermolecular forces, which means the layers can slide over each other easily. This makes graphite soft and useful as a lubricant. The fourth outer electron of each carbon atom is delocalised between the layers and is free to move, allowing graphite to conduct electricity. Graphite is used as an electrode in electrolysis because it conducts electricity and is chemically inert. In summary, the key difference is the number of bonds per carbon atom: 4 in diamond (creating a hard, non-conducting, rigid material) versus 3 in graphite (creating a layered, soft, conducting material).

  • Diamond: each carbon forms 4 covalent bonds / tetrahedral arrangement (1m)
  • Diamond: rigid 3D network - hard and high melting point / energy needed to break many strong bonds (1m)
  • Diamond: no delocalised electrons (all used in 4 bonds) - does not conduct electricity / use as cutting tool (1m)
  • Graphite: each carbon forms 3 covalent bonds / layered hexagonal structure / weak forces between layers (1m)
  • Graphite: layers can slide - soft / used as lubricant (1m)
  • Graphite: delocalised electrons (from 4th outer electron) - conducts electricity / use as electrode (1m)

Diamond and graphite are both allotropes of carbon but have dramatically different structures and properties. Diamond: each carbon forms 4 covalent bonds in a tetrahedral 3D lattice — very hard, very high melting point, does not conduct (all electrons in bonds). Used in cutting tools. Graphite: each carbon forms 3 bonds in hexagonal layers — one electron per atom is delocalised, so it conducts electricity. The layers slide over each other easily (weak forces between layers), making it soft. Used as a lubricant and as electrodes. The key contrast is 4 bonds (diamond) vs 3 bonds + 1 delocalised electron (graphite).

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2.

Explain the properties of diamond in terms of its structure and bonding. Your answer should refer to: hardness, melting point, and electrical conductivity.

4 marks · higherCommon

Diamond is very hard because each carbon atom forms 4 covalent bonds to four neighbouring carbon atoms in a tetrahedral arrangement. This creates a giant rigid three-dimensional network throughout the entire structure, making it very difficult to scratch or deform. Diamond has a very high melting point because many strong covalent bonds must be broken to separate the atoms, which requires a very large amount of energy. Diamond does not conduct electricity because all four outer electrons of each carbon atom are used in covalent bonds, so there are no delocalised electrons or free charge carriers to carry an electrical current.

  • Hard: each carbon forms 4 covalent bonds in tetrahedral arrangement / rigid 3D network (1m)
  • High melting point: many strong covalent bonds throughout the structure require a lot of energy to break (1m)
  • Does not conduct: all 4 outer electrons are used in bonding / no delocalised electrons (1m)
  • Linking the structure to the property explicitly (e.g. covalent bonds are strong, require large energy; no free electrons means no charge carriers) (1m)

Fullerenes are allotropes of carbon with cage-like or tubular structures. Buckminsterfullerene (C60) is a spherical cage of 60 carbon atoms. Carbon nanotubes are cylindrical structures. Unlike diamond and graphite, fullerenes have molecular (not giant) structures with specific finite numbers of carbon atoms. They have potential uses in medicine, electronics, and nanotechnology.

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3.

Explain why graphite conducts electricity but diamond does not.

3 marks · standardCommon

In graphite, each carbon atom forms 3 covalent bonds within a hexagonal layer, leaving one electron per carbon atom delocalised between the layers. These delocalised electrons are free to move and carry charge, so graphite conducts electricity. In diamond, each carbon atom forms 4 covalent bonds in a tetrahedral arrangement. All four outer electrons are used in bonding, so there are no delocalised electrons and no free charge carriers. Therefore diamond does not conduct electricity.

  • Graphite: each carbon forms 3 bonds, leaving one electron per carbon delocalised / free to move (1m)
  • Delocalised electrons in graphite can carry charge / conduct electricity (1m)
  • Diamond: all 4 outer electrons used in 4 covalent bonds / no delocalised electrons / no free charge carriers (1m)

Graphite conducts electricity because each carbon atom only forms 3 covalent bonds, using 3 of its 4 outer electrons. The remaining one electron per carbon atom becomes delocalised — free to move throughout the layers of the graphite structure. These mobile delocalised electrons carry electrical charge.

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4.

Graphite is used both as an electrical conductor and as a lubricant. Explain how the structure of graphite accounts for both of these uses.

3 marks · standardCommon

Graphite has a layered structure where carbon atoms are arranged in hexagonal rings within each layer. The layers are held together by weak forces, allowing the layers to slide over each other easily, which makes graphite a good lubricant. Within each layer, each carbon atom forms 3 covalent bonds, leaving one electron per carbon delocalised between the layers. These delocalised electrons are free to move and carry electrical charge, allowing graphite to conduct electricity.

  • Layered structure / weak forces between layers allow layers to slide - explains lubrication (1m)
  • Each carbon forms 3 covalent bonds, leaving one electron per carbon delocalised (1m)
  • Delocalised electrons are free to move and carry charge - explains electrical conduction (1m)

In graphite, carbon atoms are arranged in flat layers of hexagons. Within each layer, strong covalent bonds hold the atoms firmly. Between the layers, only weak van der Waals forces act. The layers can slide over each other easily because the interlayer forces are weak, making graphite soft and slippery — useful as a lubricant.

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5.

Describe the structure of carbon nanotubes and explain two of their uses.

3 marks · higherCommon

Carbon nanotubes are cylinders of carbon atoms formed by rolling up sheets of graphene into a tube. The carbon atoms are arranged in hexagonal rings. They are extremely strong because of the network of covalent bonds throughout their structure. They can also conduct electricity because each carbon atom has delocalised electrons. Carbon nanotubes are used to reinforce composite materials because of their great strength, and they are used in electronics because they conduct electricity.

  • Cylinders / tubes of carbon atoms / rolled graphene / hexagonal arrangement of carbon atoms (1m)
  • Very strong / high tensile strength - used to reinforce materials / composites / aerospace materials (1m)
  • Conduct electricity (due to delocalised electrons) - used in electronics / nano-electronics (1m)

Giant covalent substances (diamond, graphite, silicon dioxide) have very high melting points because they consist of millions of atoms held together by strong covalent bonds throughout the entire structure. Melting requires breaking very large numbers of these strong bonds simultaneously, requiring enormous amounts of energy.

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6.

Describe the structure of C₆₀ (buckminsterfullerene) and explain two possible uses of fullerenes.

3 marks · higherCommon

C60 buckminsterfullerene consists of 60 carbon atoms arranged in a hollow, cage-like sphere made up of hexagonal and pentagonal rings. Each carbon atom forms 3 covalent bonds. Fullerenes can be used in drug delivery because the hollow cage can encapsulate drug molecules and transport them to specific sites in the body. They can also be used as catalysts because their large surface area and ability to react with other molecules makes them effective at speeding up reactions without being used up.

  • 60 carbon atoms arranged in a hollow cage / spherical structure / hexagonal rings (1m)
  • Drug delivery: hollow cage can encapsulate / carry drug molecules to specific sites in the body (1m)
  • Catalysis: large surface area / can interact with other molecules / used as lubricant (1m)

Silicon (Si) has a giant covalent structure similar to diamond, where each silicon atom is covalently bonded to 4 others in a tetrahedral arrangement. This gives silicon a very high melting point. However, unlike diamond, silicon is a semiconductor — it can conduct electricity under certain conditions because electrons can be promoted to conduct at higher energies.

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7.

Compare the properties of giant covalent structures with simple molecular structures. Your answer should include melting points, electrical conductivity, and solubility in water.

3 marks · higherCommon

Giant covalent structures such as diamond and silicon dioxide have very high melting points because they contain many strong covalent bonds throughout the structure that require a large amount of energy to break. Simple molecular substances such as iodine or water have low melting points because only weak intermolecular forces between molecules must be broken on melting, not the strong covalent bonds within the molecules. Giant covalent structures generally do not conduct electricity (except graphite) because there are no free ions or delocalised electrons. Simple molecules also do not conduct electricity because they have no ions. Giant covalent structures are generally insoluble in water. Simple molecular substances may be soluble or insoluble depending on whether they can form interactions with water molecules.

  • Giant covalent: very high melting point (strong covalent bonds throughout). Simple molecular: low melting point (weak intermolecular forces between molecules broken on melting) (1m)
  • Giant covalent: generally does not conduct (no free ions/delocalised electrons, except graphite). Simple molecular: does not conduct (no ions) (1m)
  • Giant covalent: generally insoluble in water. Simple molecular: solubility varies / some are soluble, some are not (1m)

Giant covalent structures (e.g. diamond, SiO₂) have very high melting points because you must break many strong covalent bonds throughout the whole structure. Simple molecular substances (e.g. iodine, H₂O) have low melting points because only weak intermolecular forces between separate molecules are broken — the covalent bonds within the molecules stay intact. Neither type typically conducts electricity because there are no free ions or delocalised electrons (graphite is the key exception). Giant covalent structures are generally insoluble in water; solubility of simple molecular substances varies.

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8.

Explain why diamond is the hardest natural material.

2 marks · foundationCommon

Diamond is very hard because each carbon atom forms 4 strong covalent bonds to other carbon atoms in a tetrahedral arrangement. This creates a rigid three-dimensional network throughout the entire structure, making it very difficult to scratch or break.

  • Each carbon atom forms 4 covalent bonds (tetrahedral arrangement) (1m)
  • This creates a rigid 3D network / many strong bonds must be broken to disrupt the structure (1m)

Diamond has extremely high melting point (3550 degrees C) because it has a giant covalent structure where every carbon atom is bonded to 4 others by strong covalent bonds throughout the whole structure. Melting requires breaking vast numbers of these strong covalent bonds, demanding an enormous amount of energy.

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9.

Explain why graphite can be used as a lubricant.

2 marks · foundationCommon

Graphite is arranged in layers of hexagonal rings of carbon atoms. The forces between the layers are weak, so the layers can slide over each other easily. This allows graphite to act as a lubricant by reducing friction between surfaces.

  • Graphite has layers / layered structure (1m)
  • Weak forces between layers allow layers to slide over each other / reduces friction (1m)

Diamond does not conduct electricity because all four of carbon's outer electrons are used in covalent bonds to neighbouring carbon atoms. There are no delocalised (free) electrons to carry electrical current. Every electron is localised in a fixed covalent bond.

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10.

Silicon dioxide (SiO₂) does not melt until heated to above 1600 °C. Explain why silicon dioxide has such a high melting point.

2 marks · standardCommon

Silicon dioxide is a giant covalent structure. Each silicon atom is bonded to four oxygen atoms and each oxygen atom is bonded to two silicon atoms by strong covalent bonds. To melt silicon dioxide, a very large number of these strong covalent bonds must be broken, which requires a great deal of energy. This explains the very high melting point.

  • Silicon dioxide has a giant covalent structure / many strong covalent bonds throughout the structure (1m)
  • A lot of energy is required to break the many strong covalent bonds / very high energy needed to melt it (1m)

Silicon dioxide (SiO2) has a giant covalent structure in which each silicon atom is covalently bonded to 4 oxygen atoms and each oxygen bridges 2 silicon atoms. This forms an extended 3D network of strong covalent bonds. Melting requires breaking all these bonds throughout the entire structure, requiring a very large amount of energy, giving SiO2 a very high melting point (1710 degrees C).

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11.

Graphene is described as a wonder material. State two properties of graphene that make it useful for future technology.

2 marks · standardCommon

Graphene is very strong because of the network of covalent bonds in its hexagonal structure. It also conducts electricity because of delocalised electrons. It is also very thin, being only one atom thick, and is transparent to light, which makes it useful for flexible electronics and transparent conducting films.

  • Conducts electricity (due to delocalised electrons) - useful for electronics / electrical components (1m)
  • Very strong (due to covalent bond network) OR very thin / lightweight OR transparent - with a relevant use (1m)

Diamond and graphite are both allotropes of carbon (same element, different structural arrangements). Diamond: each C bonded to 4 others in a 3D tetrahedral network — hardest natural substance, electrical insulator. Graphite: each C bonded to 3 others in flat hexagonal layers — soft/slippery (weak interlayer forces), electrical conductor (delocalised electrons).

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12.

Diamond and graphite are both allotropes of carbon. Explain what is meant by the term 'allotrope'.

2 marks · standardCommon

Allotropes are different structural forms of the same element. Diamond and graphite are both allotropes of carbon because they contain only carbon atoms but the carbon atoms are arranged in different structures, giving the allotropes different physical properties.

  • Allotropes are different structural forms / structures / arrangements of the same element (1m)
  • Both contain only carbon atoms / same element but arranged differently (1m)

Graphite is used as a lubricant because its structure consists of flat layers of hexagonally arranged carbon atoms. The layers are held together only by weak van der Waals forces, so they slide over each other easily. The layers act like a 'deck of cards' — the weak interlayer forces allow the layers to slip past each other, reducing friction.

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13.

Why do giant covalent structures have very high melting points?

  • A. They contain ionic bonds that are difficult to break
  • B. They contain weak forces between separate molecules
  • C. They contain delocalised electrons that require a lot of energy to remove
  • D. They contain many strong covalent bonds that require a lot of energy to break
1 mark · foundationCommon

Giant covalent structures have very high melting points because they contain a very large number of strong covalent bonds throughout the structure. To melt the substance, all of these bonds must be broken, requiring a great deal of energy.

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14.

In diamond, how many covalent bonds does each carbon atom form?

  • A. 4
  • B. 2
  • C. 6
  • D. 3
1 mark · foundationCommon

In diamond, each carbon atom forms 4 covalent bonds to 4 neighbouring carbon atoms arranged in a tetrahedral shape. This gives diamond its very rigid, hard structure.

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15.

Which statement best explains why graphite conducts electricity?

  • A. Graphite contains ions that can move through the structure
  • B. Each carbon atom has one delocalised electron that is free to move between layers
  • C. Graphite has layers that can slide over each other
  • D. Graphite contains ionic bonds that allow charge to flow
1 mark · foundationCommon

In graphite, each carbon atom forms 3 covalent bonds to neighbouring carbons in a hexagonal layer, leaving one electron per carbon atom that is delocalised (free to move). These mobile delocalised electrons can carry charge through the structure, allowing graphite to conduct electricity.

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16.

State the number of covalent bonds each carbon atom forms in diamond.

1 mark · foundationCommon
  • 4 (four) covalent bonds per carbon atom (1m)

In diamond, each carbon atom bonds to 4 other carbon atoms using 4 covalent bonds, producing a tetrahedral arrangement. Carbon is in Group 4 and has 4 outer electrons, each of which is shared in a covalent bond.

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17.

State the number of covalent bonds each carbon atom forms within a layer in graphite.

1 mark · foundationCommon
  • 3 (three) covalent bonds per carbon atom within each layer (1m)

In graphite, each carbon atom forms 3 covalent bonds to neighbouring carbon atoms within the hexagonal layer. The fourth outer electron is not involved in bonding within the layer - instead it becomes a delocalised electron that allows graphite to conduct electricity.

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18.

Silicon dioxide (SiO₂) is a giant covalent structure. Which property does it share with diamond for the same reason?

  • A. It conducts electricity because it has delocalised electrons
  • B. It is soft and can be used as a lubricant
  • C. It has a very high melting point because of many strong covalent bonds
  • D. It is transparent because light passes through the molecular layers
1 mark · standardCommon

Both silicon dioxide and diamond are giant covalent structures where every atom is bonded to its neighbours by strong covalent bonds throughout the structure. Breaking these bonds to melt the substance requires enormous energy, giving both substances very high melting points.

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19.

A student says: 'Graphene is just a very thin sheet of carbon that is too fragile for practical use.' Which statement correctly evaluates this claim?

  • A. The student is correct - graphene is very thin and therefore easily broken
  • B. The student is incorrect about fragility - graphene is one of the strongest known materials despite being a single atom thick
  • C. The student is partially correct - graphene is thin, but it is exceptionally strong because of its hexagonal network of covalent bonds
  • D. The student is incorrect - graphene is one atom thick, one of the strongest materials known, and conducts electricity well
1 mark · standardCommon

Graphene is a single layer of carbon atoms arranged in a hexagonal lattice - it is indeed just one atom thick. However, it is one of the strongest materials ever tested, and it conducts electricity well due to delocalised electrons. The student is wrong to call it fragile.

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20.

Buckminsterfullerene (C₆₀) has a hollow cage-like structure. Which of the following is a correct application of this property?

  • A. It is used as a cutting tool because the cage structure is extremely hard
  • B. It can be used in drug delivery because molecules can be trapped inside the cage
  • C. It is used in electrical wiring because the hollow structure allows electrons to flow freely
  • D. It is used as a lubricant because it conducts heat efficiently
1 mark · standardCommon

The hollow cage structure of C60 (buckminsterfullerene) allows drug molecules or other substances to be encapsulated inside the cage and delivered to specific sites in the body. This makes fullerenes potentially useful in targeted drug delivery in medicine.

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Metallic Bonding

Common22
1.

Metals and their alloys are used in a wide variety of applications. For example, copper is used for electrical wiring, gold is used for jewellery, and steel (an alloy of iron and carbon) is used in construction. Using your knowledge of metallic bonding and structure, explain why these materials are suitable for their stated uses. Include in your answer an explanation of why steel is harder than pure iron.

5 marks · higherCommon

Copper is suitable for electrical wiring because it has high electrical conductivity. Metals contain delocalised electrons that are free to move throughout the metal lattice. When a voltage is applied, these electrons flow and carry charge, producing an electric current. Copper also has high ductility (it can be drawn into thin wires) because layers of positive copper ions can slide over each other when a force is applied, and the metallic bonds between the positive ions and the sea of delocalised electrons reform after sliding. Gold is used for jewellery because it is malleable — layers of positive ions can slide over each other under applied force and bonds reform, allowing the metal to be shaped into intricate designs. Gold also does not tarnish or corrode, making it long-lasting. Steel is used in construction because it is harder and stronger than pure iron. In pure iron, all atoms are the same size in regular layers that can slide over each other easily, making iron relatively soft. In steel, carbon atoms (which are different in size to iron atoms) distort the regular layer structure. This prevents the layers from sliding over each other as easily, making steel harder and more suitable for structural applications where strength is important. In all these metals, the strong electrostatic attraction between positive metal ions and the sea of delocalised electrons accounts for their high melting points, ensuring stability at normal use temperatures.

  • Copper used for wiring: delocalised electrons carry charge / high electrical conductivity explained (1m)
  • Copper ductile/gold malleable: layers of ions slide over each other; bonds reform (for any metal) (1m)
  • Steel harder than iron: different sized atoms (carbon vs iron) distort the regular layer structure (1m)
  • Distorted layers cannot slide as easily, so steel is harder than pure iron (1m)
  • Strong metallic bonds (electrostatic attraction between positive ions and delocalised electrons) give high melting points / structural stability (1m)

Different metals and alloys suit different uses based on their metallic properties: Copper is ideal for electrical wiring because delocalised electrons flow freely when a voltage is applied, creating a current. Gold is used for jewellery because it is malleable (layers of ions slide over each other, bonds reform) and does not corrode. Steel is used in construction because carbon atoms of different size disrupt iron's regular layer structure, preventing easy sliding and making it harder and stronger than pure iron. All these metals have high melting points because strong electrostatic attractions between positive ions and the electron sea require large energy to overcome.

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2.

Compare metallic bonding with ionic bonding and covalent bonding. In your answer, describe the bonding and structure in each type, and explain how the bonding in metals accounts for the physical properties of metals.

5 marks · challengeCommon

In metallic bonding, metal atoms lose their outer electrons to form positive metal ions surrounded by a sea of delocalised electrons. Strong electrostatic forces of attraction between the positive ions and the sea of electrons hold the structure together. The regular arrangement of positive ions in a sea of electrons extends throughout the giant metallic lattice. In ionic bonding, positive and negative ions are arranged in a giant ionic lattice held together by strong electrostatic forces of attraction between oppositely charged ions. Unlike metallic bonding, there are no delocalised electrons available to move. In covalent bonding, atoms share pairs of electrons to form bonds. Simple covalent molecules are held together by strong covalent bonds within each molecule, but only weak intermolecular forces between molecules. Giant covalent structures have strong covalent bonds throughout. The metallic bonding structure explains metal properties: delocalised electrons can move freely, so metals conduct electricity and heat. Layers of positive ions can slide over one another when a force is applied and the metallic bonds reform, making metals malleable and ductile. The strong electrostatic attraction between positive ions and the electron sea means large amounts of energy are required to separate the ions, giving metals high melting and boiling points.

  • Metallic bonding: positive metal ions in a sea of delocalised electrons; strong electrostatic attraction between ions and electron sea (1m)
  • Ionic bonding: oppositely charged ions in a giant lattice; strong electrostatic forces between positive and negative ions; no delocalised electrons (1m)
  • Covalent bonding: shared pairs of electrons form bonds; simple molecular structures have weak intermolecular forces between molecules (1m)
  • Metals conduct electricity/heat because delocalised electrons are free to move throughout the structure (1m)
  • Metals are malleable because layers of positive ions can slide over each other when a force is applied and metallic bonds reform; high melting points because large energy needed to overcome strong electrostatic attraction (1m)

This compare question requires students to describe all three bonding types accurately and then link metallic bonding specifically to metal properties. The comparison structure should be: metallic (positive ions + delocalised electrons + giant lattice), ionic (oppositely charged ions + electrostatic forces + no delocalised electrons), covalent (shared electrons + strong intramolecular bonds + weak intermolecular forces for simple molecules). The properties explanation should cover conductivity (delocalised electrons), malleability (sliding layers), and high melting point (strong electrostatic attraction). Students often describe metallic bonding well but then fail to explain WHY properties arise from the structure.

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3.

Explain three physical properties of metals — high melting point, electrical conductivity, and malleability — in terms of metallic bonding.

4 marks · higherCommon

Metals have high melting points because there is a strong electrostatic attraction between positive metal ions and the sea of delocalised electrons. A large amount of energy is needed to overcome these strong metallic bonds. Metals conduct electricity because delocalised electrons are free to move through the structure. When a voltage is applied, electrons flow and carry charge, creating a current. Metals are malleable because layers of positive ions can slide over each other when a force is applied. The metallic bonds reform after sliding so the metal changes shape without breaking.

  • High melting point: strong electrostatic attraction between positive ions and delocalised electrons (1m)
  • High melting point: large amount of energy needed to overcome the strong metallic bonds (1m)
  • Electrical conductivity: delocalised electrons are free to move and carry charge when voltage applied (1m)
  • Malleability: layers of positive ions can slide over each other when a force is applied; bonds reform (1m)

The three key metallic properties all arise from the sea of delocalised electrons: (1) High melting point — strong electrostatic attraction between positive ions and the electron sea requires a large amount of energy to overcome, so metals melt at high temperatures. (2) Electrical conductivity — delocalised electrons are free to move throughout the structure; when a voltage is applied they flow in one direction, carrying charge and producing a current. (3) Malleability — layers of positive ions can slide over each other when a force is applied; the delocalised electrons maintain bonds throughout, so the metal changes shape without breaking.

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4.

Explain why alloys are harder than pure metals. Use ideas about metallic bonding and structure in your answer. Include a specific example of an alloy and the metals used to make it.

4 marks · challengeCommon

In a pure metal, all the metal atoms are the same size and are arranged in regular layers. When a force is applied, these layers can slide over each other relatively easily because the atoms fit neatly together. The delocalised electrons move with the sliding layers, reforming the metallic bonds in the new position — this is why pure metals are malleable and relatively soft. In an alloy, atoms of at least one other element with a different atomic size are introduced into the metal's structure. Steel, for example, contains iron atoms with carbon atoms of a different (smaller) size added. The different-sized atoms disrupt the regular layer structure, creating distortions. This makes it harder for the layers to slide over each other when a force is applied. Because the layers cannot slide as easily, the alloy is harder and stronger than the pure metal. This makes alloys very useful in engineering: steel is harder and stronger than pure iron, making it suitable for construction and manufacturing.

  • In a pure metal, identical-sized atoms form regular layers that can slide over each other when a force is applied (1m)
  • In an alloy, atoms of a different element with a different size are present — these distort the regular layer structure (1m)
  • Distorted layers cannot slide as easily — the alloy is harder and stronger than the pure metal (1m)
  • Specific named example: steel (iron + carbon) is harder than pure iron; or brass (copper + zinc); or any other correct alloy with named components (1m)

This is a classic metallic bonding application question. The key mechanism is: pure metals have uniform layers that slide easily under force → alloys introduce different-sized atoms → regular layers are distorted → layers cannot slide as easily → alloy is harder. Students must not only describe the mechanism but also provide a specific named example. Commonly dropped marks: (1) forgetting to say pure metal layers slide easily before contrasting with alloys; (2) saying alloy atoms are 'bigger' without saying 'different size'; (3) forgetting to name a specific alloy. Steel (iron + carbon) is the most accessible example.

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5.

Explain, in terms of structure, why alloys are harder than pure metals.

3 marks · standardCommon

In a pure metal, all atoms are the same size and arranged in regular layers. These layers can slide over each other easily when a force is applied, making pure metals soft. In an alloy, atoms of different sizes are present. The different sized atoms distort the regular layer structure, preventing the layers from sliding over each other as easily. This makes alloys harder than pure metals.

  • Pure metals have atoms all the same size in regular layers (1m)
  • Alloys contain atoms of different sizes which distort the regular layer structure (1m)
  • Distortion prevents layers from sliding, making alloys harder (1m)

Pure metals are relatively soft because the identical-sized atoms are arranged in regular layers that can slide over each other easily. In an alloy, atoms of different sizes are mixed into the structure. These differently sized atoms disrupt the regular layer arrangement, preventing layers from sliding over each other as freely. This is why alloys (e.g. steel, brass, bronze) are harder and stronger than the pure metals they contain.

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6.

Explain why metals conduct electricity in terms of their structure.

3 marks · standardCommon

Metals contain delocalised electrons that are free to move throughout the metal structure. When a voltage is applied, these delocalised electrons flow through the metal in one direction. The moving electrons carry charge, producing an electric current.

  • Metals contain delocalised electrons that are free to move throughout the structure (1m)
  • When a voltage (potential difference) is applied, electrons flow through the metal (1m)
  • The moving electrons carry charge, creating an electric current (1m)

Metals conduct electricity because they contain delocalised electrons — electrons that are free to move throughout the entire metallic structure. When a voltage (potential difference) is applied across the metal, these free electrons are accelerated and flow through the metal in one direction. The moving electrons carry electrical charge, which constitutes an electric current. This is why metals are good conductors and non-metals (which lack delocalised electrons) generally do not conduct electricity.

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7.

Steel is an alloy of iron and a small amount of carbon. Using ideas about structure, explain why steel is harder than pure iron.

3 marks · standardCommon

In pure iron, all atoms are the same size and arranged in regular layers that can slide over each other easily, making it soft. In steel, carbon atoms are different in size to iron atoms. The different sized carbon atoms distort the regular layer structure of iron, preventing the layers from sliding as easily. This makes steel harder than pure iron.

  • Pure iron has atoms of same size in regular layers that slide easily (1m)
  • Carbon atoms are different size to iron atoms — distort the regular layer structure (1m)
  • Layers cannot slide as easily — steel is harder than pure iron (1m)

Steel is harder than pure iron because of how carbon atoms disrupt the iron's regular structure. In pure iron, all atoms are the same size and arranged in uniform layers that can slide over each other easily when force is applied — this is why pure iron is relatively soft. When carbon (smaller atoms) is added to make steel, these different-sized carbon atoms sit within the iron lattice and distort the regular layers, preventing them from sliding as easily. The result is a harder, stronger material — this is the structural basis for why alloys are generally harder than pure metals.

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8.

Iron has a much higher melting point than potassium. Both are metals. Use your knowledge of metallic bonding to explain this difference.

3 marks · higherCommon

Both metals have metallic bonds, which are the electrostatic attraction between positive ions and delocalised electrons. Iron has more delocalised electrons per atom than potassium, so the metallic bonds in iron are stronger. A greater amount of energy is needed to overcome the stronger metallic bonds in iron, giving it a higher melting point than potassium.

  • Iron has more delocalised electrons per atom than potassium (1m)
  • Stronger electrostatic attraction between ions and electrons in iron (stronger metallic bonds) (1m)
  • More energy needed to overcome the stronger bonds in iron, giving a higher melting point (1m)

Metallic bond strength depends on the number of delocalised electrons per atom and the size and charge of the metal ions. Potassium (Group 1) has only 1 outer electron to delocalise per atom and a large ionic radius. Iron (a transition metal) delocalises more electrons per atom and has a smaller, more highly charged ion. The stronger electrostatic attraction in iron requires more energy to overcome, giving iron a much higher melting point (1538°C vs potassium's 64°C).

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9.

Explain why pure metals are relatively soft, using ideas about their structure.

3 marks · higherCommon

In a pure metal, all atoms are the same size and are arranged in a regular pattern of layers. When a force is applied, the layers of positive ions can slide over each other easily because they are all the same size. Metallic bonds reform after the layers slide, so the metal changes shape without fracturing but it is relatively soft.

  • Atoms in a pure metal are all the same size arranged in regular layers (1m)
  • Layers can slide over each other when a force is applied (1m)
  • Metallic bonds reform after sliding (metal deforms without fracturing), making it soft (1m)

Pure metals are soft because their atoms are all the same size, arranged in regular uniform layers. When a force is applied, these layers can slide over each other easily. Crucially, the metallic bonds reform immediately after sliding — the delocalised electrons are still attracted to the positive ions in their new positions — so the metal changes shape without breaking. Adding a second metal (making an alloy) introduces different-sized atoms that disrupt the regular layers, preventing easy sliding and making the material harder.

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10.

Describe the structure of a metal and explain what metallic bonding is.

2 marks · foundationCommon

Metal atoms lose their outer electrons to form positive ions. The electrons are delocalised and free to move throughout the structure, forming a sea of delocalised electrons. Metallic bonding is the strong electrostatic attraction between the positive metal ions and the sea of delocalised electrons.

  • Metal atoms lose their outer electrons to form positive ions (metal ions in a lattice) (1m)
  • Metallic bonding is the electrostatic attraction between the positive metal ions and the sea of delocalised electrons (1m)

In a metal, each atom gives up its outer electrons, becoming a positive ion. These ions arrange themselves into a regular lattice structure. The electrons that were released become 'delocalised' — they are not attached to any particular ion but are free to move throughout the entire metallic structure. Metallic bonding is the strong electrostatic attraction between the lattice of positive ions and the surrounding sea of delocalised electrons. This non-directional bonding gives metals their characteristic properties.

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11.

Explain why metals have high melting points.

2 marks · foundationCommon

Metals have high melting points because metallic bonds are strong. There is a strong electrostatic attraction between the positive metal ions and the sea of delocalised electrons. A large amount of energy is needed to overcome these strong forces and separate the ions.

  • Strong electrostatic attraction between positive ions and delocalised electrons (strong metallic bonds) (1m)
  • Large amount of energy needed to overcome/break these forces (1m)

Metals have high melting points because of the strong metallic bonds within their structure. In a metal, positive ions are surrounded by a sea of delocalised electrons. There is a strong electrostatic attraction between the positive ions and the negative electron sea. To melt a metal, you must overcome this attraction and allow the ions to move freely, which requires a large amount of energy. The stronger the metallic bonds (e.g. more delocalised electrons, smaller ionic radius), the higher the melting point.

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12.

Explain why metals are good conductors of thermal energy (heat).

2 marks · foundationCommon

Metals are good conductors of thermal energy because delocalised electrons are free to move throughout the structure. When one end of the metal is heated, the delocalised electrons gain kinetic energy and move quickly to cooler parts, transferring energy through the metal.

  • Delocalised electrons are free to move throughout the metal structure (1m)
  • Electrons gain kinetic energy when heated and transfer this energy to cooler parts of the metal (1m)

Metals conduct heat because the delocalised electrons in the metallic lattice can carry thermal (kinetic) energy rapidly through the structure. When one end of a metal is heated, the electrons in that region gain kinetic energy and move faster, quickly transferring energy to other electrons and lattice ions throughout the metal. This makes metals far better thermal conductors than non-metals, which lack free electrons.

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13.

Explain why metals are malleable.

2 marks · standardCommon

Metals are malleable because the layers of positive ions can slide over each other when a force is applied. The metallic bonds reform after sliding because the delocalised electrons maintain the attraction to the ions in their new positions.

  • Layers of ions can slide over each other when a force is applied (1m)
  • Metallic bonds reform after sliding (delocalised electrons maintain attraction to ions in new positions) (1m)

Metals are malleable because the layers of positive ions in the regular metallic lattice can slide over each other when a force is applied. Crucially, the metallic bonds re-form after the sliding occurs because the delocalised electrons are still attracted to the ions in their new positions. This means the metal changes shape permanently without breaking. Alloys are harder than pure metals because the different-sized atoms disrupt the regular layers, making sliding more difficult.

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14.

A student says: 'Metallic bonding is similar to ionic bonding because both involve charged particles.' Evaluate this statement.

2 marks · standardCommon

The student is partly correct. Both metallic and ionic bonding involve electrostatic attractions between charged particles. However, in ionic bonding the positive ions are attracted to discrete negative ions. In metallic bonding, the positive metal ions are attracted to a sea of delocalised electrons that spread throughout the structure, not to separate negative ions.

  • Both involve electrostatic attraction between positive ions and negative charges / similarity correctly identified (1m)
  • Metallic bonding has a sea of delocalised electrons not discrete negative ions (key difference correctly identified) (1m)

The student is partially correct: both metallic and ionic bonding involve electrostatic attraction between positive ions and negative charges. However, the key difference is the nature of the negative charge: in ionic bonding, the positive ions attract discrete negative ions (e.g. Na⁺ attracted to Cl⁻). In metallic bonding, the positive metal ions are attracted to a sea of delocalised electrons that spread uniformly throughout the entire structure. Additionally, metallic bonding is non-directional and allows electrons to flow, explaining electrical conductivity — something ionic solids cannot do.

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15.

In metallic bonding, what are the electrons called that are free to move throughout the metal structure?

  • A. Shared electrons
  • B. Transferred electrons
  • C. Delocalised electrons
  • D. Fixed electrons
1 mark · foundationCommon

In metallic bonding, outer electrons leave their atoms and become delocalised — they are free to move throughout the entire metal lattice. This sea of delocalised electrons is attracted to the positive metal ions.

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16.

What holds the metal ions together in a metallic structure?

  • A. Covalent bonds between atoms
  • B. Electrostatic attraction between positive ions and delocalised electrons
  • C. Ionic bonds between positive and negative ions
  • D. Van der Waals forces between neutral atoms
1 mark · foundationCommon

Metallic bonding consists of strong electrostatic attractions between the positively charged metal ions (which have lost outer electrons) and the negatively charged sea of delocalised electrons.

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17.

Complete the following sentence: In metallic bonding, positive metal ions are surrounded by a sea of __________ electrons.

1 mark · foundationCommon
  • delocalised (accept: delocalized, free) (1m)

The defining feature of metallic bonding is the sea of delocalised electrons — outer electrons that are free to move throughout the entire metal structure rather than belonging to any one atom.

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18.

What is an alloy?

1 mark · foundationCommon
  • a mixture of two or more metals (or a metal and a non-metal element) (1m)

An alloy is a mixture of two or more metals, or a metal with a small amount of a non-metal (for example, steel is iron mixed with carbon). Mixing atoms of different sizes disrupts the regular layer structure, making alloys harder than pure metals.

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19.

Why are metals good conductors of electricity?

  • A. Delocalised electrons are free to move and carry charge through the structure
  • B. Electrons are transferred from atom to atom in a chain reaction
  • C. The positive ions vibrate and carry charge through the metal
  • D. Ions break free from the lattice and carry charge
1 mark · standardCommon

Metals conduct electricity because delocalised electrons are free to flow through the metal lattice. When a voltage is applied, these electrons move in one direction, creating an electric current. The positive ions remain fixed in the lattice.

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20.

Why are alloys harder than pure metals?

  • A. Alloys contain more delocalised electrons
  • B. Alloys have stronger ionic bonds than pure metals
  • C. Different sized atoms in an alloy distort the layers so they cannot slide easily
  • D. Alloys have higher temperatures so particles vibrate more
1 mark · standardCommon

In a pure metal, all atoms are the same size and sit in regular layers that can slide over each other, making the metal soft and malleable. In an alloy, atoms of different sizes disrupt the regular arrangement so the layers cannot slide as easily, making the alloy harder.

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21.

Which property of metals is explained by layers of ions being able to slide over one another?

  • A. High electrical conductivity
  • B. High melting point
  • C. Lustre (shiny appearance)
  • D. Malleability and ductility
1 mark · standardCommon

Metals are malleable (can be hammered into shape) and ductile (can be drawn into wires) because layers of metal ions can slide over each other. The metallic bonds reform after sliding, so the metal does not shatter.

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22.

Tungsten has a much higher melting point than sodium. What is the best explanation for this?

  • A. Tungsten atoms are larger than sodium atoms
  • B. Tungsten has more delocalised electrons per atom, creating stronger metallic bonds
  • C. Tungsten has ionic bonds whereas sodium has metallic bonds
  • D. Sodium melts easily because it has fewer protons in its nucleus
1 mark · standardCommon

Tungsten (Group 6) contributes more outer electrons to the sea of delocalised electrons than sodium (Group 1), creating a higher charge density of delocalised electrons. This produces stronger electrostatic attractions between the positive ions and the electron sea, requiring more energy to overcome — hence a higher melting point.

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Nanoparticles (HT)

Common22
1.

A pharmaceutical company is developing a new cancer treatment that uses carbon nanoparticles to deliver a chemotherapy drug directly to tumour cells. Evaluate this approach, using your knowledge of nanoparticles, fullerenes, and the risks associated with nanotechnology. [6 marks]

6 marks · higherCommon

Carbon nanoparticles such as fullerenes can be used to encapsulate chemotherapy drugs inside their hollow cage structure. The drug is protected from degradation as it travels through the body. Nanoparticles are small enough to pass through biological membranes and reach target cells such as cancer cells. The large surface area to volume ratio of nanoparticles also allows a significant quantity of drug to be attached to their surface. The main advantage of this targeted approach is that the drug is delivered directly to tumour cells, meaning lower doses are needed and side effects on healthy tissue are reduced. This is a significant improvement over conventional chemotherapy, where the drug affects all dividing cells. However, there are also risks. Because nanoparticles can pass through cell membranes, there is concern that they may accumulate in tissues and organs outside the target area, potentially causing unforeseen harm. The long-term effects of carbon nanoparticles in the body are not yet fully understood. Environmental risks also exist if nanoparticles are released into water or soil during manufacturing or disposal. Overall, the targeted drug delivery approach using nanoparticles shows great promise but requires thorough clinical testing and regulatory approval before widespread use, in accordance with the precautionary principle.

  • Fullerenes have a hollow cage structure; drugs can be encapsulated inside (1m)
  • Nanoparticles are small enough to pass through cell membranes and reach target (tumour) cells (1m)
  • Large surface area to volume ratio allows more drug to be carried on surface (1m)
  • Targeted delivery reduces side effects on healthy tissue / lower doses needed compared to conventional chemotherapy (1m)
  • Risk: nanoparticles may accumulate in body tissues / long-term effects are unknown (1m)
  • Balanced conclusion: benefits weighed against risks; precautionary approach recommended; further testing needed (1m)

A high-scoring response to this evaluate question should cover all six mark points. Structural point: fullerenes are hollow cage molecules made of carbon; the chemotherapy drug can be encapsulated inside the cage, protecting it during transport. Delivery mechanism: nanoparticles are small enough to pass through cell membranes and target tumour cells specifically. Loading capacity: the large surface area to volume ratio means a large quantity of drug can be attached to nanoparticle surfaces. Clinical advantage: targeted delivery means the drug acts on cancer cells only, so healthy tissue is not affected and side effects (typical of conventional chemotherapy) are greatly reduced. Risk: nanoparticles can accumulate in body tissues and long-term effects are not yet fully understood. Balanced conclusion: the approach shows significant promise but should only proceed with thorough clinical trials and regulatory oversight, in line with the precautionary principle.

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2.

Compare the properties of nanoparticles with bulk materials of the same substance. Explain the differences using surface area to volume ratio. [5 marks]

5 marks · challengeCommon

Nanoparticles have a much larger surface area to volume ratio than bulk materials of the same substance. This means a greater proportion of the atoms are on the surface and available to interact with surrounding matter. As a result, nanoparticles are far more reactive than the bulk material. For example, bulk gold is chemically unreactive and does not catalyse reactions, but gold nanoparticles are effective catalysts. Nanoparticles also have different colour, electrical, and optical properties compared to the bulk material because quantum effects become significant at the nanoscale. These property differences make nanoparticles useful in applications such as catalysis, medicine, and electronics, but they also raise concerns because the increased reactivity means nanoparticles may have unpredictable effects in biological systems.

  • Nanoparticles have a much larger surface area to volume ratio than the equivalent bulk material (1m)
  • Greater proportion of atoms on the surface (surface atoms are less constrained and more available to react) (1m)
  • Nanoparticles are more reactive than the bulk material as a result of the larger SA:V ratio (1m)
  • Properties differ between nanoparticle and bulk form: colour, optical, electrical, or catalytic properties change at the nanoscale (quantum effects) (1m)
  • Named example linking property change to an application or concern, e.g. gold nanoparticles as catalysts / silver nanoparticles as antimicrobials / increased reactivity raising biological safety concerns (1m)

At GCSE, the key principle for nanoparticles is that shrinking a substance to 1–100 nm dramatically increases its surface area to volume ratio. Consider a cube: halving each side doubles the SA:V ratio. At the nanoscale this ratio is enormous, meaning the vast majority of atoms sit on the surface rather than in the interior. Surface atoms are less constrained, have more potential energy, and can interact more freely with surrounding atoms or molecules — this is why nanoparticles are far more reactive than the bulk material. A classic AQA example is gold: bulk gold is the chemically inert metal used in jewellery, but gold nanoparticles are effective catalysts in industrial reactions. Additionally, when a substance reaches the nanoscale, quantum mechanical effects become significant, changing optical properties (colour), electrical conductivity, and magnetic behaviour compared to the bulk form. Students often state just 'larger surface area' without linking this to the SA:V ratio or to the consequence of greater reactivity — both links are required for full marks.

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3.

Evaluate the benefits and risks of using nanoparticles in sun cream and in drug delivery systems. [5 marks]

5 marks · challengeCommon

In sun cream, nanoparticles of zinc oxide or titanium dioxide are used because they provide effective UV protection while being transparent on the skin, unlike the white appearance of bulk zinc oxide particles. Their large surface area to volume ratio means they absorb and reflect UV radiation very efficiently. The benefit is improved cosmetic appearance and equivalent or better UV protection. In drug delivery, nanoparticles can encapsulate drugs and transport them to specific target cells such as cancer cells, reducing the dose needed and minimising side effects on healthy tissue. Fullerene nanoparticles can carry drugs inside their hollow cage structure. However, there are significant risks. Nanoparticles are small enough to pass through cell membranes and may accumulate in organs, causing unpredictable toxicity. The long-term health effects are not yet fully understood. In the environment, nanoparticles washed off sun cream can enter water systems and may be toxic to aquatic organisms. The precautionary principle suggests nanoparticles should be thoroughly tested before widespread use.

  • Benefit in sun cream: nanoparticles (ZnO/TiO2) are transparent on skin / cosmetically better than white bulk particles, AND provide effective UV protection due to large surface area (1m)
  • Benefit in drug delivery: targeted delivery to specific cells (e.g. cancer cells) reduces dose required and minimises side effects on healthy tissue / fullerenes can encapsulate drugs (1m)
  • Risk to health: nanoparticles small enough to pass through cell membranes and accumulate in organs / tissues; long-term effects not fully understood (1m)
  • Risk to environment: nanoparticles can enter water systems (e.g. washed from sun cream) and may be toxic to aquatic organisms (1m)
  • Balanced evaluative conclusion: benefits are significant but precautionary principle means extensive testing is needed before widespread use; or weighs specific benefits against specific risks (1m)

This 5-mark evaluation requires students to consider both applications (sun cream AND drug delivery) and both sides (benefits AND risks) plus a conclusion. For sun cream: nanoparticles of ZnO or TiO2 scatter and absorb UV radiation but are so small (1–100 nm) that they are smaller than the wavelength of visible light, making them transparent — unlike traditional bulk sun cream which appears white. Their enormous SA:V ratio makes them highly effective UV absorbers. For drug delivery: nanoparticles (especially fullerenes with hollow cage structures) can carry chemotherapy drugs directly to tumour cells, meaning lower doses and fewer side effects on healthy dividing cells — a significant advantage over conventional chemotherapy. The risks are equally important: because nanoparticles are small enough to pass through biological membranes, they can accumulate in the liver, kidneys, or brain, and the long-term effects are not yet known. Environmentally, nanoparticles washed off in the shower can enter rivers and may be toxic to aquatic organisms at low concentrations. A Level 3 answer presents a balanced evaluation and invokes the precautionary principle or calls for more testing rather than simply listing points.

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4.

Explain why nanoparticles can have different properties from the same substance in bulk form, and describe two applications that use these different properties.

4 marks · higherCommon

As particle size decreases to the nanoscale, the surface area to volume ratio increases greatly. A much higher proportion of atoms are on the surface compared to bulk material. Surface atoms behave differently from atoms in the bulk because they have fewer neighbouring atoms and are in a different chemical environment. This leads to different properties such as enhanced reactivity and different optical behaviour. One application is catalysis: the increased surface area gives more reactive sites, making nanoparticle catalysts more efficient than bulk metal catalysts. Another application is drug delivery: nanoparticles are small enough to pass through cell membranes and reach target cells, with drugs attached to their large surface area, reducing side effects.

  • Nanoparticles have a much larger surface area to volume ratio than bulk material (1m)
  • Higher proportion of atoms are on the surface, leading to different properties (surface atoms have a different bonding environment) (1m)
  • Application 1: any valid application correctly linked to a nanoparticle property (e.g., catalysis/large surface area; antibacterial/silver; sun cream/transparency) (1m)
  • Application 2: a second distinct valid application correctly linked to a nanoparticle property (1m)

Nanoparticles are made from the same atoms as bulk material — it is their size, not their composition, that gives them different properties. As particle size decreases to the nanoscale, the surface area to volume ratio increases dramatically. A much larger proportion of atoms are at the surface compared to inside. Surface atoms are in a different chemical environment — they have fewer neighbouring atoms and incomplete bonding — which causes them to behave differently. This is why properties such as reactivity, colour, melting point, and conductivity can all differ from the bulk material. Applications include: catalysis (more surface active sites = more efficient), antibacterial wound dressings (silver nanoparticles have more surface contact with bacteria), transparent sun cream (titanium dioxide nanoparticles absorb UV but don't scatter visible light), and targeted drug delivery (small enough to enter cells).

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5.

Explain how nanoparticles can be used in drug delivery and why their properties make them suitable for this purpose.

3 marks · standardCommon

Nanoparticles can carry drugs around the body and deliver them directly to target cells such as cancer cells. Because nanoparticles are so small, they can pass through cell membranes and reach specific cells. Their large surface area allows drugs to be attached to the surface or encapsulated inside. This means smaller doses can be used, reducing side effects on healthy tissue.

  • Nanoparticles are small enough to pass through cell membranes and reach target cells (1m)
  • Large surface area allows drugs to be attached to nanoparticles / drugs can be carried (1m)
  • Targeted delivery reduces side effects on healthy tissue (or: smaller doses needed) (1m)

Nanoparticles can carry drug molecules around the body and deliver them to specific target cells such as cancer cells. Because nanoparticles are in the nanometre size range, they are small enough to pass through cell membranes — something larger drug particles cannot easily do. Drugs can be attached to the large surface area of the nanoparticle or encapsulated inside (in the case of hollow structures like fullerenes). Because the drug is delivered directly to target cells, smaller doses are required and the drug does not damage healthy surrounding tissue, which greatly reduces side effects compared to conventional drug delivery.

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6.

Give three uses of carbon nanotubes and link each use to a relevant property.

3 marks · standardCommon

Carbon nanotubes are used as reinforcing materials in composites such as tennis rackets because they are exceptionally strong, due to the many covalent bonds throughout the structure. They are used in electronics because they conduct electricity, as the delocalised electrons can move along the tube. They are also used in drug delivery because their hollow structure allows substances to be encapsulated and carried to target sites.

  • Use 1 with property: reinforcing composites/sports equipment — very strong due to extensive covalent bonding (1m)
  • Use 2 with property: electronics/electrical components — conductor due to delocalised electrons (1m)
  • Use 3 with property: any valid third use with linked property (drug delivery/hollow structure; sensors/electrical sensitivity; lubricants/cylindrical shape) (1m)

Carbon nanotubes are hollow cylindrical structures made of rolled graphene. They combine several remarkable properties from their structure. First, their extensive covalent carbon network makes them one of the strongest known materials — this makes them ideal for reinforcing composite materials in sports equipment such as tennis rackets and bicycle frames. Second, they have delocalised electrons that can move along the tube, making them excellent electrical conductors — useful in electronic components. Third, their hollow interior allows substances to be encapsulated for drug delivery, or their cylindrical shape allows them to act as lubricants. Each use must be linked to the relevant structural property to gain marks.

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7.

Explain how the structure of fullerenes makes them suitable for use in drug delivery systems.

3 marks · standardCommon

Fullerenes are hollow cage-shaped molecules made of carbon atoms. Drugs or other substances can be trapped inside the hollow cage structure. The fullerene acts as a protective container, allowing the drug to travel through the body to the target site without being broken down. The drug can then be released at the target location.

  • Fullerenes have a hollow cage structure made of carbon atoms (1m)
  • Drugs can be encapsulated/trapped inside the hollow cage and transported through the body (1m)
  • The cage protects the drug from degradation / drug can be released at the target site (1m)

Fullerenes, such as buckminsterfullerene (C₆₀), are hollow spherical cage molecules made entirely of carbon atoms. This hollow cage structure is what makes them suitable for drug delivery. A drug molecule can be placed inside the cage, where it is enclosed and protected. As the fullerene travels through the body, the carbon cage shields the drug from enzymes and other chemicals that might break it down before it reaches the target site. Once the fullerene reaches the target cell, the drug is released. A common mistake is confusing fullerenes with graphene — graphene is a flat sheet, whereas fullerenes are closed 3D cage structures.

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8.

Evaluate whether nanoparticles should be used in consumer products. Include both advantages and potential risks in your answer.

3 marks · higherCommon

Nanoparticles have many useful properties because of their large surface area to volume ratio and nanoscale size. They are used in sun cream for transparent UV protection, in antibacterial products using silver nanoparticles, and in drug delivery for targeted treatment with fewer side effects. However, there are concerns about potential health risks. Nanoparticles are so small they can pass through cell membranes and accumulate in the body, and long-term effects are not fully understood. The precautionary principle suggests that until risks are properly assessed, widespread use should be approached with caution.

  • At least one specific advantage linked to a property (e.g., large surface area for catalysis; small size for drug delivery; antibacterial silver; transparent sun cream) (1m)
  • At least one specific risk: nanoparticles can pass through cell membranes / accumulate in body / long-term effects unknown (1m)
  • Balanced conclusion or evaluation: e.g., more research needed, precautionary principle applied, or benefits outweigh risks in specific contexts (1m)

An evaluate question requires both advantages and risks to be considered, with a conclusion. Advantages of nanoparticles in consumer products include their use in sun cream (titanium dioxide nanoparticles absorb UV but are transparent to visible light), their antibacterial properties (silver nanoparticles used in socks and wound dressings), their use as efficient catalysts due to large surface area, and targeted drug delivery. Risks include their ability to pass through biological membranes and potentially accumulate in body tissues with unknown long-term consequences, and environmental risks from release into water or soil. A balanced response acknowledges both sides and applies the precautionary principle: benefits may justify use in some contexts, but further research into long-term safety is needed.

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9.

Explain the potential environmental and health risks associated with the widespread use of nanoparticles.

3 marks · higherCommon

Nanoparticles are so small that they can pass through biological membranes, including in the lungs, skin, and gut. If inhaled or ingested, they may accumulate in organs or tissues and cause harm, though long-term effects are not yet fully understood. In the environment, nanoparticles released into water or soil may be toxic to organisms, potentially entering food chains and building up in the bodies of organisms. There is also concern that nanoparticles may not break down easily, persisting in the environment.

  • Nanoparticles can pass through biological membranes (enter body through skin/lungs/gut) and accumulate in tissues — health risk (1m)
  • Long-term health effects are not fully known / may cause harm to organs (1m)
  • Environmental risk: toxic to organisms in water/soil; may enter/accumulate in food chains; persist in environment (1m)

The same properties that make nanoparticles useful — their tiny size and ability to cross biological membranes — also create risks. Health risks: nanoparticles can enter the body through inhalation (lungs), ingestion (gut), or skin absorption. Once inside, they may accumulate in organs and tissues. The long-term health consequences are not yet fully understood, which makes this a significant concern. Environmental risks: nanoparticles released into waterways or soil can be toxic to aquatic and soil-dwelling organisms. They may be ingested by organisms and pass up the food chain, accumulating in higher organisms (bioaccumulation). Nanoparticles may also persist in the environment rather than breaking down. The precautionary principle suggests that widespread use should be limited until these risks are properly assessed.

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10.

State two features that distinguish nanoparticles from coarse particles.

2 marks · foundationCommon

Nanoparticles are between 1 and 100 nanometres in size, which is much smaller than coarse particles. Nanoparticles also have a much larger surface area to volume ratio than coarse particles of the same material.

  • Nanoparticles are 1-100 nanometres in size (much smaller than coarse particles) (1m)
  • Nanoparticles have a much larger surface area to volume ratio than coarse particles (1m)

Nanoparticles are defined as particles with a size between 1 and 100 nanometres (nm) in at least one dimension. This makes them far smaller than coarse particles (which are visible to the eye or detectable with a light microscope). The second key difference follows directly from size: as particles get smaller, the proportion of atoms on the outer surface increases relative to those inside, meaning the surface area to volume ratio is much larger for nanoparticles. This large ratio gives nanoparticles different and often enhanced properties compared to bulk material.

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11.

Explain why nanoparticles are particularly effective as catalysts.

2 marks · foundationCommon

Nanoparticles have a very large surface area to volume ratio. This means a greater proportion of the atoms in the material are on the surface and available to act as catalyst active sites. More surface atoms allow more reactant molecules to interact with the catalyst at any one time, making nanoparticle catalysts more efficient than bulk catalysts of the same material.

  • Nanoparticles have a large surface area to volume ratio (more surface atoms exposed) (1m)
  • More surface atoms provide more active sites for reactants, making catalysis more efficient (1m)

Catalysts work by providing a surface on which reactants can interact. Nanoparticles are particularly effective catalysts because their extremely small size gives them a very large surface area to volume ratio. This means a much higher proportion of the catalyst's atoms are on the surface and available as active sites where reactant molecules can bind and react. For the same mass of catalyst, a nanoparticle catalyst offers far more active sites than a bulk catalyst, so reactions proceed more efficiently and at lower concentrations of catalyst.

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12.

Describe the structure of graphene and state one property that arises from this structure.

2 marks · standardCommon

Graphene is a single layer of carbon atoms arranged in a hexagonal pattern, where each carbon atom is covalently bonded to three others. Because one electron per carbon atom is delocalised across the sheet, graphene is an excellent conductor of electricity.

  • Single layer of carbon atoms arranged in a hexagonal pattern, each bonded to three others by covalent bonds (1m)
  • Any one correct property: electrical conductor (delocalised electrons); very strong (many covalent bonds); very thin/lightweight (1m)

Graphene is a single-atom-thick sheet of carbon. The carbon atoms are arranged in a flat hexagonal (honeycomb) lattice, where each carbon atom forms three covalent bonds with its three nearest neighbours. Because each carbon uses only three of its four outer electrons for bonding, the fourth electron is delocalised and free to move across the whole sheet. This gives graphene excellent electrical conductivity. Graphene is also exceptionally strong because of the large number of covalent bonds throughout the structure. Its properties make it potentially useful in electronics, composite materials, and flexible screens.

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13.

Silver nanoparticles are used in wound dressings. Explain why silver nanoparticles are more effective as an antibacterial agent than the same mass of bulk silver.

2 marks · standardCommon

Silver nanoparticles have a much larger surface area to volume ratio than bulk silver. This means that a greater proportion of silver atoms are on the surface and in contact with bacteria. More silver atoms are available to interact with and kill the bacteria, making nanoparticle silver more effective than bulk silver of the same mass.

  • Silver nanoparticles have a larger surface area to volume ratio (more surface atoms exposed) (1m)
  • More surface silver atoms contact the bacteria, making the antibacterial action more effective (1m)

Silver has antibacterial properties, but the effectiveness depends on how many silver atoms are in contact with bacteria at any one time. Silver nanoparticles have a very large surface area to volume ratio compared to the same mass of bulk silver. This means a much higher proportion of silver atoms are on the surface and available to interact directly with bacterial cells. More surface atoms means more contact with bacteria, so the same mass of silver kills bacteria more effectively when in nanoparticle form than in bulk form. This principle applies whenever nanoparticles are used to enhance chemical activity: more surface = more interaction = better performance.

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14.

A student is comparing three types of particles: nanoparticles, fine particles, and coarse particles. Explain how nanoparticles differ from fine particles in terms of size and surface area to volume ratio.

2 marks · standardCommon

Nanoparticles are smaller than fine particles — nanoparticles are 1 to 100 nanometres in size whereas fine particles are larger, up to around 2500 nanometres. Because nanoparticles are smaller, they have a much larger surface area to volume ratio than fine particles.

  • Nanoparticles are smaller than fine particles / nanoparticles are 1-100 nm (fine particles are larger) (1m)
  • Nanoparticles have a larger/higher surface area to volume ratio than fine particles (1m)

Particles are classified by size. Coarse particles are the largest (visible to the naked eye, typically over 2500 nm). Fine particles are smaller, up to around 2500 nm. Nanoparticles are the smallest, defined as 1-100 nm in diameter. Because nanoparticles are smaller than fine particles, they also have a significantly larger surface area to volume ratio. This means nanoparticles have a higher proportion of their atoms on the surface, which gives them enhanced properties and different chemical behaviour. Fine particles also have a larger surface area to volume ratio than coarse particles, so the relationship is: nanoparticles > fine particles > coarse particles in terms of surface area to volume ratio.

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15.

What is the size range of nanoparticles?

  • A. 1-100 millimetres
  • B. 1-100 micrometres
  • C. 1-100 nanometres
  • D. 1-100 picometres
1 mark · foundationCommon

Nanoparticles are defined as particles with a size between 1 and 100 nanometres (nm). One nanometre = 10⁻⁹ metres, making nanoparticles far smaller than fine particles or coarse particles visible to the naked eye.

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16.

Why do nanoparticles have unusual properties compared to the same material in bulk?

  • A. They have a much lower surface area to volume ratio
  • B. They have a much higher surface area to volume ratio
  • C. They contain different types of atoms
  • D. They are less reactive than bulk materials
1 mark · foundationCommon

As particle size decreases to the nanoscale, the surface area to volume ratio increases dramatically. A much greater proportion of atoms are on the surface, which changes the chemical and physical properties of the material compared to the bulk form.

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17.

Silver nanoparticles are added to some sports socks. What is the purpose of this?

  • A. To make the socks waterproof
  • B. To make the socks conduct electricity
  • C. To kill bacteria and prevent odour
  • D. To make the socks lighter
1 mark · foundationCommon

Silver nanoparticles have antibacterial properties — they kill bacteria. In sports socks, bacteria break down sweat and produce odour. Adding silver nanoparticles prevents bacterial growth, reducing odour. This is a practical application of the enhanced reactivity of nanoparticles due to their large surface area.

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18.

Express 1 nanometre in metres using standard form.

1 mark · foundationCommon
  • 1 × 10⁻⁹ m (accept 10⁻⁹ m) (1m)

The prefix 'nano' means one billionth, so 1 nanometre = 1 × 10⁻⁹ metres. This is one thousandth of a micrometre and one millionth of a millimetre.

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19.

What is the name of the carbon nanoparticle that has a cylindrical tube structure?

1 mark · foundationCommon
  • carbon nanotube (accept: nanotube) (1m)

Carbon nanotubes are cylindrical structures made from rolled sheets of graphene. They are extremely strong and also electrically conductive, making them useful in electronics and as reinforcing materials.

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20.

Which of the following correctly describes buckminsterfullerene (C₆₀)?

  • A. A form of carbon where each atom forms 4 covalent bonds in a giant lattice
  • B. A molecule of 60 carbon atoms arranged in a hollow spherical cage
  • C. A layer of carbon atoms each bonded to 3 others in a flat hexagonal sheet
  • D. A tube of carbon atoms bonded to form a cylindrical nano-structure
1 mark · standardCommon

Buckminsterfullerene (C₆₀) is a molecule of 60 carbon atoms joined by covalent bonds and arranged in a hollow spherical cage resembling a football, with 12 pentagons and 20 hexagons. It was the first fullerene to be discovered.

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21.

Titanium dioxide nanoparticles are used in sun cream. What advantage do nanoparticles offer over larger particles of the same substance?

  • A. Nanoparticles are transparent to visible light, so the cream is invisible on skin
  • B. Nanoparticles appear white, giving the cream a uniform appearance
  • C. Nanoparticles absorb more oxygen, improving skin health
  • D. Nanoparticles are heavier and stay on skin longer
1 mark · standardCommon

Bulk titanium dioxide appears white and opaque, causing the unwanted white residue of older sun creams. At the nanoscale, titanium dioxide particles are too small to scatter visible light, making them transparent. They still absorb UV radiation, providing effective sun protection without a cosmetic disadvantage.

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22.

A scientist argues that nanoparticles should not be widely used in consumer products until their long-term health effects are fully understood. Which argument best supports this view?

  • A. Nanoparticles are too expensive to produce for consumer use
  • B. Nanoparticles are already banned in most countries
  • C. Nanoparticles do not have any useful properties so they are not worth the risk
  • D. Nanoparticles may pass through cell membranes and accumulate in the body with unknown long-term effects
1 mark · standardCommon

Because nanoparticles are so small, they can pass through biological barriers such as cell membranes. Their behaviour inside the body is not fully understood. If nanoparticles accumulate in organs or tissues, the long-term health effects could be harmful — justifying a precautionary approach before widespread use.

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Moles & Calculations

Common27
1.

Calcium carbonate reacts with hydrochloric acid according to the equation: CaCO₃(s) + 2HCl(aq) → CaCl₂(aq) + H₂O(l) + CO₂(g) (a) Calculate the number of moles in 25.0 g of calcium carbonate. (Mr of CaCO₃ = 100) [1 mark] (b) Using your answer to (a), calculate the mass of calcium chloride (CaCl₂) produced. (Mr of CaCl₂ = 111) [2 marks] (c) Calculate the volume of carbon dioxide gas produced at RTP. (Molar gas volume at RTP = 24 dm³/mol) [1 mark] (d) The student collects 20.0 g of CaCl₂. Calculate the percentage yield. [2 marks]

6 marks · challengeCommon

(a) n = m ÷ Mr = 25.0 ÷ 100 = 0.25 mol CaCO₃. (b) Mole ratio CaCO₃:CaCl₂ = 1:1, so moles CaCl₂ = 0.25 mol. Mass = n × Mr = 0.25 × 111 = 27.75 g. (c) Mole ratio CaCO₃:CO₂ = 1:1, so moles CO₂ = 0.25 mol. Volume = 0.25 × 24 = 6.0 dm³. (d) Theoretical yield = 27.75 g. % yield = (20.0 ÷ 27.75) × 100 = 72.1% (accept 72%).

  • (a) n = 25.0 ÷ 100 = 0.25 mol (1m)
  • (b) Mole ratio 1:1, moles CaCl₂ = 0.25 mol (1m)
  • (b) Mass = 0.25 × 111 = 27.75 g (1m)
  • (c) Moles CO₂ = 0.25 mol, volume = 0.25 × 24 = 6.0 dm³ (1m)
  • (d) Correct formula: % yield = (actual ÷ theoretical) × 100 (1m)
  • (d) % yield = (20.0 ÷ 27.75) × 100 = 72.1% (accept 72% to 72.2%) (1m)

This multi-step problem tests the full range of quantitative chemistry skills. (a) n = 25.0 ÷ 100 = 0.25 mol. (b) The 1:1 mole ratio (from the equation coefficient 1:1 for CaCO₃:CaCl₂) gives 0.25 mol CaCl₂; mass = 0.25 × 111 = 27.75 g. (c) The 1:1 ratio for CaCO₃:CO₂ gives 0.25 mol CO₂; volume at RTP = 0.25 × 24 = 6.0 dm³. (d) % yield = (20.0 ÷ 27.75) × 100 = 72.1%. Note: always use the theoretical yield calculated from the balanced equation (27.75 g), not the given mass.

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2.

A student reacts 6.5 g of zinc with excess hydrochloric acid according to the equation: Zn(s) + 2HCl(aq) → ZnCl₂(aq) + H₂(g) (Ar: Zn = 65, H = 1, Cl = 35.5. Molar gas volume at RTP = 24 dm³/mol) (a) Calculate the number of moles of zinc used. [1 mark] (b) Calculate the theoretical volume of hydrogen gas produced at room temperature and pressure (RTP). [2 marks] (c) The student actually collects 2.0 dm³ of hydrogen. Calculate the percentage yield for the gas collection. [2 marks] (d) Explain TWO reasons why the actual volume of hydrogen collected may be less than the theoretical value. [1 mark]

6 marks · challengeCommon

(a) n(Zn) = 6.5 ÷ 65 = 0.10 mol. (b) Mole ratio Zn:H₂ = 1:1, so moles H₂ = 0.10 mol. Volume = n × 24 = 0.10 × 24 = 2.4 dm³. (c) % yield = (actual ÷ theoretical) × 100 = (2.0 ÷ 2.4) × 100 = 83.3%. (d) Some hydrogen gas dissolved in the hydrochloric acid solution and was not collected. The student may not have collected all the gas before it escaped from the apparatus. Gas may also have leaked from joints in the apparatus.

  • (a) n(Zn) = 6.5 ÷ 65 = 0.10 mol (1m)
  • (b) Mole ratio Zn:H₂ = 1:1, so n(H₂) = 0.10 mol (1m)
  • (b) Volume = 0.10 × 24 = 2.4 dm³ (1m)
  • (c) % yield = (2.0 ÷ 2.4) × 100 = 83.3% (accept 83%) (1m)
  • (d) First reason: gas dissolved in the acid / escaped before collection / leaked from apparatus joints (any one valid reason) (0.5m)
  • (d) Second reason: a different valid reason for gas loss (total 1 mark for two valid reasons together) (0.5m)

This question integrates moles, gas volume calculations, percentage yield, and evaluative reasoning. (a) n(Zn) = m ÷ Ar = 6.5 ÷ 65 = 0.10 mol. (b) The balanced equation shows Zn:H₂ = 1:1, so n(H₂) = 0.10 mol; volume = n × 24 = 2.4 dm³. (c) Percentage yield = (actual ÷ theoretical) × 100 = (2.0 ÷ 2.4) × 100 = 83.3%. (d) For the evaluation, students need to think about what could cause gas loss: hydrogen is slightly soluble in water so some dissolves in the acid; some gas may escape before collection begins (especially with rapid reactions); leaks at apparatus joints reduce the collected volume; the tube connecting to the collection vessel may have contained air at the start. The distinction between a calculation error and a genuine experimental reason is important — only experimental causes score the mark.

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3.

Calcium carbonate decomposes on heating according to the equation: CaCO₃(s) → CaO(s) + CO₂(g) In an industrial process, 100 g of calcium carbonate is heated and 33.6 g of calcium oxide is produced. (Mr: CaCO₃ = 100, CaO = 56) (a) Calculate the theoretical yield of calcium oxide. [2 marks] (b) Calculate the percentage yield for this process. [2 marks] (c) Evaluate THREE reasons why 100% yield is rarely achieved in industrial chemical processes. [2 marks]

6 marks · challengeCommon

(a) n(CaCO₃) = 100 ÷ 100 = 1.00 mol. Mole ratio CaCO₃:CaO = 1:1, so n(CaO) = 1.00 mol. Theoretical yield = 1.00 × 56 = 56 g. (b) % yield = (actual ÷ theoretical) × 100 = (33.6 ÷ 56) × 100 = 60.0%. (c) In industrial processes, 100% yield is rarely achieved because: (1) Reactions may be reversible and reach equilibrium before all reactants convert to products. (2) Some product is lost during collection, transfer, or purification steps. (3) Side reactions may occur in which reactants form unwanted by-products instead of the desired product. Additionally, incomplete decomposition may occur if the reaction is not heated long enough or at high enough temperature.

  • (a) n(CaCO₃) = 100 ÷ 100 = 1.00 mol and mole ratio 1:1 applied (1m)
  • (a) Theoretical yield = 1.00 × 56 = 56 g (1m)
  • (b) Correct formula applied: % yield = (33.6 ÷ 56) × 100 (1m)
  • (b) % yield = 60.0% (accept 60%) (1m)
  • (c) One valid reason: reversible reaction / reaction does not go to completion / product lost in transfer or purification (accept practical losses) (0.67m)
  • (c) Second valid reason (different from first, any from: side reactions, equilibrium not fully to the right, incomplete heating, loss during collection) (0.67m)
  • (c) Third valid reason (different again) (0.66m)

This question links percentage yield calculation with conceptual understanding of why industrial processes are inefficient. (a) n(CaCO₃) = 100 ÷ 100 = 1.00 mol; 1:1 ratio gives 1.00 mol CaO; theoretical yield = 1.00 × 56 = 56 g. (b) % yield = (33.6 ÷ 56) × 100 = 60.0%. (c) Three categories of reasons exist: practical losses (product lost during collection or transfer between stages), chemical equilibrium (reversible reactions reach equilibrium before completion — CaCO₃ decomposition is reversible at industrial temperatures), and side reactions (reactants diverted into unwanted by-products). Students must give three distinct reasons to score both marks in part (c). Repeating the same type of loss in different words only counts once.

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4.

Describe how to determine the empirical formula of a metal oxide by experiment. A student heats a known mass of magnesium in a crucible open to the air and measures the mass of the metal oxide formed. (Ar: Mg = 24, O = 16) Include in your answer: (a) The experimental procedure (method and measurements). [2 marks] (b) How to calculate the empirical formula from the experimental data. [2 marks] (c) Two sources of error that could affect the accuracy of the result. [2 marks]

6 marks · challengeCommon

(a) Weigh the empty crucible and lid. Add a known mass of magnesium ribbon (coiled or cut into short lengths) and record the mass. Heat strongly with the lid slightly ajar to allow air in. Lift the lid occasionally to let air reach the magnesium. Continue heating until no further mass change. Allow to cool and reweigh the crucible, lid, and contents. The mass increase is the mass of oxygen that has combined with the magnesium. (b) Calculate the mass of oxygen: mass of oxygen = final mass − initial mass of Mg. Calculate moles of Mg: n(Mg) = mass ÷ 24. Calculate moles of O: n(O) = mass of oxygen ÷ 16. Find the simplest whole-number ratio of n(Mg) : n(O). This gives the empirical formula. (c) Source of error 1: Magnesium reacts with nitrogen in air to form magnesium nitride (Mg₃N₂) instead of magnesium oxide. This means the mass of oxygen combined is underestimated, giving an incorrect formula. Source of error 2: If the crucible lid is lifted too infrequently, magnesium oxide smoke escapes and is lost from the crucible, making the measured mass of oxygen too low.

  • (a) Record initial mass of crucible + Mg; heat with lid slightly ajar (to allow air in while preventing MgO loss); reweigh after complete reaction and cooling (1m)
  • (a) Mass increase = mass of oxygen that combined with Mg (used in calculation) (1m)
  • (b) Moles Mg = mass ÷ 24; moles O = mass of oxygen ÷ 16 (1m)
  • (b) Simplest ratio of moles Mg : moles O gives the empirical formula (e.g. 1:1 gives MgO) (1m)
  • (c) First source of error: Mg reacts with N₂ in air to form magnesium nitride (Mg₃N₂), so the mass increase is not solely from oxygen / formula is incorrect (1m)
  • (c) Second source of error: MgO smoke escapes if lid is lifted too much / incomplete heating means not all Mg reacts / any valid experimental error with explanation (1m)

This question assesses practical design and calculation skills together. For the procedure, the key measurements are the mass of the crucible and magnesium before heating, and the mass of crucible and metal oxide after complete heating and cooling. The lid is kept slightly ajar throughout: fully closed prevents air reaching the Mg, fully open allows MgO smoke to escape. The mass increase equals the mass of oxygen that bonded to the magnesium. For the calculation: divide the mass of Mg by its Ar (24) to get moles of Mg; divide the mass of O gained by 16 to get moles of O; find the simplest whole-number ratio to determine the empirical formula. For sources of error, the two most important are: (1) Mg reacts with atmospheric nitrogen as well as oxygen, forming Mg₃N₂ alongside MgO — this changes the apparent mass increase and gives an incorrect formula; (2) if the lid is raised too often or for too long, white MgO smoke escapes and is lost, underestimating the mass of oxygen that combined. Both errors lead to an incorrect mole ratio and hence an incorrect empirical formula.

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5.

In a titration, 25.0 cm³ of sodium hydroxide solution of unknown concentration is completely neutralised by 20.0 cm³ of 0.10 mol/dm³ hydrochloric acid. The equation for the reaction is: NaOH(aq) + HCl(aq) → NaCl(aq) + H₂O(l) Calculate the concentration of the sodium hydroxide solution and explain each step of your working. (5 marks)

5 marks · challengeCommon

Step 1: Calculate moles of HCl. n(HCl) = c × V = 0.10 × (20.0 ÷ 1000) = 0.10 × 0.020 = 0.0020 mol. Step 2: Use the mole ratio. The equation shows NaOH:HCl = 1:1, so moles of NaOH = 0.0020 mol. Step 3: Convert volume of NaOH to dm³. 25.0 cm³ ÷ 1000 = 0.025 dm³. Step 4: Calculate concentration of NaOH. c = n ÷ V = 0.0020 ÷ 0.025 = 0.080 mol/dm³. Step 5: The technique used is a titration. A burette delivers the acid accurately to the conical flask containing the alkali and indicator until the endpoint is reached.

  • Moles of HCl = c × V = 0.10 × 0.020 = 0.0020 mol (correct calculation) (1m)
  • Mole ratio NaOH:HCl = 1:1, so moles NaOH = 0.0020 mol (accept: use equation to find moles of NaOH) (1m)
  • Volume conversion: 25.0 cm³ ÷ 1000 = 0.025 dm³ (1m)
  • c(NaOH) = n ÷ V = 0.0020 ÷ 0.025 = 0.080 mol/dm³ (correct answer with working) (1m)
  • Identification of technique: titration; burette used to add acid accurately; indicator shows endpoint (any two relevant technique details) (1m)

This titration calculation has five distinct steps that must all be present for full marks. First, calculate the moles of the known solution (HCl) using n = c × V, remembering to convert cm³ to dm³ by dividing by 1000: n = 0.10 × 0.020 = 0.0020 mol. Second, use the 1:1 mole ratio from the balanced equation to find that the same number of moles of NaOH were used. Third, convert the NaOH volume from cm³ to dm³: 25.0 ÷ 1000 = 0.025 dm³. Fourth, calculate the concentration using c = n ÷ V: 0.0020 ÷ 0.025 = 0.080 mol/dm³. Fifth, explain the technique: a burette delivers acid dropwise to alkali in a conical flask containing an indicator; the colour change marks the endpoint. The most common error is forgetting to convert cm³ to dm³, which gives a concentration 1000 times too large.

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6.

The industrial production of ethanol can be carried out by the hydration of ethene: C₂H₄(g) + H₂O(g) ⇌ C₂H₅OH(g) (Mr: C₂H₄ = 28, H₂O = 18, C₂H₅OH = 46) Compare atom economy and percentage yield as measures of the efficiency of a chemical process. Use the production of ethanol by hydration of ethene as an example in your answer. (5 marks)

5 marks · challengeCommon

Atom economy measures what proportion of the mass of all reactants ends up in the desired product, regardless of how much product is actually made. For the hydration of ethene: atom economy = (Mr of ethanol ÷ total Mr of all reactants) × 100 = (46 ÷ (28 + 18)) × 100 = (46 ÷ 46) × 100 = 100%. This means every atom of reactant theoretically ends up in the ethanol. Percentage yield measures what fraction of the theoretical maximum of product is actually collected in a specific experiment. Because the reaction is reversible (shown by ⇌), equilibrium is reached before all reactants convert, so the percentage yield is always below 100%. The two measures give different information: atom economy is a property of the reaction itself, while percentage yield depends on the experimental conditions.

  • Atom economy definition: proportion of reactant mass (atoms) converted to desired product (accept: Mr of desired product ÷ total Mr of all products × 100) (1m)
  • Correct atom economy calculation for ethanol: (46 ÷ 46) × 100 = 100% with working shown (1m)
  • Percentage yield definition: (actual yield ÷ theoretical yield) × 100, measuring how much product was collected versus maximum possible (1m)
  • Percentage yield is below 100% for ethanol hydration because the reaction is reversible (shown by ⇌) and equilibrium is not fully on the product side (1m)
  • Comparison showing they measure different things: atom economy is a property of the reaction pathway itself (about waste production); percentage yield depends on experimental conditions and how far the reaction goes (1m)

Atom economy and percentage yield are both measures of efficiency but they assess different things. Atom economy is calculated as (Mr of desired product ÷ sum of Mr of all products) × 100 and tells you how much of the reactant mass ends up in the useful product — this is a fixed value for a given reaction equation. For ethanol hydration, C₂H₄ + H₂O → C₂H₅OH, atom economy = (46 ÷ 46) × 100 = 100% because there is only one product, so all atoms are incorporated. Percentage yield measures how much of the theoretical maximum product was actually obtained in a specific experiment. Because the hydration of ethene is reversible (the equilibrium double arrow ⇌ shows this), the reaction reaches equilibrium before completion, meaning the percentage yield is always less than 100%. A process can have 100% atom economy but poor percentage yield (as here), or a low atom economy but good percentage yield.

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7.

Zinc reacts with hydrochloric acid: Zn(s) + 2HCl(aq) → ZnCl₂(aq) + H₂(g). Calculate the atom economy for the production of hydrogen gas, H₂. (Ar: Zn = 65, Cl = 35.5, H = 1)

4 marks · higherCommon

Mr(H₂) = 2. Mr(ZnCl₂) = 65 + (2 × 35.5) = 65 + 71 = 136. Total Mr of all products = 136 + 2 = 138. Atom economy = (2 ÷ 138) × 100 = 1.45%

  • Mr(H₂) = 2 (1m)
  • Mr(ZnCl₂) = 136 (1m)
  • Total Mr of all products = 136 + 2 = 138 (1m)
  • Atom economy = (2 ÷ 138) × 100 = 1.45% (accept 1.4% to 1.5%) (1m)

Atom economy = (Mr of desired product ÷ total Mr of ALL products) × 100. The products are H₂ (desired, Mr = 2) and ZnCl₂ (waste, Mr = 65 + 71 = 136). Total products Mr = 2 + 136 = 138. Atom economy = (2 ÷ 138) × 100 = 1.45%. This extremely low value means 98.55% of atoms go into the waste product ZnCl₂.

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8.

Magnesium burns in oxygen according to: 2Mg(s) + O₂(g) → 2MgO(s). Calculate the mass of magnesium oxide produced when 4.8 g of magnesium is completely burned. (Ar: Mg = 24, O = 16)

4 marks · higherCommon

Mr(Mg) = 24, Mr(MgO) = 24 + 16 = 40. Mole ratio Mg:MgO = 2:2 = 1:1. Moles of Mg = 4.8 ÷ 24 = 0.2 mol. Moles of MgO = 0.2 mol (1:1 ratio). Mass of MgO = 0.2 × 40 = 8 g

  • Mr(Mg) = 24, Mr(MgO) = 40 (1m)
  • Moles of Mg = 4.8 ÷ 24 = 0.2 mol (1m)
  • Mole ratio Mg:MgO = 1:1, so moles of MgO = 0.2 mol (1m)
  • Mass of MgO = 0.2 × 40 = 8 g (1m)

Step 1: Find Mr values. Mr(Mg) = 24; Mr(MgO) = 24 + 16 = 40. Step 2: Calculate moles of Mg. n = m ÷ Mr = 4.8 ÷ 24 = 0.2 mol. Step 3: Use mole ratio from balanced equation. 2Mg:2MgO = 1:1 ratio, so moles MgO = 0.2 mol. Step 4: Calculate mass. m = n × Mr = 0.2 × 40 = 8 g. This can also be checked using mass ratios: 2 × 24 = 48 g Mg produces 2 × 40 = 80 g MgO, so 4.8 g Mg produces (4.8/48) × 80 = 8 g MgO.

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9.

Calculate the mass of 0.5 mol of sodium chloride, NaCl. (Mr of NaCl = 58.5)

3 marks · higherCommon

m = n × Mr = 0.5 × 58.5 = 29.25 g

  • Correct rearranged formula: m = n × Mr (1m)
  • Correct substitution: 0.5 × 58.5 (1m)
  • Correct answer: 29.25 g (accept 29.3 g) (1m)

Rearranging n = m ÷ Mr gives m = n × Mr. Substituting: m = 0.5 × 58.5 = 29.25 g. Note that the answer requires the unit grams (g), though Mr itself has no units.

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10.

0.2 mol of sodium hydroxide (NaOH) is dissolved in 500 cm³ of water. Calculate the concentration of the solution in mol/dm³.

3 marks · higherCommon

Convert volume: 500 cm³ ÷ 1000 = 0.5 dm³. Concentration = n ÷ V = 0.2 ÷ 0.5 = 0.4 mol/dm³

  • Correct volume conversion: 500 cm³ = 0.5 dm³ (divide by 1000) (1m)
  • Correct formula used: c = n ÷ V (1m)
  • Correct answer: 0.4 mol/dm³ (1m)

Step 1: Convert cm³ to dm³ by dividing by 1000: 500 ÷ 1000 = 0.5 dm³. Step 2: Apply c = n ÷ V = 0.2 ÷ 0.5 = 0.4 mol/dm³. The volume conversion is the most common error - remember 1 dm³ = 1000 cm³.

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11.

Calculate the percentage by mass of carbon in methane, CH₄. (Ar: C = 12, H = 1)

3 marks · higherCommon

Mr(CH₄) = 12 + (4 × 1) = 16. % by mass of C = (Ar of C ÷ Mr of CH₄) × 100 = (12 ÷ 16) × 100 = 75%

  • Mr(CH₄) = 12 + 4 = 16 (1m)
  • Correct method: (12 ÷ 16) × 100 (1m)
  • Correct answer: 75% (1m)

Step 1: Calculate Mr(CH₄) = 12 + (4 × 1) = 16. Step 2: % by mass of C = (total Ar of C atoms ÷ Mr of compound) × 100 = (12 ÷ 16) × 100 = 75%. Carbon accounts for 75% of the mass of methane.

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12.

State the law of conservation of mass and explain why the measured mass appears to decrease when a carbonate reacts with acid in an open container.

3 marks · higherCommon

The law of conservation of mass states that the total mass of reactants equals the total mass of products because atoms are rearranged but not created or destroyed. When a carbonate reacts with acid in an open container, carbon dioxide gas is produced, which escapes into the atmosphere. Because the CO₂ is no longer on the balance, the measured mass of the container and its contents decreases, even though the total mass including the escaped gas is conserved.

  • State the law: total mass of reactants equals total mass of products (accept: mass is conserved / atoms are not created or destroyed) (1m)
  • Carbon dioxide gas is produced in the reaction (accept CO₂) (1m)
  • The CO₂ gas escapes from the open container into the atmosphere, so it is no longer measured on the balance, causing the apparent decrease in mass (1m)

The law of conservation of mass states that the total mass of products always equals the total mass of reactants because atoms are not created or destroyed — they are simply rearranged into new compounds. When calcium carbonate (or any carbonate) reacts with acid, carbon dioxide gas is produced as one of the products. In a closed container, the CO₂ would remain and the mass on the balance would stay constant. But in an open container, the CO₂ gas escapes into the surrounding atmosphere. The balance only measures what remains in the container, so the measured mass decreases. This does not violate conservation of mass — the mass of escaped CO₂ is accounted for if you include the surrounding air.

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13.

Explain how you would calculate the mass of product formed in a reaction, given the mass of one reactant and a balanced equation.

3 marks · higherCommon

First, calculate the relative formula mass (Mr) of the reactant and the product. Then, calculate the number of moles of the reactant using n = mass ÷ Mr. Next, use the mole ratio from the balanced equation to find the number of moles of product formed. Finally, calculate the mass of the product using mass = moles × Mr of product.

  • Calculate Mr of reactant (and product) (1m)
  • Calculate moles of reactant using n = mass ÷ Mr, then apply mole ratio from balanced equation to find moles of product (1m)
  • Calculate mass of product using mass = moles × Mr of product (1m)

This is a standard 4-step reacting masses calculation. Step 1: Calculate the relative formula mass (Mr) of the reactant (and the product) by summing the Ar values of all atoms present. Step 2: Calculate the number of moles of the given reactant using n = mass ÷ Mr. Step 3: Use the balanced chemical equation to find the mole ratio between the reactant and the desired product. Multiply the moles of reactant by this ratio to get moles of product. Step 4: Convert moles of product back to mass using mass = moles × Mr of product. A common mistake is forgetting to apply the mole ratio from the equation, or using the wrong Mr values.

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14.

Calculate the relative formula mass (Mr) of water, H₂O. (Ar: H = 1, O = 16)

2 marks · standardCommon

Mr(H₂O) = (2 × 1) + 16 = 2 + 16 = 18

  • Correct method: (2 × Ar of H) + (1 × Ar of O), i.e. (2 × 1) + 16 (1m)
  • Correct answer: 18 (no units - Mr is a ratio) (1m)

Mr is calculated by summing the Ar (relative atomic mass) of each atom, multiplied by how many there are. H₂O has 2 hydrogen atoms (Ar = 1 each) and 1 oxygen atom (Ar = 16). Mr = (2 × 1) + (1 × 16) = 18. Note: Mr has no units because it is a ratio relative to 1/12 of a carbon-12 atom.

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15.

Calculate the relative formula mass (Mr) of calcium hydroxide, Ca(OH)₂. (Ar: Ca = 40, O = 16, H = 1)

2 marks · standardCommon

Mr(Ca(OH)₂) = 40 + (2 × 16) + (2 × 1) = 40 + 32 + 2 = 74

  • Correct method: 40 + (2 × 16) + (2 × 1), recognising that (OH) appears twice (1m)
  • Correct answer: 74 (no units) (1m)

Ca(OH)₂ contains: 1 Ca atom (Ar = 40), 2 O atoms (Ar = 16 each), and 2 H atoms (Ar = 1 each). The subscript 2 outside the bracket means everything inside (OH) is multiplied by 2. Mr = 40 + (2 × 16) + (2 × 1) = 40 + 32 + 2 = 74.

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16.

Calculate the relative formula mass (Mr) of sulfuric acid, H₂SO₄. (Ar: H = 1, S = 32, O = 16)

2 marks · standardCommon

Mr(H₂SO₄) = (2 × 1) + 32 + (4 × 16) = 2 + 32 + 64 = 98

  • Correct method: (2 × 1) + 32 + (4 × 16) (1m)
  • Correct answer: 98 (no units) (1m)

H₂SO₄ contains: 2 H atoms (Ar = 1 each), 1 S atom (Ar = 32), and 4 O atoms (Ar = 16 each). Mr = (2 × 1) + 32 + (4 × 16) = 2 + 32 + 64 = 98.

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17.

Calculate the number of moles in 44 g of carbon dioxide, CO₂. (Mr of CO₂ = 44)

2 marks · standardCommon

n = m ÷ Mr = 44 ÷ 44 = 1 mol

  • Correct formula used: n = m ÷ Mr (1m)
  • Correct answer: 1 mol (1m)

Using n = m ÷ Mr: n = 44 ÷ 44 = 1 mol. When the mass equals the Mr of a substance, you always have exactly 1 mole.

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18.

A student obtains 8 g of product from a reaction. The theoretical yield is 10 g. Calculate the percentage yield.

2 marks · standardCommon

Percentage yield = (actual ÷ theoretical) × 100 = (8 ÷ 10) × 100 = 80%

  • Correct formula: % yield = (actual ÷ theoretical) × 100 (1m)
  • Correct answer: 80% (1m)

Percentage yield = (actual yield ÷ theoretical yield) × 100 = (8 ÷ 10) × 100 = 80%. A yield of 80% means the student obtained 80% of the maximum possible product.

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19.

Explain why the percentage yield of a reaction is never 100% in practice.

2 marks · standardCommon

The percentage yield is never 100% because some product is lost during transfer between containers or during filtration. Reactions may also be reversible and not go to completion, leaving some reactants unreacted. Side reactions can also occur, converting reactants into unwanted products.

  • One reason for yield below 100%: product is lost in transfer, filtration, or evaporation (accept any valid practical reason) (1m)
  • Second reason: reaction is reversible / incomplete / side reactions occur / reactants not completely converted (accept any valid chemical reason) (1m)

Percentage yield compares the actual mass of product obtained to the theoretical maximum. It is never 100% in practice because of two main categories of reasons. Practical losses: product is inevitably lost during procedures such as filtering, transferring between containers, or evaporating. Drops left on glassware reduce the final mass collected. Chemical reasons: some reactions are reversible and reach an equilibrium before all reactants are converted, leaving some unreacted starting material. Side reactions can also convert some reactants into unwanted by-products instead of the desired product. Students should be able to give at least one reason from each category.

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20.

Describe why a high atom economy is important for sustainable chemistry.

2 marks · standardCommon

A high atom economy means that a greater proportion of the reactant atoms are converted into the desired product, producing less waste. This is important for sustainable chemistry because it reduces the use of raw materials and reduces the amount of waste products that need to be disposed of, lowering environmental impact.

  • High atom economy means fewer/less waste products are produced (more atoms go into desired product) (1m)
  • This conserves raw materials / reduces environmental impact / reduces cost of disposing of waste / more sustainable use of resources (1m)

Atom economy measures the proportion of reactant atoms that end up in the desired product. A reaction with high atom economy converts most of the reactant atoms into useful product, leaving very little waste. This matters for sustainable chemistry for two reasons: first, fewer raw materials are consumed for the same amount of product; second, less waste material needs to be disposed of, reducing environmental pollution and the cost of waste treatment. Reactions with low atom economy may be efficient in terms of yield, but they still generate large quantities of unwanted by-products that have to be dealt with. A common mistake is confusing atom economy with percentage yield — they measure different things.

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21.

One mole of any substance contains how many particles?

  • A. 6.02 × 10²³
  • B. 6.02 × 10²⁰
  • C. 3.01 × 10²³
  • D. 6.02 × 10¹⁸
1 mark · foundationCommon

One mole of any substance contains exactly 6.02 × 10²³ particles. This is Avogadro's constant (NA). The particles may be atoms, molecules, ions, or formula units depending on the substance.

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22.

Which formula correctly calculates the number of moles (n) from mass (m) and relative formula mass (Mr)?

  • A. n = m × Mr
  • B. n = Mr ÷ m
  • C. n = m ÷ Mr
  • D. n = m + Mr
1 mark · foundationCommon

The mole formula is n = m ÷ Mr, where n is moles, m is mass in grams, and Mr is the relative formula mass. Rearranging: m = n × Mr, and Mr = m ÷ n.

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23.

The law of conservation of mass states that in a chemical reaction:

  • A. Mass is created from energy
  • B. The total mass of reactants equals the total mass of products
  • C. Products always have more mass than reactants
  • D. Mass is destroyed when gases are produced
1 mark · foundationCommon

Atoms are never created or destroyed in a chemical reaction - they are rearranged. Therefore the total mass of reactants always equals the total mass of products. Mass is only apparently lost in open containers when gaseous products escape.

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24.

The formula for percentage yield is:

  • A. (actual yield ÷ theoretical yield) × 100
  • B. (theoretical yield ÷ actual yield) × 100
  • C. (actual yield − theoretical yield) × 100
  • D. (actual yield × theoretical yield) × 100
1 mark · foundationCommon

Percentage yield = (actual yield ÷ theoretical yield) × 100. Actual yield is what you obtain in the experiment; theoretical yield is the maximum calculated from the balanced equation. The result is always between 0% and 100%.

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25.

Which formula correctly calculates the concentration (c) of a solution?

  • A. c = n × V
  • B. c = V ÷ n
  • C. c = n ÷ V
  • D. c = n + V
1 mark · foundationCommon

Concentration (c) = moles (n) ÷ volume in dm³ (V). The unit is mol/dm³. A more concentrated solution has more moles in the same volume.

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26.

At room temperature and pressure (RTP), what volume does one mole of any gas occupy?

  • A. 22.4 dm³
  • B. 24 dm³
  • C. 2.4 dm³
  • D. 240 dm³
1 mark · standardCommon

At RTP (room temperature and pressure: 25°C, 1 atm), one mole of any gas occupies 24 dm³. Note: 22.4 dm³ is the molar volume at STP (0°C, 1 atm) - this is an A-level value, not the GCSE RTP value.

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27.

The atom economy formula is:

  • A. (Mr of reactants ÷ Mr of desired product) × 100
  • B. (Mr of desired product ÷ Mr of all reactants) × 100
  • C. (actual yield ÷ theoretical yield) × 100
  • D. (Mr of desired product ÷ total Mr of all products) × 100
1 mark · standardCommon

Atom economy = (Mr of desired product ÷ total Mr of all products) × 100. It measures how efficiently atoms in the reactants are converted into the desired product. A high atom economy means less waste is produced.

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Gas Volume

Common20
1.

A student reacts 6.5 g of zinc with excess hydrochloric acid. The equation for the reaction is: Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl₂ + H₂ (Ar of Zn = 65) Calculate the volume of hydrogen gas produced at RTP. Show all your working.

5 marks · higherCommon

Step 1: Moles of Zn = 6.5 ÷ 65 = 0.10 mol. Step 2: From the equation, Zn:H₂ = 1:1, so moles of H₂ = 0.10 mol. Step 3: Volume of H₂ = 0.10 × 24 = 2.4 dm³.

  • Moles of Zn = mass ÷ Ar = 6.5 ÷ 65 = 0.10 mol (1m)
  • Mole ratio Zn:H₂ = 1:1 (from equation), so moles of H₂ = 0.10 mol (1m)
  • Volume of H₂ = moles × 24 = 0.10 × 24 (1m)
  • = 2.4 dm³ (1m)
  • Correct working shown with appropriate units and clear step-by-step method throughout (1m)

This is a three-step gas volume calculation using a balanced equation: 1. Mass to moles: n(Zn) = 6.5 ÷ 65 = 0.10 mol 2. Moles via equation ratio: Zn:H₂ is 1:1, so n(H₂) = 0.10 mol 3. Moles to volume: V = 0.10 × 24 = 2.4 dm³ Note: zinc is the limiting reagent since HCl is in excess. All moles of Zn react. In cm³: 0.10 × 24000 = 2400 cm³.

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2.

Explain how to calculate the mass of a reactant given the volume of a gas product formed at RTP. Include any formula you would use.

3 marks · higherCommon

First, convert the volume of gas to moles using moles = volume ÷ 24 (if in dm³) or moles = volume ÷ 24000 (if in cm³). Then use the molar ratio from the balanced equation to find the moles of the reactant. Finally, convert moles of reactant to mass using mass = moles × Mr.

  • Moles of gas = volume ÷ 24 (dm³) or ÷ 24000 (cm³) (1m)
  • Use the molar ratio from the balanced equation to convert moles of gas product to moles of reactant (1m)
  • Mass of reactant = moles × Mr (1m)

This is a three-step reverse calculation: volume → moles (÷24 or ÷24000) → apply equation ratio → mass (× Mr). Students must read the stoichiometric coefficients from the balanced equation to correctly apply the ratio.

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3.

Calculate the volume in cm³ of 0.15 moles of carbon dioxide gas at RTP.

2 marks · standardCommon
  • Correct method: volume = moles × 24000 (or equivalent conversion to cm³) (1m)
  • Correct answer: 3600 cm³ (1m)

Volume (cm³) = moles × 24000. Substituting: 0.15 × 24000 = 3600 cm³. Alternatively: 0.15 × 24 = 3.6 dm³, then × 1000 = 3600 cm³.

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4.

Explain why the molar gas volume of 24 dm³/mol is only valid at RTP.

2 marks · standardCommon

The volume of a gas depends on both temperature and pressure. If the temperature increases, gas molecules move faster and the gas expands, so the volume increases. If the pressure increases, the gas is compressed and the volume decreases. The value 24 dm³/mol is only correct at RTP (25 °C, 1 atm). At different conditions the molar volume will be different.

  • Gas volume changes with temperature (higher temperature → greater volume) OR with pressure (higher pressure → smaller volume) (1m)
  • The 24 dm³/mol value is specific to RTP conditions; different conditions give a different molar volume (1m)

Gas volume is directly proportional to temperature (in Kelvin) and inversely proportional to pressure. If conditions differ from RTP, the molar volume will be different. At STP (0 °C), the molar volume is 22.4 dm³/mol rather than 24 dm³/mol.

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5.

Describe the steps needed to calculate the volume of a gas at RTP from the mass of the substance.

2 marks · standardCommon

First, calculate the number of moles using the formula moles = mass ÷ Mr. Then multiply the number of moles by 24 to give the volume in dm³.

  • Moles = mass ÷ Mr (or equivalent statement about dividing mass by relative formula mass) (1m)
  • Volume = moles × 24 (dm³) at RTP (1m)

The two-step process: (1) n = mass ÷ Mr gives the number of moles. (2) V = n × 24 converts moles to volume in dm³ at RTP. This can also be done in cm³ using V = n × 24000.

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6.

Explain why all gases have the same molar volume at the same temperature and pressure.

2 marks · standardCommon

Gas molecules are very far apart compared to their size. The volume of a gas is mainly determined by the space between molecules, not the size or mass of the molecules themselves. Because all gases have the same large distances between molecules at the same temperature and pressure, they all occupy the same volume per mole.

  • Gas molecules are widely spaced / volume is determined by the space between molecules rather than the molecules themselves (1m)
  • At the same temperature and pressure, all gases have the same spacing between molecules, giving the same molar volume (1m)

The volume occupied by a gas is almost entirely the space between molecules. At the same temperature, all gas molecules have the same average kinetic energy, and at the same pressure the spacing between molecules is identical regardless of molecular mass. Hence molar volume is the same for all gases at the same conditions.

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7.

Explain the difference between using dm³ and cm³ in gas volume calculations at RTP, and how you would convert between the two.

2 marks · standardCommon

The molar gas volume at RTP is 24 dm³/mol or 24,000 cm³/mol. To convert dm³ to cm³, multiply by 1000. To convert cm³ to dm³, divide by 1000. When using dm³, divide or multiply by 24; when using cm³, divide or multiply by 24,000.

  • 1 dm³ = 1000 cm³ (or 24 dm³ = 24,000 cm³) (1m)
  • When volume is in cm³ use 24,000 instead of 24 (or convert cm³ to dm³ by dividing by 1000 first) (1m)

The unit prefix 'd' (deci) means 1/10, so 1 dm = 0.1 m. Therefore 1 dm³ = (0.1 m)³ = 0.001 m³ = 1000 cm³. In gas calculations: V(dm³) × 1000 = V(cm³). Students must choose 24 or 24,000 depending on the unit given in the question.

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8.

4.4 g of carbon dioxide (Mr = 44) is produced in a reaction. Calculate the volume of gas produced at RTP.

2 marks · higherCommon
  • Moles of CO₂ = 4.4 ÷ 44 = 0.10 mol (1m)
  • Volume = 0.10 × 24 = 2.4 dm³ (1m)

Step 1: moles = mass ÷ Mr = 4.4 ÷ 44 = 0.10 mol. Step 2: volume = moles × 24 = 0.10 × 24 = 2.4 dm³.

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9.

What mass of magnesium is needed to produce 1200 cm³ of hydrogen gas at RTP? (Mg + 2HCl → MgCl₂ + H₂, Ar of Mg = 24)

2 marks · higherCommon
  • Moles of H₂ = 1200 ÷ 24000 = 0.050 mol (1m)
  • Moles of Mg = 0.050 mol (1:1 ratio); mass of Mg = 0.050 × 24 = 1.2 g (1m)

Step 1: moles of H₂ = 1200 ÷ 24000 = 0.050 mol. Step 2: from the equation, Mg:H₂ = 1:1, so moles of Mg = 0.050 mol. Step 3: mass = moles × Ar = 0.050 × 24 = 1.2 g.

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10.

Explain why the molar gas volume approach (using 24 dm³/mol) cannot be used to calculate the volume of liquids or solids.

2 marks · higherCommon

In liquids and solids the particles are very close together and touching. The volume therefore depends on the size of the particles, which varies from substance to substance. Unlike gases, liquids and solids do not all have the same molar volume, so 24 dm³/mol does not apply to them.

  • In liquids and solids, particles are closely packed / touching / no significant gaps between particles (1m)
  • Volume depends on the size/mass of the particles (different for each substance), so there is no fixed molar volume; 24 dm³/mol does not apply (1m)

The 24 dm³/mol rule works for gases because intermolecular distances dominate and are the same for all gases at the same conditions. In liquids and solids, particles are in direct contact, so volume is determined by molecular size and mass, which varies between substances. Each liquid or solid therefore has its own unique molar volume.

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11.

What is the molar gas volume at RTP (room temperature and pressure)?

  • A. 12 dm³/mol
  • B. 22.4 dm³/mol
  • C. 24 dm³/mol
  • D. 48 dm³/mol
1 mark · foundationCommon

At RTP (room temperature and pressure), one mole of any gas occupies exactly 24 dm³. This value must be memorised. 22.4 dm³/mol is the molar volume at STP (0 °C, 1 atm), not RTP.

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12.

Calculate the volume of 2.0 moles of oxygen gas at RTP.

  • A. 12 dm³
  • B. 24 dm³
  • C. 48 dm³
  • D. 96 dm³
1 mark · foundationCommon

Volume = moles × 24 dm³/mol = 2.0 × 24 = 48 dm³. The identity of the gas (oxygen) is irrelevant — all gases have the same molar volume at RTP.

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13.

How many moles of gas are present in 4800 cm³ at RTP?

  • A. 0.10 mol
  • B. 0.20 mol
  • C. 0.50 mol
  • D. 2.0 mol
1 mark · foundationCommon

Moles = volume ÷ 24000 = 4800 ÷ 24000 = 0.20 mol. Remember: 1 dm³ = 1000 cm³, so 24 dm³ = 24000 cm³.

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14.

What does RTP stand for in gas volume calculations?

  • A. Relative Temperature and Pressure
  • B. Room Temperature and Pressure
  • C. Real Temperature and Pressure
  • D. Reduced Temperature and Pressure
1 mark · foundationCommon

RTP stands for Room Temperature and Pressure, defined as 25 °C (298 K) and 1 atm (101 kPa). At RTP, one mole of any gas occupies 24 dm³.

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15.

At the same temperature and pressure, different gases occupy the same volume per mole. Which statement best explains why?

  • A. All gas molecules have the same mass
  • B. All gas molecules move at the same speed
  • C. All gases have the same relative formula mass
  • D. Gas molecules are so far apart that their individual size and mass do not affect the total volume
1 mark · foundationCommon

Gas molecules are very widely spaced — the volume of a gas is determined almost entirely by the space between molecules, not the molecules themselves. Because intermolecular distances dominate, one mole of any gas at the same temperature and pressure occupies the same volume (24 dm³ at RTP).

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16.

State the molar gas volume at RTP, including the unit.

1 mark · foundationCommon

The molar gas volume at RTP is 24 dm³/mol.

  • States 24 dm³/mol (or 24,000 cm³/mol) (1m)

The molar gas volume at RTP is 24 dm³/mol (or equivalently 24,000 cm³/mol). This is the volume occupied by one mole of any gas at room temperature (25 °C) and pressure (1 atm).

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17.

What does RTP stand for?

1 mark · foundationCommon

RTP stands for Room Temperature and Pressure.

  • Room Temperature and Pressure (both words required) (1m)

RTP stands for Room Temperature and Pressure. In the UK GCSE specification, RTP is defined as 25 °C and 1 atm (101 kPa). It is the standard condition for gas volume calculations.

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18.

State the two units in which molar gas volume can be expressed at GCSE.

1 mark · foundationCommon

dm³/mol and cm³/mol (or dm³ per mole and cm³ per mole).

  • Both dm³/mol and cm³/mol stated (accept dm³ and cm³ without /mol) (1m)

Molar gas volume can be expressed as 24 dm³/mol or equivalently as 24,000 cm³/mol. At GCSE, questions may give volumes in either unit, so students must be comfortable converting between them (1 dm³ = 1000 cm³).

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19.

3.2 g of sulfur dioxide (Mr = 64) is produced in a reaction. What volume of gas is produced at RTP?

  • A. 1.2 dm³
  • B. 0.60 dm³
  • C. 2.4 dm³
  • D. 4.8 dm³
1 mark · standardCommon

Step 1: moles = mass ÷ Mr = 3.2 ÷ 64 = 0.050 mol. Step 2: volume = moles × 24 = 0.050 × 24 = 1.2 dm³.

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20.

Calculate the volume of gas produced when 0.50 moles of gas are formed at RTP.

1 mark · standardCommon
  • Volume = moles × 24 = 0.50 × 24 = 12 dm³ (1m)

Volume (dm³) = moles × 24. Substituting: 0.50 × 24 = 12 dm³. In cm³: 12 × 1000 = 12000 cm³.

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Acids and Alkalis

Common25
1.

Describe the pH scale and explain how it relates to hydrogen ion concentration. In your answer, include: the range and divisions of the scale; why the scale is described as logarithmic; the difference between a strong acid and a concentrated acid; and one example for each of an acidic, neutral, and alkaline substance.

6 marks · higherCommon

The pH scale runs from 0 to 14. Values below 7 indicate an acidic solution, pH 7 is neutral, and values above 7 indicate an alkaline solution. The scale measures the concentration of hydrogen ions (H⁺) in solution: the lower the pH, the higher the H⁺ concentration, and vice versa. The scale is logarithmic, meaning each one-unit decrease in pH corresponds to a 10-fold increase in H⁺ concentration. For example, a solution of pH 3 has 10 times more H⁺ ions than one of pH 4, and 100 times more than one of pH 5. A strong acid is one that completely ionises in water, producing the maximum number of H⁺ ions from each molecule. Hydrochloric acid is a strong acid: HCl → H⁺ + Cl⁻. A concentrated acid simply means there is a large amount of acid dissolved per unit volume. These are independent: you can have a dilute strong acid (low concentration HCl) or a concentrated weak acid (high concentration ethanoic acid). Concentration and strength must not be confused. Examples: stomach acid (HCl, pH 1–2) is acidic; pure water (pH 7) is neutral; bleach (sodium hypochlorite solution, pH 12–13) is alkaline.

  • pH scale runs from 0 to 14; below 7 is acidic, 7 is neutral, above 7 is alkaline (1m)
  • As pH decreases, the concentration of H⁺ ions increases; as pH increases, H⁺ concentration decreases / pH is inversely related to H⁺ concentration (1m)
  • The scale is logarithmic: each 1 unit decrease in pH represents a 10-fold increase in H⁺ concentration (e.g. pH 3 has 10× more H⁺ than pH 4) (1m)
  • Strong acid: completely/fully ionises in water, e.g. HCl → H⁺ + Cl⁻; all molecules split into ions (1m)
  • Concentrated acid: large amount of acid dissolved per unit volume (mol/dm³) — strength and concentration are independent properties (1m)
  • Named examples: one acidic (e.g. vinegar/lemon juice/stomach acid/any acid), one neutral (pure water), one alkaline (e.g. bleach/sodium hydroxide solution/baking soda solution) (1m)

A full-marks answer covers all four bullet points. The pH scale runs from 0 to 14: below 7 is acidic, 7 is neutral, above 7 is alkaline. It is logarithmic because each one-unit decrease in pH represents a 10-fold increase in H⁺ ion concentration. A strong acid is defined by degree of ionisation (fully ionises), not amount; a concentrated acid simply has a large amount of acid per unit volume. These two properties are independent of each other. A common misconception is that 'strong' and 'concentrated' mean the same thing — they do not. Named examples must include one acidic substance (e.g. vinegar, stomach acid), pure water for neutral, and one alkaline substance (e.g. bleach, sodium hydroxide solution).

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2.

Describe how you would prepare a pure, dry sample of copper sulfate crystals from copper oxide and dilute sulfuric acid. Explain why an excess of copper oxide is used and why the method cannot be used to make sodium chloride from sodium hydroxide and hydrochloric acid.

6 marks · challengeCommon

Add excess copper oxide to warm dilute sulfuric acid and stir until no more copper oxide dissolves. The excess copper oxide ensures all the acid is used up so no acid remains in the final product. Filter the mixture to remove the unreacted copper oxide. Heat the copper sulfate solution gently to evaporate water until a saturated solution is obtained. Leave to cool and allow crystals to form. Filter off the crystals and pat dry with filter paper. The method cannot be used for sodium chloride because sodium hydroxide is soluble — you cannot filter off the excess base. If you add excess sodium hydroxide, you cannot remove it by filtration, leaving sodium hydroxide contaminating the salt. Instead, titration is used: the exact volume of sodium hydroxide needed to neutralise the hydrochloric acid is determined first using an indicator, then the experiment is repeated without indicator to obtain a pure product.

  • Add excess copper oxide to warm dilute sulfuric acid and stir until no more dissolves / reacts (1m)
  • Filter the mixture to remove unreacted (excess) copper oxide (1m)
  • Evaporate/heat the filtrate to concentrate the solution / until crystals form on cooling (1m)
  • Filter off crystals and dry / pat dry with filter paper or leave in warm oven (1m)
  • Excess copper oxide ensures all the acid is used up so no acid remains in the product / excess base guarantees complete neutralisation (1m)
  • Sodium hydroxide is soluble so excess cannot be removed by filtration; titration is required to determine exact volumes so no excess remains (1m)

This question tests the full making-salts method for insoluble bases (Topic 24) and the reasoning behind choosing between excess-base crystallisation and titration. The key insight is that copper oxide is an insoluble base — any excess can be filtered off, guaranteeing a pure product. The method works in four steps: add excess solid base to warm acid, filter, evaporate and crystallise, then dry. The excess base is deliberate: it ensures ALL the acid reacts, so no acid contaminates the final salt. Sodium hydroxide breaks this logic because it is soluble — excess NaOH passes straight through the filter into the product. Titration is the only way to make soluble salts from soluble reactants, because you determine the exact neutralisation volume with an indicator first, then repeat without indicator to get a pure product. A common exam error is stating you 'filter to get the salt' — you filter to remove the excess solid base; the salt remains in solution.

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3.

A student carries out a titration to find the concentration of a sodium hydroxide solution using hydrochloric acid of known concentration (0.10 mol/dm³). Describe the method the student should follow and explain how to calculate the concentration of the sodium hydroxide solution.

6 marks · challengeCommon

Use a pipette to transfer a fixed volume (e.g. 25.0 cm³) of sodium hydroxide solution into a conical flask. Add a few drops of indicator such as phenolphthalein or methyl orange. Fill a burette with the hydrochloric acid of known concentration (0.10 mol/dm³). Slowly add the acid from the burette to the alkali in the flask, swirling continuously. When the indicator changes colour permanently, the endpoint has been reached and the volume of acid used (titre) is noted. Repeat until concordant results (within 0.1 cm³ of each other) are obtained and calculate the mean titre. To find the concentration: calculate moles of HCl = concentration × volume (in dm³). Since the neutralisation equation shows a 1:1 mole ratio (HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H₂O), moles of NaOH = moles of HCl. Concentration of NaOH = moles of NaOH ÷ volume of NaOH used (in dm³).

  • Use a pipette to measure a fixed volume of NaOH into a conical flask (1m)
  • Add indicator (e.g. phenolphthalein / methyl orange / universal indicator) (1m)
  • Add acid from burette slowly, swirling; record volume at colour change (endpoint / titre); repeat for concordant results (1m)
  • Calculate moles of HCl = concentration × volume (in dm³) / n = c × V (1m)
  • Use 1:1 mole ratio from balanced equation (HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H₂O) so moles NaOH = moles HCl (1m)
  • Concentration of NaOH = moles of NaOH ÷ volume of NaOH in dm³ (correct unit: mol/dm³) (1m)

A titration combines practical technique (Topic 18) with neutralisation chemistry (Topic 23) and mole calculations (Topic 22). The procedure has a strict sequence: pipette the alkali for accuracy, add indicator, then slowly add acid from a burette. The key observation — permanent colour change — marks the endpoint. Repeating until results are concordant (within 0.1 cm³) ensures reliability. The calculation chain is: moles HCl = concentration × volume (n = c × V, where volume is in dm³ not cm³). Since HCl and NaOH react in a 1:1 ratio (HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H₂O), moles NaOH equals moles HCl. Finally, concentration NaOH = moles ÷ volume in dm³. Common exam errors: using a measuring cylinder instead of a pipette; stopping when 'enough acid has been added' rather than at the permanent colour change; and dividing volume by moles instead of moles by volume.

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4.

A strong acid has a pH of 1 at a certain concentration. A weak acid has a pH of 4 at the same concentration. Explain the difference between these two acids in terms of ionisation, and predict with reasoning how this difference affects: (a) the rate of reaction with the same metal, and (b) the final volume of gas produced in each reaction.

6 marks · challengeCommon

A strong acid, such as hydrochloric acid, completely ionises in water — every molecule donates its H⁺ ion, so the concentration of H⁺ ions equals the original concentration of the acid. This gives a pH of 1. A weak acid, such as ethanoic acid, only partially ionises — an equilibrium is established between the intact molecules and the dissociated ions (e.g. CH₃COOH ⇌ H⁺ + CH₃COO⁻). This means fewer H⁺ ions are present in solution at the same concentration, giving a higher pH of 4. (a) Rate of reaction: The strong acid will react more quickly with the metal because it has a much higher concentration of H⁺ ions (100 times greater at pH 1 versus pH 4, since the scale is logarithmic). A higher H⁺ concentration means more frequent collisions between hydrogen ions and the metal surface per unit time, increasing the rate. (b) Final volume of gas: The total volume of gas produced will be the same for both acids at the same original concentration. The rate of reaction is determined by H⁺ concentration, but the total moles of acid (and therefore the total moles of H⁺ available, once equilibrium shifts) are equal because the original concentrations are equal. As H⁺ is used up by the weak acid reaction, the equilibrium shifts right (more molecules ionise) until all the acid has reacted. So both produce the same total amount of hydrogen gas.

  • Strong acid completely ionises in water — all molecules become H⁺ ions; H⁺ concentration equals the acid concentration (1m)
  • Weak acid only partially ionises; equilibrium established between molecules and ions (e.g. CH₃COOH ⇌ H⁺ + CH₃COO⁻); fewer H⁺ ions at same concentration explains higher pH (1m)
  • pH 1 vs pH 4 is a 3-unit difference on a logarithmic scale, meaning the strong acid has 1000 times (10³) more H⁺ ions than the weak acid (1m)
  • (a) Strong acid reacts faster with the metal because greater H⁺ concentration means more frequent collisions between H⁺ and metal surface per unit time (1m)
  • (b) Both produce the same final volume of hydrogen gas because both acids have the same original concentration — same moles of acid and therefore same moles of H⁺ available overall (1m)
  • (b) As weak acid's H⁺ is consumed, the equilibrium shifts to the right, producing more H⁺ until all acid molecules have reacted — total amount of gas is the same (1m)

This challenge question links acid-base theory (Topic 22) with rate of reaction concepts and neutralisation (Topic 23). The first step is understanding ionisation: a strong acid fully ionises, so every molecule becomes an H⁺ ion. At the same concentration, the strong acid has far more H⁺ ions in solution than the weak acid — 3 pH units corresponds to a 1000-fold difference (10³) on the logarithmic scale. For part (a), rate depends on H⁺ concentration: more H⁺ means more collisions between ions and the metal surface per second, so the strong acid reacts faster. For part (b), the counter-intuitive answer is that both acids produce exactly the same total volume of hydrogen gas. This is because volume of gas depends on total moles of acid (which is equal, since concentration is the same), not on the current H⁺ concentration. The weak acid's equilibrium shifts right as H⁺ is consumed during the reaction, producing more H⁺ progressively until all the acid molecules have reacted. The most common misconception is that the weak acid produces less gas because it has fewer H⁺ ions — students confuse the initial H⁺ concentration (which is lower) with the total acid available (which is the same).

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5.

Compare the methods used to make a soluble salt from (a) an insoluble base and an acid and (b) a titration using a soluble base and an acid. For each method, describe the key steps and explain when each method is appropriate.

5 marks · challengeCommon

Method (a) — insoluble base: Add excess of the insoluble base (e.g. copper oxide) to warm dilute acid. Stir until no more dissolves. Filter off the excess solid. Evaporate the filtrate to crystallise the salt. This method is appropriate when the base is insoluble because excess can be removed by filtration, guaranteeing a pure salt. Method (b) — titration: Use a pipette to measure an accurate volume of one reactant into a flask. Add indicator. Slowly add the other reactant from a burette until the endpoint (colour change). Record titre. Repeat for a concordant result. The experiment is then repeated without indicator using the exact volumes found. Evaporate to crystallise. This method is appropriate when both reactants are soluble (e.g. NaOH + HCl) because you cannot filter off excess — you must use exactly the right amount from the start.

  • Method (a): add excess insoluble base to warm acid, filter off excess solid (1m)
  • Method (a): evaporate/crystallise the filtrate to obtain the salt; method appropriate because excess solid can be filtered off (1m)
  • Method (b): use pipette (fixed volume of alkali) + indicator + burette to find endpoint; repeat for concordant titre (1m)
  • Method (b): repeat without indicator using exact volumes; evaporate to obtain salt (1m)
  • Method (b) is used when both reactants are soluble — excess cannot be removed by filtration so exact amounts are required (1m)

This question tests whether students can choose and justify the correct salt-preparation method. The deciding factor is the solubility of the base. If the base is insoluble (e.g. copper oxide, zinc oxide, iron oxide), you can add an excess — the unreacted solid stays as a lump and is easily filtered off, guaranteeing no base contaminates the product. If the base is soluble (e.g. sodium hydroxide, potassium hydroxide), any excess dissolves into the product solution and passes through the filter. Titration solves this by finding the exact volume needed for neutralisation: an indicator shows the endpoint, then the reaction is repeated without indicator so the final salt solution contains only the products. Both methods end with evaporation and crystallisation to obtain a dry solid salt. A very common mistake is forgetting to repeat the titration without indicator — the indicator itself would contaminate the final product if left in.

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6.

Evaluate whether titration or excess-base crystallisation is the better method to produce a pure, dry sample of sodium chloride from sodium hydroxide and hydrochloric acid. In your answer, consider: purity, practicality, and the properties of the reactants.

5 marks · challengeCommon

Titration is the only viable method to make pure sodium chloride from sodium hydroxide and hydrochloric acid. Sodium hydroxide is a soluble base, so the excess-base method cannot be used: any unreacted NaOH would dissolve in the product solution and cannot be removed by filtration, leaving sodium hydroxide as a contaminant in the final salt. Titration produces a pure product because the exact volumes needed for complete neutralisation are determined first — an indicator is used to find the endpoint and the exact titre is recorded. The experiment is then repeated without indicator using those exact volumes, so the only product in solution is sodium chloride and water. Evaporation and gentle heating gives dry sodium chloride crystals. Practically, titration requires more equipment (burette, pipette, stand and clamp) and more steps than the excess-base method, but it is the only method that guarantees purity when both reactants are soluble. The excess-base method is simpler and more appropriate for reactions involving insoluble bases such as copper oxide.

  • Excess-base method NOT suitable because sodium hydroxide is soluble — excess NaOH cannot be removed by filtration (1m)
  • Excess soluble base would contaminate/dissolve into the product solution, making the salt impure (1m)
  • Titration determines the exact volume/amount needed for complete neutralisation so no excess of either reactant remains (1m)
  • Titration must be repeated without indicator (indicator would contaminate the final NaCl product) (1m)
  • Evaporate/crystallise the titrated solution to obtain pure dry sodium chloride; titration is the only method that guarantees purity here (1m)

This question is an evaluation task — students must justify why one method is appropriate and the other is not, rather than just describing both. The key chemical fact is that sodium hydroxide is soluble in water. In the excess-base method, you rely on the excess reactant being insoluble so you can filter it off. Because NaOH dissolves, any excess simply joins the product solution — you cannot remove it, so the sodium chloride would be contaminated with sodium hydroxide. Titration fixes this by determining the exact volumes needed for complete neutralisation: no excess of either reactant is used. The two-stage process (first titration with indicator to find the volume, then repeat without indicator for the pure product) is essential — if indicator were left in, it too would contaminate the NaCl. Students often state 'titration is more accurate' without explaining WHY it is necessary here: the answer is the solubility of sodium hydroxide.

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7.

Compare the ionisation of a strong acid with the ionisation of a weak acid when they are dissolved in water. In your answer, refer to the use of the reversible reaction symbol.

3 marks · higherCommon

A strong acid, such as hydrochloric acid, completely ionises in water. All the HCl molecules split into H⁺ ions and Cl⁻ ions, so the ionisation goes to completion (HCl → H⁺ + Cl⁻). A weak acid, such as ethanoic acid, only partially ionises. Most molecules remain intact, and an equilibrium is established between the undissociated acid molecules and the ions (CH₃COOH ⇌ H⁺ + CH₃COO⁻). The reversible sign (⇌) shows that both forward and backward reactions occur simultaneously.

  • Strong acid completely/fully ionises in water; all molecules split into ions; equation uses a single arrow (1m)
  • Weak acid only partially ionises; most molecules remain intact; only a small proportion of molecules release H⁺ ions (1m)
  • Weak acid ionisation is reversible / an equilibrium is established; shown by the reversible symbol (⇌) (1m)

Strong acids fully ionise (single arrow in equation). Weak acids partially ionise and establish an equilibrium between molecules and ions (reversible arrow ⇌).

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8.

Explain the relationship between pH and hydrogen ion concentration. Include in your answer what it means to say the pH scale is logarithmic.

3 marks · higherCommon

The pH scale measures the concentration of hydrogen ions (H⁺) in a solution. The lower the pH, the higher the concentration of H⁺ ions, and the higher the pH, the lower the H⁺ concentration. The scale is logarithmic, meaning each one-unit decrease in pH corresponds to a ten-fold increase in H⁺ concentration. For example, a solution of pH 3 has ten times more H⁺ ions than a solution of pH 4.

  • Lower pH = higher H⁺ concentration; higher pH = lower H⁺ concentration (inverse relationship) (1m)
  • The scale is logarithmic: each 1 unit decrease in pH = 10-fold increase in H⁺ concentration (1m)
  • Example showing correct application of the 10-fold relationship (e.g. pH 3 has 10× more H⁺ than pH 4, or pH 1 has 1000× more H⁺ than pH 4) (1m)

pH and H⁺ concentration have an inverse logarithmic relationship. Each pH unit decrease = 10-fold increase in H⁺. pH 1 has 100× more H⁺ than pH 3.

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9.

Indigestion is caused by excess hydrochloric acid in the stomach. Indigestion tablets contain bases such as magnesium hydroxide, Mg(OH)₂. Explain how the tablet relieves indigestion and write a word equation for the reaction that occurs.

3 marks · higherCommon

The excess hydrochloric acid in the stomach causes indigestion. Magnesium hydroxide is a base that reacts with (neutralises) the excess acid. The H⁺ ions from the acid are removed by the OH⁻ ions from the base, forming water. The word equation is: magnesium hydroxide + hydrochloric acid → magnesium chloride + water.

  • Indigestion caused by excess hydrochloric acid (HCl) in the stomach (1m)
  • Magnesium hydroxide (base/alkali) neutralises the excess acid / reacts with H⁺ ions / increases pH (1m)
  • Word equation: magnesium hydroxide + hydrochloric acid → magnesium chloride + water (1m)

Excess HCl causes indigestion. Mg(OH)₂ neutralises the acid: Mg(OH)₂ + 2HCl → MgCl₂ + 2H₂O. The base removes H⁺ ions by combining with them to form water.

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10.

A student has two solutions: a 2.0 mol/dm³ solution of ethanoic acid (a weak acid) and a 0.01 mol/dm³ solution of hydrochloric acid (a strong acid). Predict which solution has the lower pH and explain your reasoning using the concepts of acid strength and acid concentration.

3 marks · higherCommon

The 0.01 mol/dm³ hydrochloric acid solution is likely to have the lower pH, even though it is less concentrated. Hydrochloric acid is a strong acid and fully ionises in water, producing 0.01 mol/dm³ of H⁺ ions (pH approximately 2). Ethanoic acid is a weak acid and only partially ionises, so even at 2.0 mol/dm³ concentration the actual H⁺ concentration is much lower than 2.0 mol/dm³. Acid strength (degree of ionisation) and acid concentration are independent properties and must not be confused.

  • Identifies that HCl (dilute strong acid) will have the lower pH despite lower concentration (1m)
  • HCl fully ionises, so all 0.01 mol/dm³ becomes H⁺; concentration of H⁺ equals the concentration of HCl (1m)
  • Ethanoic acid only partially ionises, so actual H⁺ concentration is much less than 2.0 mol/dm³; strength and concentration are independent (1m)

HCl fully ionises (strong acid), so all 0.01 mol/dm³ becomes H⁺. Ethanoic acid partially ionises (weak acid), so despite 2.0 mol/dm³ concentration, far fewer H⁺ ions are produced. Strength and concentration are independent. HCl has the lower pH.

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11.

Explain the difference between a strong acid and a concentrated acid.

2 marks · standardCommon

A strong acid is one that completely ionises in water, releasing all of its hydrogen ions. A concentrated acid has a large amount of acid dissolved per unit volume. These are independent properties: an acid can be strong but dilute, or weak but concentrated.

  • Strong acid: completely/fully ionises in water (releases all H⁺ ions) (1m)
  • Concentrated acid: large amount/high number of moles of acid dissolved per unit volume (mol/dm³) (1m)

Strong/weak refers to the degree of ionisation. A strong acid fully ionises. Concentration refers to moles per dm³. These are independent — you can have a dilute strong acid or a concentrated weak acid.

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12.

Ethanoic acid is described as a weak acid. Explain what this means in terms of ionisation in water.

2 marks · standardCommon

Ethanoic acid only partially ionises in water. Not all the molecules split into ions; instead, an equilibrium is established between the acid molecules and the ions produced: CH₃COOH ⇌ H⁺ + CH₃COO⁻.

  • Ethanoic acid only partially ionises in water (not all molecules release H⁺ ions) (1m)
  • An equilibrium is established between undissociated molecules and ions (reversible reaction) (1m)

A weak acid partially ionises in water. The ionisation is reversible, so an equilibrium forms between the acid molecules and the ions: CH₃COOH ⇌ H⁺ + CH₃COO⁻. Most molecules remain intact.

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13.

Explain why a pH meter gives a more accurate measurement of pH than universal indicator.

2 marks · standardCommon

A pH meter gives a precise numerical reading (e.g. pH 4.3), whereas universal indicator only gives an approximate pH based on colour matching, which can be subjective and is limited to whole number values.

  • pH meter gives a precise/numerical/digital reading (e.g. to decimal places) (1m)
  • Universal indicator only gives approximate pH / colour matching is subjective / limited to whole numbers (1m)

A pH meter gives a precise numerical readout, allowing pH to be measured to decimal places. Universal indicator shows only an approximate pH through colour, and colour interpretation varies between individuals.

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14.

A student adds water to a solution of sodium hydroxide (pH 13). Explain what happens to the pH of the solution.

2 marks · standardCommon

Adding water dilutes the sodium hydroxide, reducing the concentration of OH⁻ ions in solution. This causes the pH to decrease towards 7 (neutral), but the pH cannot fall below 7 because the solution remains alkaline.

  • Adding water dilutes the solution, reducing the concentration of OH⁻ ions (1m)
  • The pH decreases (moves towards 7) but does not fall below 7 / remains alkaline (1m)

Diluting an alkali with water reduces the OH⁻ concentration, so the pH moves towards 7. The pH falls but cannot drop below 7 because the solution remains alkaline throughout.

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15.

Which ion do acids produce when dissolved in water?

  • A. Hydroxide ions (OH⁻)
  • B. Oxide ions (O²⁻)
  • C. Hydrogen ions (H⁺)
  • D. Sodium ions (Na⁺)
1 mark · foundationCommon

Acids produce hydrogen ions (H⁺) when dissolved in water. The greater the concentration of H⁺ ions, the lower the pH and the more acidic the solution.

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16.

A student tests a solution and obtains a pH reading. What pH value indicates that the solution is neutral?

  • A. 0
  • B. 3
  • C. 10
  • D. 7
1 mark · foundationCommon

A neutral solution has a pH of exactly 7. Pure water is the classic example. Values below 7 indicate an acidic solution; values above 7 indicate an alkaline solution.

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17.

Which ion do alkalis produce when dissolved in water?

  • A. Hydroxide ions (OH⁻)
  • B. Hydrogen ions (H⁺)
  • C. Carbonate ions (CO₃²⁻)
  • D. Chloride ions (Cl⁻)
1 mark · foundationCommon

Alkalis produce hydroxide ions (OH⁻) in aqueous solution. This is what makes a solution alkaline and gives it a pH above 7. Examples include sodium hydroxide (NaOH) and potassium hydroxide (KOH).

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18.

State what an acid is in terms of the ions it produces in aqueous solution.

1 mark · foundationCommon

An acid is a substance that produces hydrogen ions (H⁺) in aqueous solution.

  • An acid produces/releases hydrogen ions (H⁺) in aqueous solution (1m)

An acid is defined as a substance that produces H⁺ ions (hydrogen ions) when dissolved in water. This is what makes a solution acidic and lowers the pH below 7.

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19.

State what an alkali is in terms of the ions it produces in aqueous solution.

1 mark · foundationCommon

An alkali is a substance that produces hydroxide ions (OH⁻) in aqueous solution.

  • An alkali produces/releases hydroxide ions (OH⁻) in aqueous solution (1m)

An alkali produces OH⁻ ions (hydroxide ions) when dissolved in water. This is what makes a solution alkaline and raises the pH above 7.

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20.

Give one example of a strong acid.

1 mark · foundationCommon

Hydrochloric acid (HCl) is a strong acid.

  • Any one of: hydrochloric acid (HCl), sulfuric acid (H₂SO₄), nitric acid (HNO₃) (1m)

The three strong acids at GCSE are hydrochloric acid (HCl), sulfuric acid (H₂SO₄), and nitric acid (HNO₃). All three fully ionise in water.

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21.

Four solutions are tested with a pH meter. Which solution has the highest concentration of hydrogen ions?

  • A. Solution W: pH 9
  • B. Solution X: pH 2
  • C. Solution Y: pH 7
  • D. Solution Z: pH 11
1 mark · standardCommon

The lower the pH, the higher the concentration of H⁺ ions. pH 2 (Solution X) is the most acidic value given, so it has the highest H⁺ ion concentration. Each unit decrease in pH corresponds to a 10-fold increase in H⁺ concentration.

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22.

A solution of hydrochloric acid has pH 2. Water is gradually added to the acid. Which statement correctly describes what happens to the pH?

  • A. The pH decreases towards 0
  • B. The pH stays constant at 2
  • C. The pH increases towards 7
  • D. The pH increases above 7 to become alkaline
1 mark · standardCommon

Adding water to an acid dilutes it, reducing the concentration of H⁺ ions. This causes the pH to rise, moving towards 7 (neutral). However, no matter how much water you add, the pH of an acid can never exceed 7 — it approaches but does not cross the neutral point.

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23.

Two solutions both have a concentration of 1.0 mol/dm³. Solution A is hydrochloric acid and Solution B is ethanoic acid. Which statement correctly explains why Solution A has a lower pH than Solution B?

  • A. Solution A has a larger volume than Solution B
  • B. Solution A contains more moles of acid than Solution B
  • C. Solution A is more concentrated than Solution B
  • D. Hydrochloric acid fully ionises, producing more H⁺ ions than ethanoic acid which only partially ionises
1 mark · standardCommon

Both solutions have the same concentration (1.0 mol/dm³), so the difference in pH must be due to the degree of ionisation, not concentration. HCl is a strong acid and fully (100%) ionises in water: HCl → H⁺ + Cl⁻. Ethanoic acid (CH₃COOH) is a weak acid and only partially ionises, establishing an equilibrium. At equal concentration, HCl produces far more H⁺ ions, giving it a lower pH.

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24.

A solution has pH 4. Another solution has pH 6. How many times greater is the hydrogen ion concentration in the pH 4 solution compared to the pH 6 solution?

  • A. 100 times greater
  • B. 10 times greater
  • C. 2 times greater
  • D. 1000 times greater
1 mark · standardCommon

The pH scale is logarithmic: each unit decrease in pH represents a 10-fold increase in H⁺ concentration. Going from pH 6 to pH 5 is a 10-fold increase, and from pH 5 to pH 4 is another 10-fold increase. Overall the pH 4 solution has 10 × 10 = 100 times greater H⁺ concentration than the pH 6 solution.

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25.

A student claims that a concentrated solution of ethanoic acid must have a lower pH than a dilute solution of hydrochloric acid. Which response best evaluates this claim?

  • A. The student is correct because ethanoic acid is more concentrated
  • B. The student is not necessarily correct because ethanoic acid only partially ionises, so its H⁺ concentration may still be lower than the dilute HCl
  • C. The student is correct because a higher concentration always means lower pH
  • D. The student is not correct because ethanoic acid is not an acid
1 mark · standardCommon

Acid strength (degree of ionisation) and acid concentration are independent. Ethanoic acid is a weak acid — it only partially ionises, so even at high concentration, relatively few H⁺ ions are produced. Hydrochloric acid is a strong acid and fully ionises, so even at low concentration it can produce a higher H⁺ ion concentration than concentrated ethanoic acid. The claim is not necessarily true.

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Neutralisation Reactions

Common20
1.

Describe the process of neutralisation. In your answer include: the general equation for acid + alkali; the ionic equation and why it is the same for all such reactions; how to name the salt formed; how a titration is used to find the exact volume of acid needed to neutralise an alkali; and one real-world application of neutralisation.

6 marks · higherCommon

Neutralisation is the reaction between an acid and an alkali (base) to form a salt and water: acid + alkali → salt + water. For example, HCl(aq) + NaOH(aq) → NaCl(aq) + H₂O(l). The ionic equation is always H⁺(aq) + OH⁻(aq) → H₂O(l), regardless of which acid or alkali is used. This is because the metal cation and the acid anion (e.g. Na⁺ and Cl⁻) are spectator ions — they do not change during the reaction and cancel out when writing the net ionic equation. Salt naming: the first part of the salt name comes from the metal in the base (e.g. sodium from NaOH). The second part comes from the acid: HCl produces chlorides, H₂SO₄ produces sulfates, and HNO₃ produces nitrates. Titration procedure: a known volume of alkali is placed in a conical flask with a few drops of indicator (e.g. phenolphthalein). Acid is added carefully from a burette until the indicator just permanently changes colour — this is the endpoint. The titre (volume of acid used) is recorded. Multiple titrations are performed and concordant results averaged to find the exact volume. Real-world application: indigestion tablets contain metal hydroxides (e.g. Mg(OH)₂) that neutralise excess hydrochloric acid in the stomach, relieving indigestion by raising the pH.

  • Acid + alkali → salt + water (correct word or symbol equation) (1m)
  • Ionic equation: H⁺(aq) + OH⁻(aq) → H₂O(l); same for all reactions because the metal and non-metal ions are spectator ions that cancel out (1m)
  • Salt name: first part from the metal (from the base/alkali), second part from the acid (HCl → chloride; H₂SO₄ → sulfate; HNO₃ → nitrate) (1m)
  • Titration: add acid from burette to alkali in conical flask; use an indicator (e.g. phenolphthalein or methyl orange); stop at endpoint/equivalence point when indicator just permanently changes colour (1m)
  • Titration: repeat to get concordant results; use the average titre to calculate exact volumes or concentrations (1m)
  • Real-world application: any one of — antacids treating excess stomach acid; adding lime/calcium hydroxide to acidic lakes or soil; treating acidic industrial wastewater (1m)

A full-marks answer covers all six mark points. (1) The general equation: acid + alkali → salt + water. (2) The ionic equation H⁺(aq) + OH⁻(aq) → H₂O(l) is universal because the metal cation and acid anion are spectator ions — they appear unchanged on both sides and cancel out, leaving only the H⁺ and OH⁻ that actually react. (3) Salt naming follows a strict rule: the first part comes from the metal in the base (e.g., sodium from NaOH) and the second part from the acid (HCl gives chloride, H₂SO₄ gives sulfate, HNO₃ gives nitrate). (4–5) A titration uses a burette to add acid drop-wise to alkali in a conical flask with an indicator; the run is stopped when the indicator permanently changes colour (the endpoint). The titration is repeated to obtain concordant results, which are averaged for accuracy. (6) A real-world application: antacids (e.g., Mg(OH)₂ tablets) neutralise excess HCl in the stomach, or lime is added to acidic soil or lakes.

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2.

Compare the products formed when dilute hydrochloric acid reacts with each of the following: (i) zinc metal, (ii) copper(II) oxide, (iii) sodium hydroxide, (iv) calcium carbonate. For each reaction, state the salt formed and any other products.

4 marks · higherCommon

(i) Zinc + HCl: zinc chloride and hydrogen gas. Zn(s) + 2HCl(aq) → ZnCl₂(aq) + H₂(g). (ii) Copper(II) oxide + HCl: copper(II) chloride and water. CuO(s) + 2HCl(aq) → CuCl₂(aq) + H₂O(l). (iii) Sodium hydroxide + HCl: sodium chloride and water. NaOH(aq) + HCl(aq) → NaCl(aq) + H₂O(l). (iv) Calcium carbonate + HCl: calcium chloride, water, and carbon dioxide. CaCO₃(s) + 2HCl(aq) → CaCl₂(aq) + H₂O(l) + CO₂(g).

  • Zinc metal: zinc chloride (salt) + hydrogen gas (H₂) (1m)
  • Copper(II) oxide: copper(II) chloride (salt) + water only (1m)
  • Sodium hydroxide: sodium chloride (salt) + water only (neutralisation) (1m)
  • Calcium carbonate: calcium chloride (salt) + water + carbon dioxide (three products) (1m)

The four reaction types with HCl: (i) Metal → salt + H₂; (ii) Metal oxide → salt + H₂O; (iii) Metal hydroxide → salt + H₂O (neutralisation); (iv) Metal carbonate → salt + H₂O + CO₂. Only metals give hydrogen; only carbonates give CO₂.

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3.

A student performs a titration of 0.1 mol/dm³ sodium hydroxide with hydrochloric acid. The student's results are: Rough titre: 22.80 cm³; Titre 1: 22.45 cm³; Titre 2: 22.50 cm³; Titre 3: 22.35 cm³. Explain how the student should use these results and calculate the concentration of the hydrochloric acid if 25.00 cm³ of NaOH was used. [HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H₂O]

4 marks · higherCommon

The rough titre (22.80 cm³) is discarded as it is an outlier. Titres 1, 2, and 3 are checked for concordance (within 0.10 cm³ of each other). Titres 1 and 2 (22.45 and 22.50 cm³) are concordant; titre 3 (22.35 cm³) is discarded as an outlier. Mean titre = (22.45 + 22.50) / 2 = 22.475 cm³. Moles of NaOH = concentration × volume = 0.1 × (25.00/1000) = 0.0025 mol. From the equation, moles of HCl = moles of NaOH = 0.0025 mol (1:1 ratio). Concentration of HCl = moles / volume = 0.0025 / (22.475/1000) = 0.111 mol/dm³.

  • Discard the rough titre; identify concordant titres 1 and 2 (both within 0.10 cm³ of each other); discard titre 3 as an outlier (1m)
  • Mean titre = (22.45 + 22.50) ÷ 2 = 22.475 cm³ (or 22.48 cm³ to 4 s.f.) (1m)
  • Moles of NaOH = 0.1 × (25.00 ÷ 1000) = 0.0025 mol; 1:1 ratio → moles HCl = 0.0025 mol (1m)
  • Concentration of HCl = 0.0025 ÷ (22.475 ÷ 1000) = 0.111 mol/dm³ (accept 0.111–0.112) (1m)

Step 1: discard rough titre (22.80 cm³). Step 2: titres 1 and 2 (22.45, 22.50) are concordant (within 0.10); titre 3 (22.35) is discarded. Step 3: mean = 22.475 cm³. Step 4: moles NaOH = 0.1 × 0.025 = 0.0025 mol. Step 5: 1:1 ratio → moles HCl = 0.0025 mol. Step 6: [HCl] = 0.0025 ÷ 0.022475 = 0.111 mol/dm³.

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4.

Explain how indigestion tablets work to relieve excess stomach acid. Include the type of reaction, the equation, and the effect on pH.

3 marks · standardCommon

Stomach acid is hydrochloric acid (HCl). Indigestion tablets contain a base such as magnesium hydroxide (Mg(OH)₂). The base reacts with the acid in a neutralisation reaction: Mg(OH)₂ + 2HCl → MgCl₂ + 2H₂O. This reduces the concentration of H⁺ ions in the stomach, raising the pH towards neutral and relieving the discomfort.

  • The tablet contains a base/alkali (e.g. magnesium hydroxide, calcium carbonate) that reacts with HCl (1m)
  • The reaction is neutralisation, forming a salt and water (equation or word equation acceptable) (1m)
  • H⁺ ion concentration decreases / pH increases / solution becomes less acidic (1m)

Indigestion tablets are antacids — they contain bases that neutralise excess HCl. Mg(OH)₂ + 2HCl → MgCl₂ + 2H₂O. This removes H⁺ ions, reducing acidity and raising the pH.

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5.

Describe what happens to the pH when a small volume of alkali is gradually added to excess hydrochloric acid in a titration. Explain why the pH changes slowly at first and then very rapidly near the equivalence point.

3 marks · higherCommon

Initially the acid is in excess, so the pH is low (around 1-2). As alkali is added, the H⁺ ions are neutralised (H⁺ + OH⁻ → H₂O) and the pH slowly rises. The pH changes slowly at first because there is still a large excess of H⁺ ions, so adding a small amount of OH⁻ makes little proportional difference. Near the equivalence point, almost all H⁺ has been removed, so adding a tiny further amount of OH⁻ causes a very large proportional change in [H⁺]. Because pH is logarithmic, this produces a rapid steep rise in pH from about pH 3 to pH 10 over just a few drops.

  • pH starts low (acid in excess); rises slowly at first because H⁺ ions still in excess / proportional change in [H⁺] is small (1m)
  • Near the equivalence point, very few H⁺ ions remain; each addition of OH⁻ causes a large proportional change in [H⁺] (1m)
  • The pH scale is logarithmic, so a large proportional change in [H⁺] produces a sharp, steep rise in pH (1m)

H⁺ in excess means each drop of OH⁻ makes a small proportional difference to [H⁺], so pH rises slowly. Near the equivalence point, [H⁺] is tiny, so one drop changes [H⁺] enormously. The logarithmic pH scale turns this into a steep, near-vertical spike on the titration curve.

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6.

Write the fully balanced symbol equation, including state symbols, for the reaction between sulfuric acid and sodium hydroxide solution.

3 marks · higherCommon

H₂SO₄(aq) + 2NaOH(aq) → Na₂SO₄(aq) + 2H₂O(l)

  • Correct formulae for all species: H₂SO₄, NaOH, Na₂SO₄, H₂O (1m)
  • Correctly balanced with coefficient 2 in front of NaOH and H₂O (1m)
  • State symbols correct: (aq) for H₂SO₄, NaOH, Na₂SO₄; (l) for H₂O (1m)

H₂SO₄ is diprotic (two H⁺ ions), so it needs 2 NaOH molecules to neutralise. Balanced equation: H₂SO₄(aq) + 2NaOH(aq) → Na₂SO₄(aq) + 2H₂O(l). State symbols: all aqueous except water which is liquid.

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7.

Explain why the ionic equation for any strong acid-alkali neutralisation is always H⁺(aq) + OH⁻(aq) → H₂O(l).

2 marks · standardCommon

In all strong acid-alkali reactions, the metal and acid ions are spectator ions that do not change during the reaction. Removing these spectator ions leaves only the H⁺ from the acid and the OH⁻ from the alkali reacting to form water.

  • The metal and acid ions are spectator ions / other ions do not change / do not react (1m)
  • Only H⁺ and OH⁻ react / removing spectator ions leaves H⁺ + OH⁻ → H₂O (1m)

Strong acids and alkalis fully dissociate in solution. The metal cation (e.g. Na⁺) and the acid anion (e.g. Cl⁻) are spectator ions — they appear on both sides unchanged. Cancelling them out leaves H⁺ + OH⁻ → H₂O, which is the same for all combinations.

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8.

Write the word equation for the reaction between hydrochloric acid and sodium carbonate. State all three products.

2 marks · standardCommon

Hydrochloric acid + sodium carbonate → sodium chloride + water + carbon dioxide.

  • Products include sodium chloride (the salt) and water (1m)
  • Products also include carbon dioxide (CO₂) (1m)

2HCl(aq) + Na₂CO₃(aq) → 2NaCl(aq) + H₂O(l) + CO₂(g). All acid + carbonate reactions produce a salt, water, and carbon dioxide. The CO₂ causes visible fizzing.

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9.

Describe how a titration is carried out to find the exact volume of acid needed to neutralise a known volume of alkali.

2 marks · standardCommon

A known volume of alkali is measured into a conical flask using a pipette and a few drops of indicator are added. Acid is added slowly from a burette while swirling. The endpoint is reached when the indicator just permanently changes colour, showing the alkali has been neutralised. The volume of acid used (the titre) is recorded from the burette.

  • Alkali placed in conical flask; acid added from burette (or vice versa); indicator present (1m)
  • Stop at endpoint / when indicator permanently changes colour; record titre (volume of acid used) (1m)

In a titration, alkali is placed in a conical flask with indicator. Acid is added drop by drop from a burette. Stop when the indicator permanently changes colour (the endpoint). The volume read from the burette is the titre.

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10.

Which word equation correctly represents a neutralisation reaction?

  • A. acid + metal → salt + hydrogen
  • B. acid + metal carbonate → salt + water + carbon dioxide
  • C. acid + metal oxide → salt + hydrogen
  • D. acid + alkali → salt + water
1 mark · foundationCommon

Neutralisation is the reaction between an acid and an alkali (or base) to form a salt and water. The general equation is: acid + alkali → salt + water.

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11.

What type of salt does hydrochloric acid always produce?

  • A. Chlorides
  • B. Sulfates
  • C. Nitrates
  • D. Carbonates
1 mark · foundationCommon

Hydrochloric acid (HCl) always produces chloride salts. For example, HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H₂O. The salt name comes from the metal plus the acid: HCl → chlorides.

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12.

State the test for hydrogen gas and its result.

1 mark · foundationCommon

Hold a burning splint at the opening of the test tube. Hydrogen produces a squeaky pop.

  • A burning/lit splint held near the gas produces a squeaky pop (1m)

The test for hydrogen gas is to hold a burning (lit) splint at the mouth of the tube. A squeaky pop sound confirms the presence of hydrogen, which burns rapidly in air.

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13.

Name the salt formed when nitric acid reacts with potassium hydroxide.

1 mark · foundationCommon

Potassium nitrate.

  • Potassium nitrate (KNO₃) (1m)

HNO₃ + KOH → KNO₃ + H₂O. Nitric acid produces nitrate salts; the base provides the metal cation (potassium). Salt = potassium nitrate.

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14.

What pH value is reached when an acid and alkali have been exactly neutralised?

1 mark · foundationCommon

pH 7 (neutral).

  • pH 7 (neutral) (1m)

When an acid and alkali are exactly neutralised, all H⁺ ions have been converted to water (H⁺ + OH⁻ → H₂O). The resulting solution is neutral at pH 7.

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15.

Which ionic equation represents ALL neutralisation reactions between a strong acid and a strong alkali?

  • A. Na⁺(aq) + Cl⁻(aq) → NaCl(s)
  • B. H⁺(aq) + OH⁻(aq) → H₂O(l)
  • C. H₂(g) + O₂(g) → 2H₂O(l)
  • D. H⁺(aq) + Cl⁻(aq) → HCl(aq)
1 mark · standardCommon

The ionic equation H⁺(aq) + OH⁻(aq) → H₂O(l) applies to all strong acid-strong alkali neutralisations because the other ions (Na⁺, Cl⁻ etc.) are spectator ions that cancel out. Only the H⁺ and OH⁻ ions actually react.

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16.

A student adds calcium carbonate to hydrochloric acid and bubbles the gas produced through limewater. What result confirms carbon dioxide is produced?

  • A. Limewater turns blue
  • B. Limewater remains colourless
  • C. Limewater turns milky (cloudy white)
  • D. Limewater gives a squeaky pop with a burning splint
1 mark · standardCommon

Carbon dioxide turns limewater (calcium hydroxide solution) milky or cloudy white. The reaction forms insoluble calcium carbonate: CO₂(g) + Ca(OH)₂(aq) → CaCO₃(s) + H₂O(l). This is the standard test for CO₂.

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17.

What are the products when sulfuric acid reacts with potassium hydroxide?

  • A. Potassium chloride and water
  • B. Potassium nitrate and hydrogen
  • C. Potassium oxide and carbon dioxide
  • D. Potassium sulfate and water
1 mark · standardCommon

H₂SO₄ + 2KOH → K₂SO₄ + 2H₂O. Sulfuric acid always produces sulfate salts. The metal comes from the base (potassium from KOH), so the salt is potassium sulfate.

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18.

In a titration, a student adds sodium hydroxide from a burette to hydrochloric acid containing a few drops of phenolphthalein indicator. What colour change occurs at the endpoint?

  • A. Colourless to pink/purple
  • B. Colourless to red
  • C. Red to colourless
  • D. Yellow to orange
1 mark · standardCommon

Phenolphthalein is colourless in acidic conditions and pink/purple in alkaline conditions. The acid is in the flask; adding alkali neutralises the acid. At the endpoint, one drop of excess alkali turns the solution permanently pink/purple.

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19.

Indigestion tablets contain magnesium hydroxide, Mg(OH)₂. Explain which chemical process these tablets use to treat excess stomach acid (HCl).

  • A. Oxidation: HCl gains electrons from Mg(OH)₂
  • B. Neutralisation: Mg(OH)₂ reacts with HCl to form MgCl₂ and water, raising the pH
  • C. Precipitation: Mg(OH)₂ reacts with water to form an insoluble salt
  • D. Electrolysis: the tablet splits HCl into hydrogen and chlorine gases
1 mark · standardCommon

Mg(OH)₂ + 2HCl → MgCl₂ + 2H₂O. Magnesium hydroxide is a base that neutralises the hydrochloric acid in the stomach, forming a salt (magnesium chloride) and water. This raises the stomach pH, relieving discomfort.

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20.

During a titration of strong acid with strong alkali, the pH changes slowly at first, then very rapidly near the equivalence point, then slowly again. Which statement best explains the rapid change near the equivalence point?

  • A. The concentration of the alkali increases near the equivalence point
  • B. The reaction rate increases near the equivalence point because the solution is being stirred faster
  • C. Near the equivalence point, only a tiny number of H⁺ ions remain, so a small addition of OH⁻ causes a very large proportional change in H⁺ concentration
  • D. The indicator changes colour suddenly, which affects the pH reading
1 mark · standardCommon

Near the equivalence point, almost all H⁺ has been neutralised. Because [H⁺] is extremely small, adding just one more drop of alkali proportionally changes [H⁺] by a huge factor. Since pH = −log[H⁺], a large proportional change in [H⁺] produces a large change in pH. This is the mathematical reason for the sharp pH rise.

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Making Salts

Common20
1.

A student wants to prepare a pure dry sample of sodium sulfate. Sodium hydroxide solution is a soluble alkali. Describe the full procedure the student should use to make a pure, dry sample of sodium sulfate. Include the method for finding the endpoint and explain why each step is carried out. [6 marks]

6 marks · higherCommon

First, use a pipette to transfer a known volume of sodium hydroxide solution into a conical flask. Add a few drops of methyl orange indicator. Using a burette, add dilute sulfuric acid drop by drop, swirling the flask continuously, until the indicator just changes colour from yellow to red — this is the endpoint, indicating complete neutralisation. Record the exact volume of acid used. Repeat the titration using the same volumes of sodium hydroxide and sulfuric acid but this time without indicator, because the indicator would contaminate the crystals. Gently heat the neutral solution to evaporate some of the water, then leave it to cool so that sodium sulfate crystals form. Filter the crystals from the solution and dry them between filter paper or in a warm oven.

  • Use a burette and pipette; pipette a known volume of sodium hydroxide into a conical flask (1m)
  • Add a few drops of indicator (e.g., methyl orange) to the sodium hydroxide solution (1m)
  • Add dilute sulfuric acid slowly from the burette until the indicator just changes colour — this is the endpoint (exact neutralisation) (1m)
  • Record the exact volume of sulfuric acid used from the burette reading (1m)
  • Repeat the titration using the same volumes of sodium hydroxide and sulfuric acid but without indicator — to avoid contaminating the product (1m)
  • Gently evaporate the neutral solution to concentrate it / allow it to cool and crystallise; filter and dry the crystals to obtain a pure dry sample (1m)

Sodium sulfate is made by titrating sodium hydroxide with dilute sulfuric acid. Because sodium hydroxide is soluble, the titration method is required — exact volumes prevent excess alkali contamination. The neutral solution is then evaporated and cooled to crystallise the sodium sulfate.

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2.

Describe the steps involved in the required practical for preparing a pure, dry sample of copper sulfate crystals from copper oxide and dilute sulfuric acid.

4 marks · standardCommon

Add excess copper oxide to warm dilute sulfuric acid and stir until no more solid dissolves. Filter the mixture to remove the unreacted copper oxide. Heat the filtrate gently to evaporate some of the water. Leave the solution to cool so that copper sulfate crystals form. Filter off the crystals and dry them between filter paper.

  • Add excess copper oxide to dilute sulfuric acid (and warm/stir) (1m)
  • Filter to remove excess unreacted copper oxide (1m)
  • Evaporate the filtrate (heat gently / evaporate water) (1m)
  • Allow to cool to crystallise / leave to crystallise, then filter and dry the crystals (1m)

The four steps are: (1) add excess copper oxide to ensure all acid reacts, (2) filter to remove the unreacted solid, (3) gently evaporate the filtrate to concentrate it, (4) cool to crystallise then filter and dry.

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3.

Describe the titration method used to make a pure sample of sodium chloride from sodium hydroxide solution and hydrochloric acid.

4 marks · standardCommon

Place a known volume of sodium hydroxide solution in a conical flask and add a few drops of indicator. Using a burette, slowly add hydrochloric acid until the indicator changes colour — this is the endpoint. Record the exact volume of acid used. Repeat the titration with the same volumes of acid and alkali but this time without indicator. Gently evaporate the neutral solution to crystallise the sodium chloride.

  • Add indicator to sodium hydroxide; add hydrochloric acid from burette until colour change (endpoint) (1m)
  • Record the volume of acid needed for neutralisation (1m)
  • Repeat using same volumes but WITHOUT indicator (1m)
  • Evaporate the neutral solution to obtain sodium chloride crystals (1m)

Titration uses exact volumes found with an indicator, then repeats without indicator to avoid contamination. Evaporation then yields pure crystals.

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4.

Compare the two methods for making soluble salts — the excess insoluble base method and the titration method. State which reactants each method uses and why each separation technique is different.

4 marks · higherCommon

The excess insoluble base method uses an acid with an insoluble base such as a metal oxide or carbonate. Excess insoluble base is added to ensure all the acid reacts; the excess solid is removed by filtering because it is insoluble. The titration method is used when the base is a soluble alkali such as sodium hydroxide. Excess alkali cannot be removed by filtering because it is dissolved, so titration is used to measure exact volumes that give complete neutralisation with no excess.

  • Excess insoluble base method: uses an insoluble base (metal oxide/carbonate) — gives one mark for naming or describing insoluble base (1m)
  • Excess is used because it ensures all acid reacts; excess insoluble solid is removed by filtering (1m)
  • Titration method: uses a soluble alkali — gives one mark for naming or describing soluble alkali (1m)
  • Titration used because excess soluble alkali cannot be removed by filtering; exact volumes are measured (1m)

The key difference is solubility: insoluble excess can be filtered; soluble excess cannot, so titration finds exact volumes to avoid any excess.

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5.

A student carries out a precipitation reaction to make barium sulfate. She mixes barium chloride solution with sodium sulfate solution. (a) Write the full ionic equation with state symbols. (b) Identify the spectator ions. (c) Explain why barium sulfate is used in medical X-ray procedures despite barium being toxic.

4 marks · higherCommon

(a) Ba²⁺(aq) + SO₄²⁻(aq) → BaSO₄(s). (b) The spectator ions are Na⁺(aq) and Cl⁻(aq). (c) Barium sulfate is insoluble, so it cannot be absorbed through the gut wall into the bloodstream. Because it does not dissolve, the toxic Ba²⁺ ions are not released into the body. It simply passes through the digestive system.

  • Ba²⁺(aq) + SO₄²⁻(aq) → BaSO₄(s) with correct state symbols (1m)
  • Spectator ions: Na⁺ and Cl⁻ (both needed for 1 mark) (1m)
  • Barium sulfate is insoluble so it is not absorbed into the body / does not enter the bloodstream (1m)
  • Therefore toxic barium ions cannot be released into the body / barium remains in gut and passes through (1m)

Barium sulfate is insoluble, so it cannot dissolve in the gut and toxic Ba²⁺ ions cannot enter the bloodstream. This is a classic application of precipitation chemistry.

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6.

Explain why excess copper oxide is used in the preparation of copper sulfate crystals, and describe how the excess is removed.

3 marks · standardCommon

Excess copper oxide is added to ensure all of the sulfuric acid reacts and no acid remains in the final product. Residual acid would contaminate the salt. Because copper oxide is insoluble, the excess solid can be removed by filtering the mixture.

  • Excess copper oxide ensures all the acid is used up / no acid remains (1m)
  • Any remaining acid would contaminate / make the product impure (1m)
  • Excess copper oxide is insoluble so it is removed by filtering (1m)

Excess copper oxide guarantees all the acid reacts — residual acid cannot be removed by filtering. The excess copper oxide itself is easily removed by filtering because it is insoluble.

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7.

Describe how to make a pure, dry sample of lead sulfate (an insoluble salt) from lead nitrate solution and sodium sulfate solution.

3 marks · standardCommon

Mix lead nitrate solution with sodium sulfate solution; a white precipitate of lead sulfate forms immediately. Filter the mixture to collect the precipitate. Wash the precipitate with distilled water to remove soluble impurities (nitrate ions). Dry the solid between filter paper or in a low-temperature oven.

  • Mix lead nitrate solution and sodium sulfate solution / lead sulfate precipitates (1m)
  • Filter the mixture to collect the precipitate (1m)
  • Wash with distilled water and dry the solid (1m)

Insoluble salts are made by mixing two solutions containing the target ions. The precipitate is filtered, washed with distilled water to remove soluble impurities, and dried.

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8.

A student adds sodium carbonate solution to calcium chloride solution and observes a white precipitate. (a) Name the precipitate formed. (b) Write the ionic equation, including state symbols.

3 marks · higherCommon

(a) Calcium carbonate (CaCO₃). (b) Ca²⁺(aq) + CO₃²⁻(aq) → CaCO₃(s).

  • (a) Calcium carbonate (CaCO₃) (1m)
  • (b) Ca²⁺(aq) + CO₃²⁻(aq) → CaCO₃(s) — correct ions and product (1m)
  • Correct state symbols on all species (1m)

Ca²⁺ and CO₃²⁻ combine to form insoluble CaCO₃. Na⁺ and Cl⁻ are spectator ions and are omitted from the ionic equation.

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9.

Name the salt formed when copper oxide reacts with sulfuric acid. Write a word equation for this reaction.

2 marks · foundationCommon

The salt is copper sulfate. Word equation: copper oxide + sulfuric acid → copper sulfate + water.

  • Salt named as copper sulfate (CuSO₄) (1m)
  • Word equation: copper oxide + sulfuric acid → copper sulfate + water (1m)

Copper oxide (CuO) reacts with sulfuric acid (H₂SO₄) to give copper sulfate (CuSO₄) and water (H₂O). Sulfuric acid always produces sulfate salts.

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10.

Write the ionic equation, including state symbols, for the precipitation of silver chloride when silver nitrate solution is added to sodium chloride solution.

2 marks · higherCommon

Ag⁺(aq) + Cl⁻(aq) → AgCl(s)

  • Correct ions: Ag⁺(aq) + Cl⁻(aq) → AgCl(s) (1m)
  • Correct state symbols on all species (1m)

In the ionic equation, only the ions that form the precipitate appear. Na⁺ and NO₃⁻ are spectator ions and are omitted. Ag⁺(aq) + Cl⁻(aq) → AgCl(s).

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11.

Explain what is meant by a 'spectator ion' and give an example from a precipitation reaction.

2 marks · higherCommon

A spectator ion is an ion that is present in solution but does not participate in the reaction — it remains in solution unchanged before and after the reaction. For example, when silver nitrate reacts with sodium chloride to form silver chloride, the Na⁺ ions and NO₃⁻ ions are spectator ions.

  • A spectator ion is an ion that does not take part in / is not involved in the reaction / remains in solution unchanged (1m)
  • A correct example of a spectator ion from a named precipitation reaction (1m)

Spectator ions appear on both sides of a full ionic equation and are omitted from the net ionic equation. They do not take part in bond breaking or forming.

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12.

Which of the following is the correct method for making copper sulfate crystals from copper oxide and sulfuric acid?

  • A. Add excess copper oxide to acid, filter off unreacted solid, then evaporate to crystallise
  • B. Add excess acid to copper oxide, then boil to dryness
  • C. Use titration with an indicator to find the exact volumes, then repeat
  • D. Mix equal volumes of copper sulfate solution and sulfuric acid
1 mark · foundationCommon

Excess copper oxide ensures all the acid reacts. The unreacted copper oxide is removed by filtering, and the solution is evaporated slowly to allow copper sulfate crystals to form. Boiling to dryness would destroy the crystals by dehydrating them.

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13.

Why is excess insoluble base used when making a soluble salt from an acid?

  • A. To speed up the reaction by increasing concentration
  • B. To increase the yield of salt produced
  • C. To change the colour of the salt crystals
  • D. To ensure all the acid is used up so no acid remains in the product
1 mark · foundationCommon

Excess base is added to ensure all the acid reacts. Any residual acid would contaminate the salt. Because the excess base is insoluble, it can be removed by filtering. Excess acid cannot be removed by filtering.

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14.

How are insoluble salts made in the laboratory?

  • A. By reacting an acid with an excess insoluble base and filtering
  • B. By titrating an acid with an alkali
  • C. By mixing two soluble salt solutions to form a precipitate
  • D. By evaporating a saturated salt solution slowly
1 mark · foundationCommon

Insoluble salts are made by precipitation. Two solutions containing the required ions are mixed; the insoluble salt forms as a precipitate which is then filtered, washed and dried.

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15.

State the name of the salt produced when zinc reacts with hydrochloric acid.

1 mark · foundationCommon

zinc chloride

  • Zinc chloride (ZnCl₂) (1m)

Hydrochloric acid produces chloride salts. The metal (zinc) provides the first part of the name, giving zinc chloride (ZnCl₂).

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16.

A student mixes lead nitrate solution with potassium chloride solution. Which statement correctly describes what happens?

  • A. No reaction occurs because both reactants are soluble
  • B. A yellow precipitate of lead chloride forms
  • C. A white precipitate of lead chloride forms
  • D. A colourless gas is produced
1 mark · standardCommon

Lead chloride (PbCl₂) is an insoluble salt that forms as a white precipitate when lead ions and chloride ions are brought together in solution. The ionic equation is: Pb²⁺(aq) + 2Cl⁻(aq) → PbCl₂(s).

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17.

Which acid and which base would you react together to make potassium nitrate?

  • A. Hydrochloric acid and potassium hydroxide
  • B. Sulfuric acid and potassium carbonate
  • C. Nitric acid and sodium hydroxide
  • D. Nitric acid and potassium hydroxide
1 mark · standardCommon

The name of a salt tells you which acid and which metal were used: potassium comes from the base (potassium hydroxide), and nitrate comes from the acid (nitric acid). HNO₃ + KOH → KNO₃ + H₂O.

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18.

When making a soluble salt using an alkali (such as sodium hydroxide solution) and an acid, why is titration used instead of the excess solid method?

  • A. Alkalis react faster than insoluble bases so excess is not needed
  • B. Alkalis are soluble so excess cannot be removed by filtering
  • C. Titration gives a higher yield than the excess method
  • D. The salt produced is insoluble so it falls out of solution automatically
1 mark · standardCommon

Because alkalis are soluble, any excess alkali would dissolve in the salt solution and could not be separated by filtering. Titration is used to find the exact volumes needed for complete neutralisation, so no excess remains.

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19.

In a titration to make a pure salt, an indicator is used in the first run to find the endpoint. Why is the second run carried out WITHOUT the indicator?

  • A. The indicator would contaminate and colour the final salt
  • B. To save money on reagents
  • C. The second run is faster without the indicator
  • D. The indicator reacts with the salt and destroys it
1 mark · standardCommon

The indicator (e.g., methyl orange or phenolphthalein) is a coloured dye. If left in the solution and the salt is crystallised, the dye would be incorporated into the salt crystals, making the product impure and coloured. The exact volumes found in the first run are used in the second run without indicator.

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20.

The ionic equation for the formation of barium sulfate by precipitation is: Ba²⁺(aq) + SO₄²⁻(aq) → BaSO₄(s) Which pair of solutions would you mix to make barium sulfate?

  • A. Barium carbonate and sodium sulfate
  • B. Barium chloride and sodium sulfate
  • C. Barium oxide and sulfuric acid
  • D. Barium hydroxide and copper sulfate
1 mark · standardCommon

For precipitation, both reactants must be in solution (aqueous). Barium carbonate is insoluble so it cannot supply Ba²⁺(aq). Barium chloride is soluble and provides Ba²⁺; sodium sulfate is soluble and provides SO₄²⁻. These react to form insoluble BaSO₄.

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Electrolysis of Molten Compounds

Common20
1.

Evaluate the use of electrolysis to extract reactive metals from molten compounds. In your answer include: what electrolysis is, why molten compounds are used, what happens at each electrode (with half equations for the example of molten lead bromide), and why electrolysis is necessary for reactive metals. [6 marks]

6 marks · higherCommon

Electrolysis is the decomposition of an ionic compound using electrical energy. Molten compounds are used because the ions need to be free to move to carry charge; in the solid state ions are fixed in the lattice and cannot move. When a current is passed through molten lead bromide, Pb²⁺ ions (cations) move to the negative cathode where they gain 2 electrons and are reduced to lead metal: Pb²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Pb. At the positive anode, Br⁻ ions (anions) move and each lose one electron, being oxidised to bromine gas: 2Br⁻ → Br₂ + 2e⁻. Reactive metals such as sodium, magnesium, and aluminium must be extracted by electrolysis because they are higher in the reactivity series than carbon, meaning carbon cannot reduce their compounds. Electrolysis is expensive due to the large amounts of electrical energy required, but it is the only viable method for these metals.

  • Electrolysis defined as decomposition of ionic compound using electrical energy (1m)
  • Molten state needed so ions are free to move (solid = ions fixed in lattice) (1m)
  • At cathode: Pb²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Pb (reduction, positive ions gain electrons) (1m)
  • At anode: 2Br⁻ → Br₂ + 2e⁻ (oxidation, negative ions lose electrons) (1m)
  • Reactive metals are higher than carbon in reactivity series so cannot be extracted by carbon reduction (1m)
  • Electrolysis is expensive / uses a lot of electricity but is the only method for reactive metals (1m)

This 6-mark question covers the full electrolysis of molten compounds topic. Six distinct mark points: (1) electrolysis = decomposition of ionic compound by electricity; (2) molten needed because solid ions are fixed and cannot carry charge; (3) cathode half equation: Pb²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Pb (reduction); (4) anode half equation: 2Br⁻ → Br₂ + 2e⁻ (oxidation); (5) reactive metals are above carbon in reactivity series so carbon reduction cannot work; (6) electrolysis is expensive but is the only viable method. All bullet points in the stem correspond to separate mark points.

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2.

Describe the complete process of electrolysis of molten lead bromide. In your answer, refer to: the movement of ions, what happens at each electrode, and include half equations for both electrodes.

4 marks · higherCommon

In molten lead bromide, Pb²⁺ and Br⁻ ions are free to move. When a current is applied, Pb²⁺ ions (positive cations) move towards the negative cathode and Br⁻ ions (negative anions) move towards the positive anode. At the cathode, Pb²⁺ ions gain 2 electrons and are reduced to lead metal: Pb²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Pb. At the anode, Br⁻ ions each lose one electron and are oxidised to form bromine gas: 2Br⁻ → Br₂ + 2e⁻.

  • Pb²⁺ ions move to cathode; Br⁻ ions move to anode (ion movement) (1m)
  • At the cathode: Pb²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Pb (lead formed, reduction) (1m)
  • At the anode: 2Br⁻ → Br₂ + 2e⁻ (bromine formed, oxidation) (1m)
  • Correct use of terms: reduction at cathode, oxidation at anode (1m)

This 4-mark question requires covering four points. (1) Ion movement: Pb²⁺ moves to cathode, Br⁻ moves to anode. (2) Cathode half equation: Pb²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Pb (reduction). (3) Anode half equation: 2Br⁻ → Br₂ + 2e⁻ (oxidation). (4) Correct use of the terms reduction (cathode) and oxidation (anode). All four points are needed for full marks. Half equations must be balanced for charge.

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3.

Write the half equation for the reaction at the cathode when molten lead bromide is electrolysed. Include state symbols.

3 marks · standardCommon

Pb²⁺(l) + 2e⁻ → Pb(l). Lead ions gain 2 electrons and are reduced to form lead metal.

  • Pb²⁺ on the left hand side (1m)
  • Correct number of electrons: 2e⁻ (1m)
  • Pb on the right hand side (state symbols: l or l in brackets are acceptable) (1m)

At the cathode, Pb²⁺ ions gain 2 electrons to become neutral lead atoms: Pb²⁺(l) + 2e⁻ → Pb(l). This is reduction (gain of electrons). The number of electrons must match the ion's charge. State symbol for both Pb²⁺ and Pb is (l) since the compound is molten. A common error is writing the wrong number of electrons or putting electrons on the wrong side.

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4.

Write the half equation for the reaction at the anode when molten lead bromide is electrolysed. Include state symbols.

3 marks · standardCommon

2Br⁻(l) → Br₂(g) + 2e⁻. Two bromide ions each lose one electron and are oxidised to form bromine gas.

  • 2Br⁻ on the left (two bromide ions) (1m)
  • Br₂ as the product (bromine gas or molecule) (1m)
  • 2e⁻ on the right (electrons released) (1m)

At the anode, Br⁻ ions lose electrons to form bromine gas: 2Br⁻(l) → Br₂(g) + 2e⁻. This is oxidation (loss of electrons). Two bromide ions are needed to form one Br₂ molecule. Note the state symbols: Br⁻ is in the molten liquid (l), Br₂ is gas (g). Electrons are released (shown on the right). A common error is writing only one Br⁻ or forgetting the coefficient of 2.

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5.

Explain why electrolysis is used to extract reactive metals such as sodium and aluminium rather than reduction with carbon.

3 marks · higherCommon

Sodium and aluminium are more reactive than carbon in the reactivity series. Carbon cannot displace metals that are more reactive than itself, so carbon reduction does not work for these metals. Electrolysis must be used instead because it supplies electrical energy to force the reduction of the metal ions, regardless of the metal’s position in the reactivity series.

  • Sodium and aluminium are more reactive than carbon (higher in the reactivity series) (1m)
  • Carbon cannot displace / reduce metals more reactive than itself (1m)
  • Electrolysis provides the (electrical) energy needed to reduce the metal ions (1m)

Carbon reduction only works for metals BELOW carbon in the reactivity series (e.g. iron, copper). Sodium and aluminium are ABOVE carbon, so carbon cannot displace them from their compounds. Electrolysis bypasses this limitation by using electrical energy to force reduction of the metal ions. This is why electrolysis is more expensive — it requires a lot of electrical energy — but it is the only feasible method for very reactive metals.

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6.

A student says: 'Reduction happens at the anode because the anode is positive and positive things attract positive ions which then gain electrons.' Identify two errors in the student's reasoning.

3 marks · higherCommon

Error 1: Reduction does NOT happen at the anode. Reduction (gain of electrons) happens at the CATHODE (negative electrode). Error 2: Positive ions are attracted to the CATHODE (negative electrode), not the anode. The anode is where NEGATIVE ions (anions) are attracted and OXIDATION occurs (loss of electrons).

  • Error 1: Reduction happens at the cathode (negative electrode), not the anode (1m)
  • Error 2: Positive ions (cations) move to the cathode, not the anode; the anode attracts negative ions (1m)
  • The anode is where oxidation occurs (anions lose electrons) (1m)

The student has confused two things. Error 1: Reduction (gain of electrons) happens at the CATHODE (negative electrode), not the anode. Error 2: Positive ions (cations) are attracted to the CATHODE (the negative electrode), not the anode. The anode is positive and attracts NEGATIVE ions (anions), where oxidation (loss of electrons) occurs. Use the memory aid 'RED CAT, AN OX': reduction at cathode, oxidation at anode.

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7.

State what happens at (a) the cathode and (b) the anode during electrolysis.

2 marks · foundationCommon

At the cathode (negative electrode), positive ions gain electrons and are reduced. At the anode (positive electrode), negative ions lose electrons and are oxidised.

  • At the cathode: positive ions / cations gain electrons and are reduced (1m)
  • At the anode: negative ions / anions lose electrons and are oxidised (1m)

Memory aid: 'AN OX' (ANion OXidised) and 'RED CAT' (REDuction at CAThode). Cathode is negative, so positive cations are attracted there and gain electrons (reduction). Anode is positive, so negative anions are attracted there and lose electrons (oxidation). Getting these the wrong way round is the most common error in electrolysis questions.

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8.

Explain why solid lead bromide does not conduct electricity, but molten lead bromide does.

2 marks · foundationCommon

In solid lead bromide, the ions are fixed in a regular lattice and cannot move, so they cannot carry electrical charge. When the compound is melted (molten), the ions become free to move towards the electrodes and can carry charge, allowing it to conduct electricity.

  • In the solid state, ions are fixed / held in lattice positions and cannot move (1m)
  • When molten, ions are free to move and can carry electrical charge / conduct electricity (1m)

Conduction requires charged particles that are free to move. In solid lead bromide (ionic lattice), ions are locked in fixed positions — they cannot flow to carry current. When melted, the lattice breaks down and ions become mobile, allowing them to carry charge to the electrodes. This explains why electrolysis requires molten or dissolved ionic compounds, not solids.

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9.

State the products formed at each electrode when molten lead bromide (PbBr₂) is electrolysed.

2 marks · standardCommon

At the cathode, lead metal is formed. At the anode, bromine gas is formed.

  • Lead / Pb formed at the cathode (1m)
  • Bromine / Br₂ formed at the anode (1m)

PbBr₂ contains Pb²⁺ ions (positive) and Br⁻ ions (negative). At the cathode (negative electrode), Pb²⁺ ions are attracted and gain 2 electrons to form lead metal. At the anode (positive electrode), Br⁻ ions are attracted and lose electrons to form bromine gas (Br₂). Metal always forms at cathode; non-metal (or gas) at anode from molten ionic compounds.

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10.

Predict the products formed at each electrode when molten sodium chloride (NaCl) is electrolysed. Explain your reasoning.

2 marks · standardCommon

At the cathode, sodium metal is formed because Na⁺ ions are attracted to the negative electrode, gain one electron and are reduced to sodium atoms. At the anode, chlorine gas is formed because Cl⁻ ions are attracted to the positive electrode, lose one electron each and are oxidised to form Cl₂.

  • Sodium metal at cathode (Na⁺ ions gain electrons / are reduced) (1m)
  • Chlorine gas at anode (Cl⁻ ions lose electrons / are oxidised) (1m)

NaCl contains Na⁺ (positive) and Cl⁻ (negative) ions. Cathode (negative): Na⁺ ions are attracted, gain 1 electron, and are reduced to Na metal. Anode (positive): Cl⁻ ions are attracted, each loses 1 electron, and pairs of Cl atoms bond to form Cl₂ gas. Both products are correct for full marks, and reasoning (ion attracted, electron transfer, reduced/oxidised) adds explanation marks.

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11.

Predict the products formed at each electrode when molten magnesium oxide (MgO) is electrolysed.

2 marks · higherCommon

At the cathode, magnesium metal is formed because Mg²⁺ ions gain 2 electrons and are reduced. At the anode, oxygen gas is formed because O²⁻ ions lose 2 electrons each and are oxidised to form O₂.

  • Magnesium metal at the cathode (Mg²⁺ ions are reduced) (1m)
  • Oxygen gas at the anode (O²⁻ ions are oxidised) (1m)

MgO contains Mg²⁺ (positive) and O²⁻ (negative) ions. Cathode: Mg²⁺ ions gain 2 electrons each to form magnesium metal (reduction). Anode: O²⁻ ions each lose 2 electrons; pairs of oxygen atoms bond to form O₂ gas (oxidation). Magnesium oxide has a very high melting point, so a great deal of energy is needed to melt it for electrolysis.

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12.

Which condition is required for electrolysis to occur with an ionic compound?

  • A. The ions must be free to move (molten or in solution)
  • B. The compound must be dissolved in organic solvent
  • C. The compound must be heated above 1000 °C
  • D. The compound must contain metallic bonds
1 mark · foundationCommon

Electrolysis requires ions that are free to move so they can carry charge towards the electrodes. This happens when an ionic compound is melted (molten) or dissolved in water (aqueous solution). In the solid state, ions are locked in a lattice and cannot move.

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13.

In electrolysis, which electrode is the cathode?

  • A. The positive electrode
  • B. The neutral electrode
  • C. The negative electrode
  • D. Either electrode depending on the compound
1 mark · foundationCommon

The cathode is always the negative electrode. It attracts positive ions (cations). The anode is always the positive electrode and attracts negative ions (anions). A useful memory trick: CATHode and CATion both start with CAT.

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14.

What is an electrolyte?

  • A. Any liquid that can conduct electricity
  • B. A gas produced during electrolysis
  • C. A metal that carries electrons between electrodes
  • D. A molten or dissolved ionic compound that can conduct electricity
1 mark · foundationCommon

An electrolyte is a molten or dissolved ionic compound that can conduct electricity because it contains free-moving ions. Pure water and organic liquids are not electrolytes because they do not contain free ions.

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15.

Lead ions in molten lead bromide have the formula Pb²⁺. How many electrons must each lead ion gain to form a neutral lead atom?

1 mark · foundationCommon

2

  • 2 electrons (Pb²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Pb) (1m)

Lead ions carry a 2+ charge, meaning they have lost 2 electrons. To become neutral, they must gain back exactly 2 electrons at the cathode: Pb²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Pb.

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16.

Bromide ions have the formula Br⁻. How many electrons must two bromide ions lose between them to form one molecule of bromine gas (Br₂)?

1 mark · foundationCommon

2

  • 2 electrons (2Br⁻ → Br₂ + 2e⁻) (1m)

Each Br⁻ ion carries a 1− charge, meaning it has one extra electron. To become neutral bromine atoms that can bond together as Br₂, each must lose 1 electron. Two Br⁻ ions together lose 2 electrons: 2Br⁻ → Br₂ + 2e⁻.

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17.

State what is meant by the term electrolysis.

1 mark · foundationCommon

Electrolysis is the breaking down (decomposition) of an ionic compound using electrical energy.

  • Breaking down / decomposition of an ionic compound using electricity (1m)

Electrolysis = decomposition of an ionic compound using electricity. Two key points: it requires an ionic compound AND it must be molten or dissolved (so ions can move). A common error is omitting 'ionic' — electrolysis only works on ionic compounds, not covalent substances.

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18.

Molten lead bromide (PbBr₂) is electrolysed. What is produced at the cathode?

  • A. Bromine gas
  • B. Lead metal
  • C. Hydrogen gas
  • D. Oxygen gas
1 mark · standardCommon

In molten lead bromide, Pb²⁺ ions are attracted to the negative cathode where they gain 2 electrons and are reduced to form lead metal: Pb²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Pb. Bromine ions (Br⁻) move to the anode and are oxidised to bromine gas.

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19.

Which statement correctly describes what happens at the anode during electrolysis?

  • A. Positive ions gain electrons and are reduced
  • B. Negative ions gain electrons and are reduced
  • C. Negative ions lose electrons and are oxidised
  • D. Positive ions lose electrons and are oxidised
1 mark · standardCommon

At the anode (positive electrode), negative ions (anions) are attracted and lose electrons to the electrode. This is oxidation (OIL: Oxidation Is Loss of electrons). For example, 2Br⁻ → Br₂ + 2e⁻.

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20.

Why is electrolysis used to extract very reactive metals like sodium and aluminium?

  • A. These metals cannot be extracted by carbon reduction as they are more reactive than carbon
  • B. It is cheaper than using carbon reduction
  • C. Electrolysis produces purer metals than any other method
  • D. Carbon reduction does not work at high enough temperatures
1 mark · standardCommon

Metals more reactive than carbon (such as sodium, magnesium, calcium, and aluminium) cannot be extracted by carbon reduction because carbon is not reactive enough to displace them. Electrolysis must be used instead to supply the electrical energy needed to reduce these metal ions.

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Electrolysis of Aqueous Solutions

Common20
1.

A student electrolyses three different aqueous solutions using inert electrodes: (i) concentrated sodium chloride, (ii) dilute sodium chloride, and (iii) aqueous copper(II) sulfate. For each solution, state the product at the cathode and the product at the anode. For solutions (i) and (iii), write the half-equation for the cathode reaction. Explain the reasons for the differences in products between solutions (i) and (ii).

6 marks · challengeCommon

(i) Concentrated NaCl: cathode = hydrogen (2H⁺ + 2e⁻ → H₂); anode = chlorine (2Cl⁻ → Cl₂ + 2e⁻). (ii) Dilute NaCl: cathode = hydrogen; anode = oxygen (OH⁻ ions discharged). (iii) Copper(II) sulfate: cathode = copper (Cu²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Cu); anode = oxygen (SO₄²⁻ not a halide, OH⁻ discharged). Difference between (i) and (ii): in concentrated NaCl, high Cl⁻ concentration means Cl⁻ is preferentially discharged at the anode giving Cl₂. In dilute NaCl, Cl⁻ concentration is too low relative to OH⁻, so OH⁻ is preferentially oxidised instead, giving O₂.

  • (i) Concentrated NaCl — cathode: hydrogen gas (H₂); anode: chlorine gas (Cl₂) (1m)
  • (ii) Dilute NaCl — cathode: hydrogen gas (H₂); anode: oxygen gas (O₂) (1m)
  • (iii) CuSO₄ — cathode: copper metal (Cu); anode: oxygen gas (O₂) (1m)
  • Half-equation (i) cathode: 2H⁺ + 2e⁻ → H₂ (1m)
  • Half-equation (iii) cathode: Cu²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Cu (1m)
  • Explanation: In concentrated NaCl, Cl⁻ concentration is high so Cl⁻ is preferentially discharged at the anode. In dilute NaCl, Cl⁻ concentration is low relative to OH⁻ ions from water, so OH⁻ is preferentially discharged producing oxygen instead (1m)

This 6-mark question demands full coverage of aqueous electrolysis discharge rules. Summary: (i) Concentrated NaCl — cathode: H₂ (Na too reactive); anode: Cl₂ (Cl⁻ in high concentration); half-equation: 2H⁺ + 2e⁻ → H₂. (ii) Dilute NaCl — cathode: H₂ (same rule); anode: O₂ (Cl⁻ too dilute, OH⁻ discharged instead). (iii) CuSO₄ — cathode: Cu (Cu²⁺ less reactive than H⁺); anode: O₂ (sulfate not a halide, OH⁻ discharged); half-equation: Cu²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Cu. The critical explanation for (i)/(ii) difference: concentration of Cl⁻ relative to OH⁻ at the anode determines which anion is discharged. Full marks require correct products for all three solutions, both half-equations, and a clear concentration-based explanation.

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2.

Aqueous copper(II) sulfate is electrolysed using inert graphite electrodes. (a) Identify and explain the product at the cathode. (b) Identify and explain the product at the anode. (c) Write a half-equation for each electrode.

4 marks · higherCommon

(a) Copper metal is deposited at the cathode. Cu²⁺ ions are less reactive than H⁺, so Cu²⁺ ions are preferentially reduced. (b) Oxygen gas is produced at the anode. Sulfate (SO₄²⁻) is not a halide so it is not discharged; instead OH⁻ ions from water are oxidised. (c) Cathode: Cu²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Cu. Anode: 4OH⁻ → O₂ + 2H₂O + 4e⁻.

  • Copper deposited at cathode; Cu²⁺ ions are preferentially reduced (less reactive than H⁺) (1m)
  • Half-equation for cathode: Cu²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Cu (1m)
  • Oxygen produced at anode; SO₄²⁻ is not a halide, so OH⁻ ions are preferentially oxidised (1m)
  • Half-equation for anode: 4OH⁻ → O₂ + 2H₂O + 4e⁻ (1m)

This 4-mark question integrates all the key aqueous electrolysis rules. Cathode: Cu²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Cu. Copper is preferentially discharged over H⁺ because Cu²⁺ ions are less reactive (lower in the reactivity series). Anode: 4OH⁻ → O₂ + 2H₂O + 4e⁻. Sulfate is not a halide ion so it stays in solution; OH⁻ from water is oxidised instead. Top-scoring answers always include both the identification AND the reason for each electrode, plus correctly balanced half-equations with electrons on the correct side.

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3.

Describe the three products formed when concentrated brine is electrolysed, and state where each is produced.

3 marks · standardCommon

Chlorine gas is produced at the anode because Cl⁻ ions are oxidised. Hydrogen gas is produced at the cathode because H⁺ ions from water are reduced in preference to Na⁺ ions. Sodium hydroxide solution remains in the electrolyte because Na⁺ and OH⁻ ions are not discharged.

  • Chlorine gas produced at the anode (Cl⁻ ions oxidised) (1m)
  • Hydrogen gas produced at the cathode (H⁺ ions reduced in preference to Na⁺) (1m)
  • Sodium hydroxide (NaOH) remains in solution / Na⁺ and OH⁻ ions not discharged (1m)

Industrial brine electrolysis is a three-product process: (1) Chlorine gas at the anode — Cl⁻ ions are oxidised (lose electrons) in preference to OH⁻ because Cl⁻ is at high concentration; (2) Hydrogen gas at the cathode — H⁺ ions from water are reduced in preference to Na⁺ because Na is more reactive; (3) Sodium hydroxide (NaOH) in solution — Na⁺ and OH⁻ ions are not discharged and remain in the electrolyte. All three products are commercially important: Cl₂ for disinfection, H₂ for fuel/Haber process, NaOH for making soap and paper.

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4.

Explain why concentrated sodium chloride solution produces chlorine at the anode, whereas dilute sodium chloride solution produces oxygen at the anode.

3 marks · standardCommon

In concentrated NaCl, Cl⁻ ions are in high concentration so they are preferentially discharged at the anode, producing chlorine gas. In dilute NaCl, the concentration of Cl⁻ ions is low relative to OH⁻ ions from water, so OH⁻ ions are preferentially discharged instead, producing oxygen gas.

  • Concentrated: Cl⁻ ions are at high concentration / in excess (1m)
  • Concentrated: Cl⁻ preferentially discharged over OH⁻ → Cl₂ produced (1m)
  • Dilute: low concentration of Cl⁻ / OH⁻ is at higher relative concentration / OH⁻ preferentially discharged → O₂ produced (1m)

This question tests the concentration effect at the anode, which is one of the trickiest aspects of aqueous electrolysis. In concentrated brine, there are many more Cl⁻ ions than OH⁻ ions, so Cl⁻ is preferentially discharged (2Cl⁻ → Cl₂ + 2e⁻). In dilute brine, the proportion of Cl⁻ falls while OH⁻ (from water) becomes relatively more abundant, so OH⁻ is discharged instead (4OH⁻ → O₂ + 2H₂O + 4e⁻). The cathode product (H₂) is the same in both cases because it depends on reactivity (Na > H), not concentration. A key exam point: always specify 'concentrated' or 'dilute' when predicting the anode product for NaCl.

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5.

Describe the tests for hydrogen, chlorine, and oxygen gas and give the expected result for each.

3 marks · higherCommon

Hydrogen: hold a lit splint in the gas — a squeaky pop is heard as hydrogen ignites. Chlorine: hold damp litmus paper in the gas — the litmus paper is bleached white. Oxygen: hold a glowing splint in the gas — the splint relights.

  • Hydrogen: lit / burning splint → squeaky pop (1m)
  • Chlorine: damp litmus paper → bleached white (decolourised) (1m)
  • Oxygen: glowing splint → relights (1m)

Three essential gas tests — learn them as paired facts: (1) Hydrogen: burning/lit splint → squeaky pop (H₂ combusts). (2) Chlorine: damp litmus paper → bleached white (Cl₂ is a strong oxidising/bleaching agent due to HClO formed in water). (3) Oxygen: glowing splint → relights (O₂ supports combustion). Common mix-ups to avoid: 'relights a glowing splint' is for oxygen NOT chlorine; 'bleaches litmus' is chlorine NOT oxygen; CO₂ (not tested here) turns limewater milky. Litmus must be damp for the chlorine test — the reaction involves water molecules.

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6.

The industrial electrolysis of brine produces three important chemicals. Name these three chemicals and give one industrial use for each.

3 marks · higherCommon

Chlorine gas — used in the manufacture of PVC plastic and for disinfecting water supplies. Hydrogen gas — used as a fuel or in the manufacture of margarine (hydrogenation). Sodium hydroxide solution — used as a cleaning agent or in the manufacture of soap.

  • Chlorine — any valid use: PVC, disinfecting water, making bleach, HCl production (1m)
  • Hydrogen — any valid use: fuel, hydrogenation of oils/margarine, fuel cells (1m)
  • Sodium hydroxide — any valid use: soap, paper manufacture, cleaning agents, neutralising acids (1m)

Brine electrolysis (the chlor-alkali process) is one of the most economically important industrial electrolysis processes. Three products: (1) Chlorine (Cl₂) at the anode — uses include making PVC, disinfecting drinking water and swimming pools, making bleach (sodium hypochlorite); (2) Hydrogen (H₂) at the cathode — used as a fuel, in the Haber process (making ammonia), or in food production (hydrogenation of vegetable oils to make margarine); (3) Sodium hydroxide (NaOH) in solution — used to make soap, paper, and as an industrial cleaning agent. One mark for each correctly named chemical paired with a valid use.

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7.

During the electrolysis of aqueous sodium chloride, hydrogen gas is produced at the cathode rather than sodium metal. Give two reasons why hydrogen is discharged in preference to sodium.

2 marks · foundationCommon

Sodium is more reactive than hydrogen so hydrogen ions are preferentially discharged. Also, the concentration of H⁺ ions from water is sufficient for discharge while sodium ions are not reduced in aqueous solution.

  • Sodium is more reactive than hydrogen / hydrogen is lower in the reactivity series (1m)
  • H⁺ ions are more easily discharged / sodium requires more energy to reduce / sodium ions remain in solution (1m)

At the cathode, positive ions compete to be reduced (gain electrons). The ion that is easiest to discharge wins. Hydrogen is preferentially discharged over sodium for two linked reasons: first, sodium is much more reactive than hydrogen, meaning Na⁺ ions are harder to reduce (they strongly 'want' to stay as ions); second, H⁺ ions (from water ionisation) are therefore easier to discharge. These two reasons are really the same principle stated from two angles — reactivity determines discharge order. The common error is saying 'H⁺ is more concentrated', which is incorrect — it actually applies to the anode (Cl⁻ vs OH⁻).

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8.

Explain why chlorine gas is produced at the anode when concentrated brine is electrolysed.

2 marks · foundationCommon

In concentrated brine, Cl⁻ ions are present at high concentration. At the anode, Cl⁻ ions are preferentially discharged and oxidised: 2Cl⁻ → Cl₂ + 2e⁻. The high concentration of Cl⁻ means it is favoured over OH⁻ ions.

  • Cl⁻ ions are preferentially discharged / high concentration of Cl⁻ / Cl⁻ ions favoured over OH⁻ (1m)
  • Cl⁻ ions are oxidised at the anode: 2Cl⁻ → Cl₂ + 2e⁻ (accept: Cl⁻ lose electrons / Cl⁻ oxidised to Cl₂) (1m)

At the anode, negative ions compete to be oxidised (lose electrons). In concentrated brine, there are far more Cl⁻ ions than OH⁻ ions from water. Concentration is the deciding factor here: when Cl⁻ is in high concentration, it is preferentially discharged rather than OH⁻. The half-equation is 2Cl⁻ → Cl₂ + 2e⁻. If the brine is dilute, OH⁻ concentration increases relative to Cl⁻, so oxygen is produced instead. This concentration effect only applies at the anode (anion competition); cathode products depend on reactivity, not concentration.

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9.

Aqueous copper(II) sulfate is electrolysed using inert electrodes. Explain why oxygen gas is produced at the anode rather than any other gas.

2 marks · standardCommon

Sulfate ions (SO₄²⁻) are not discharged at the anode because they are not halide ions. Instead, OH⁻ ions from water are oxidised at the anode: 4OH⁻ → O₂ + 2H₂O + 4e⁻, producing oxygen gas.

  • Sulfate (SO₄²⁻) is not a halide ion / not discharged / remains in solution (1m)
  • OH⁻ ions from water are oxidised at the anode to give O₂ / 4OH⁻ → O₂ + 2H₂O + 4e⁻ (1m)

At the anode, the rule for non-halide solutions is straightforward: if no halide ion (F⁻, Cl⁻, Br⁻, I⁻) is present, OH⁻ ions from water are always preferentially oxidised and oxygen gas forms. Sulfate (SO₄²⁻) is NOT a halide ion — it is a polyatomic anion that remains in solution. Therefore, the OH⁻ ions (from partial ionisation of water) are the only anions available for discharge: 4OH⁻ → O₂ + 2H₂O + 4e⁻. The common error is stating that sulfate is discharged — it never is at GCSE level.

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10.

Write the half-equation for the reaction at the anode when concentrated sodium chloride solution is electrolysed, and state whether this is oxidation or reduction.

2 marks · higherCommon

2Cl⁻ → Cl₂ + 2e⁻. This is oxidation because the chloride ions lose electrons.

  • 2Cl⁻ → Cl₂ + 2e⁻ (balanced half-equation, allow e⁻ on right) (1m)
  • Oxidation because electrons are lost (allow: OIL = Oxidation Is Loss) (1m)

Half-equation for anode (concentrated NaCl): 2Cl⁻ → Cl₂ + 2e⁻. Balancing: Cl has charge 1−, so two Cl⁻ ions are needed to produce one molecule of Cl₂ (neutral), releasing two electrons. The electrons are written on the right (leaving the Cl⁻). This is OXIDATION because the chloride ions LOSE electrons (OIL RIG: Oxidation Is Loss). Remember: the anode is positive, so it attracts negative ions, and those ions lose electrons to the electrode — that is oxidation by definition.

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11.

Write the half-equation for the reaction at the cathode when dilute sulfuric acid is electrolysed, and state the type of reaction occurring.

2 marks · higherCommon

2H⁺ + 2e⁻ → H₂. This is reduction because hydrogen ions gain electrons.

  • 2H⁺ + 2e⁻ → H₂ (balanced, electrons on left) (1m)
  • Reduction because electrons are gained (allow: RIG = Reduction Is Gain) (1m)

At the cathode (negative electrode), positive H⁺ ions are attracted and gain electrons to form hydrogen gas: 2H⁺ + 2e⁻ → H₂. Balancing: two H⁺ ions (charge 1+ each) each gain one electron, forming one neutral H₂ molecule. Electrons are written on the LEFT (being received by H⁺). This is REDUCTION because H⁺ ions GAIN electrons (RIG: Reduction Is Gain). Dilute sulfuric acid provides abundant H⁺ and SO₄²⁻ ions; at the cathode, H⁺ is reduced; at the anode, OH⁻ from water is oxidised to give oxygen.

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12.

When sodium chloride (NaCl) is dissolved in water, which four types of ion are present in the solution?

  • A. Na⁺, Cl⁻, H⁺ and OH⁻
  • B. Na⁺, Cl⁻, H₂O and OH⁻
  • C. Na⁺, Cl⁻ only
  • D. Na⁺, Cl⁻, H₂ and O²⁻
1 mark · foundationCommon

Aqueous NaCl contains Na⁺ and Cl⁻ from the salt, plus H⁺ and OH⁻ from the partial ionisation of water. H₂O is a molecule, not an ion, so option B is wrong.

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13.

Aqueous copper(II) sulfate solution is electrolysed using inert electrodes. Which substance is produced at the cathode?

  • A. Oxygen gas
  • B. Hydrogen gas
  • C. Copper metal
  • D. Sulfur dioxide gas
1 mark · foundationCommon

At the cathode, the less reactive ion is preferentially discharged. Copper (Cu²⁺) is less reactive than hydrogen, so Cu²⁺ ions are reduced to copper metal: Cu²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Cu. Hydrogen is only produced when the metal ion is more reactive than hydrogen.

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14.

When aqueous copper(II) sulfate is electrolysed with inert electrodes, copper is deposited at the cathode. Write the symbol for the ion that is reduced to form copper.

1 mark · foundationCommon

Cu²⁺

  • Cu²⁺ (copper(II) ion) (1m)

Copper(II) ions (Cu²⁺) are attracted to the negative cathode where they each gain 2 electrons and are reduced to copper atoms: Cu²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Cu.

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15.

Explain why an aqueous solution of an ionic compound contains more types of ion than the compound alone.

1 mark · foundationCommon

Water partially ionises to produce H⁺ ions and OH⁻ ions, so the solution contains these ions in addition to those from the dissolved ionic compound.

  • Water ionises / dissociates to form H⁺ (or H₃O⁺) and OH⁻ ions in addition to the compound's ions (1m)

When an ionic compound dissolves, it provides its own cations and anions. However, water itself is not entirely neutral — it partially ionises (autoionises) to produce a small but significant concentration of H⁺ and OH⁻ ions. These are present in ALL aqueous solutions. This is why aqueous electrolysis always involves competition between the compound's ions and H⁺/OH⁻ from water at the electrodes. A common misconception is that only the ionic compound contributes ions — always remember water adds H⁺ and OH⁻.

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16.

Concentrated brine (sodium chloride solution) is electrolysed. What gas is produced at the anode?

  • A. Hydrogen
  • B. Oxygen
  • C. Chlorine
  • D. Sodium vapour
1 mark · standardCommon

When a halide ion (Cl⁻) is present in high concentration, it is preferentially discharged at the anode over OH⁻ ions, producing chlorine gas: 2Cl⁻ → Cl₂ + 2e⁻. In dilute NaCl, OH⁻ is discharged instead and oxygen forms.

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17.

Dilute sodium chloride solution is electrolysed. What is produced at the anode and why?

  • A. Chlorine, because Cl⁻ ions are oxidised
  • B. Oxygen, because OH⁻ ions are oxidised in preference to the dilute Cl⁻ ions
  • C. Hydrogen, because H⁺ ions are reduced
  • D. Sodium, because Na⁺ ions are reduced
1 mark · standardCommon

In dilute NaCl, the concentration of Cl⁻ ions is low relative to OH⁻ ions from water, so OH⁻ is preferentially discharged at the anode: 4OH⁻ → O₂ + 2H₂O + 4e⁻, producing oxygen. In concentrated brine, Cl⁻ is in excess and chlorine is produced instead.

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18.

How would you test for chlorine gas collected at the anode during electrolysis?

  • A. Hold a glowing splint in the gas — it relights
  • B. Add the gas to limewater — it turns milky
  • C. Hold a burning splint in the gas — it burns with a squeaky pop
  • D. Hold damp litmus paper in the gas — it bleaches white
1 mark · standardCommon

Chlorine is an oxidising, bleaching agent. It turns damp litmus paper white (bleaches it). The splint relight test is for oxygen; the squeaky pop test is for hydrogen; limewater turning milky indicates carbon dioxide.

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19.

Which half-equation correctly shows what happens at the cathode when dilute sulfuric acid is electrolysed?

  • A. 2H⁺ + 2e⁻ → H₂
  • B. 2H₂O → O₂ + 4H⁺ + 4e⁻
  • C. 2Cl⁻ → Cl₂ + 2e⁻
  • D. O₂ + 4H⁺ + 4e⁻ → 2H₂O
1 mark · standardCommon

At the cathode, H⁺ ions from the acid gain electrons (reduction): 2H⁺ + 2e⁻ → H₂. Option A is the anode half-equation for oxygen production. Option C applies to chloride-containing solutions. Option D is thermodynamically the reverse of what the anode does.

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20.

In the electrolysis of brine (concentrated NaCl solution), what gas is produced at the cathode? Give the molecular formula.

1 mark · standardCommon

H₂

  • Hydrogen gas (H₂) — sodium is more reactive than hydrogen so H⁺ is discharged (1m)

At the cathode, H⁺ ions from water are discharged rather than Na⁺ ions because sodium is much more reactive than hydrogen. The half-equation is: 2H⁺ + 2e⁻ → H₂.

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Electrolysis of Aluminium

Common20
1.

Evaluate the process of extracting aluminium from its ore. In your answer, describe: the raw materials and why electrolysis is needed; the electrode reactions using half equations; the reasons for the high cost of the process; and the environmental advantages of recycling aluminium.

6 marks · higherCommon

Aluminium is extracted from bauxite ore, which is purified to give aluminium oxide (Al₂O₃). Aluminium sits above carbon in the reactivity series, so carbon reduction cannot be used; electrolysis is the only viable method. The Al₂O₃ is dissolved in molten cryolite to lower the melting point from over 2000°C to around 950°C, reducing energy costs and making the process more economical. At the cathode (negative electrode), Al³⁺ ions are reduced by gaining 3 electrons: Al³⁺ + 3e⁻ → Al. The molten aluminium sinks to the bottom and is tapped off. At the anode (positive electrode), O²⁻ ions are oxidised by losing 2 electrons: 2O²⁻ → O₂ + 4e⁻. The oxygen produced reacts with the hot carbon anodes forming CO₂: C + O₂ → CO₂. This burns away the anodes, which must be regularly replaced, adding to costs. The process is expensive overall because it requires very large amounts of electrical energy (large currents at high temperatures) and the anodes must be continually replaced. Recycling aluminium uses only about 5% of the energy of extraction. This is far cheaper and produces less carbon dioxide, making it environmentally beneficial. Less mining is also needed, reducing land damage.

  • Aluminium is extracted from bauxite; Al₂O₃ is the raw material for electrolysis (1m)
  • Aluminium is more reactive than carbon so electrolysis is required (not carbon reduction) (1m)
  • Cryolite used to lower melting point, reducing energy requirement (1m)
  • Correct cathode half equation: Al³⁺ + 3e⁻ → Al (reduction stated) (1m)
  • Correct anode half equation: 2O²⁻ → O₂ + 4e⁻ (oxidation stated); oxygen burns carbon anodes so they need replacing (1m)
  • Environmental/economic advantage of recycling: far less energy used, less CO₂ produced, cheaper (1m)

This 6-mark extended question rewards breadth, precision and correct half equations. Six distinct mark points must be covered. (1) Raw material: aluminium oxide (Al₂O₃) from purifying bauxite ore. (2) Why electrolysis: aluminium is above carbon in the reactivity series, so carbon reduction cannot extract it — the electrical energy from electrolysis is strong enough to decompose the oxide. (3) Cryolite's role: dissolves Al₂O₃, reducing the melting point from over 2000°C to ~950°C, dramatically cutting energy costs. (4) Cathode (negative) half equation: Al³⁺ + 3e⁻ → Al — this is reduction (gain of electrons). (5) Anode (positive) half equation: 2O²⁻ → O₂ + 4e⁻ — this is oxidation; the O₂ produced burns the carbon anodes forming CO₂, so anodes must be replaced regularly, adding to cost. The overall cost is also high due to the large continuous electrical energy demand. (6) Recycling advantage: uses only ~5% of the energy required for extraction, cutting costs and CO₂ emissions substantially. Common mistakes: confusing which electrode is cathode vs anode; writing the anode equation as reduction; forgetting that oxygen burns the anode away; or describing the rough energy saving percentage incorrectly.

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2.

Write the half equations for both the cathode and anode reactions during the electrolysis of aluminium oxide. For each, state whether it is an oxidation or a reduction reaction.

4 marks · higherCommon

Cathode: Al³⁺ + 3e⁻ → Al. This is reduction because electrons are gained. Anode: 2O²⁻ → O₂ + 4e⁻. This is oxidation because electrons are lost.

  • Cathode half equation: Al³⁺ + 3e⁻ → Al (accept with or without state symbols) (1m)
  • Cathode is reduction (because electrons are gained) (1m)
  • Anode half equation: 2O²⁻ → O₂ + 4e⁻ (accept with or without state symbols) (1m)
  • Anode is oxidation (because electrons are lost) (1m)

Use OIL RIG: Oxidation Is Loss (of electrons), Reduction Is Gain (of electrons). Cathode: Al³⁺ gains 3 electrons → reduction. Anode: O²⁻ loses electrons → oxidation.

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3.

Describe the key features of the Hall-Héroult process for extracting aluminium, explaining why the process is expensive.

4 marks · higherCommon

Aluminium oxide (from bauxite) is dissolved in molten cryolite to lower the melting point from 2072°C to about 950°C, reducing energy costs. DC electricity is passed through the mixture; Al³⁺ ions are reduced at the cathode to form aluminium metal, while O²⁻ ions are oxidised at the anode to form oxygen. The oxygen reacts with the carbon anodes, producing CO₂ and burning the anodes away, which must be regularly replaced. The process is expensive because it requires very large amounts of electrical energy and the anodes must be regularly replaced, both adding to running costs.

  • Aluminium oxide dissolved in cryolite to lower the melting point / reduce energy needed (1m)
  • Al³⁺ reduced at cathode to form aluminium metal; O²⁻ oxidised at anode to form oxygen (1m)
  • Oxygen reacts with carbon anodes forming CO₂; anodes must be regularly replaced (1m)
  • Process is expensive due to high electrical energy requirement (and/or anode replacement costs) (1m)

The Hall-Héroult process is the industrial method for aluminium extraction. The main costs are: (1) the large amounts of electricity for electrolysis, and (2) the ongoing replacement of carbon anodes that burn away in the oxygen atmosphere.

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4.

Explain why the carbon anodes used in the extraction of aluminium need to be regularly replaced.

3 marks · standardCommon

Oxygen gas is produced at the anode when oxide ions lose electrons. The oxygen reacts with the hot carbon anodes at the high operating temperature to form carbon dioxide gas. This causes the carbon anodes to gradually burn away and be consumed, so they must be replaced regularly.

  • Oxygen is produced at the anode (from oxide ions losing electrons) (1m)
  • Oxygen reacts with the carbon anodes at high temperature (forming CO₂) (1m)
  • The carbon anodes are gradually burned/consumed and must be replaced (1m)

The anode half equation is 2O²⁻ → O₂ + 4e⁻. The O₂ produced at ~950°C immediately reacts with the graphite anodes: C + O₂ → CO₂. This is why carbon anodes are a running cost in aluminium production.

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5.

Describe what happens to the ions at each electrode during the electrolysis of aluminium oxide. Use the terms oxidation and reduction in your answer.

3 marks · standardCommon

At the cathode, aluminium ions (Al³⁺) gain 3 electrons and are reduced to form aluminium metal. At the anode, oxide ions (O²⁻) lose 2 electrons and are oxidised to form oxygen gas.

  • Al³⁺ ions are reduced at the cathode by gaining electrons (1m)
  • O²⁻ ions are oxidised at the anode by losing electrons (1m)
  • Products correctly stated: aluminium (metal) and oxygen (gas) (1m)

Reduction = gain of electrons (OIL RIG). At the cathode: Al³⁺ + 3e⁻ → Al (reduction). At the anode: 2O²⁻ → O₂ + 4e⁻ (oxidation).

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6.

Explain the economic and environmental advantages of recycling aluminium compared to extracting it from its ore.

3 marks · higherCommon

Recycling aluminium uses about 95% less energy than extracting it from bauxite by electrolysis. This means it is much cheaper to recycle aluminium. There is also less environmental impact because less electricity is needed, so fewer fossil fuels are burned and less carbon dioxide is produced.

  • Recycling uses far less energy than electrolysis (accept: saves up to 95% of the energy) (1m)
  • This makes recycling more economical / cheaper (reduces costs) (1m)
  • Environmental benefit: less fossil fuel burned / less CO₂ produced / less pollution (or: less mining needed) (1m)

Electrolysis requires huge amounts of electricity because aluminium oxide is heated to ~950°C and large currents are needed. Recycling only re-melts the aluminium (660°C) with no electrolysis required, saving ~95% energy.

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7.

Explain why aluminium oxide must be in a molten or dissolved state before it can be electrolysed.

3 marks · higherCommon

In solid aluminium oxide, the ions are held in fixed positions in a giant ionic lattice and cannot move. When melted or dissolved, the ions become free to move through the liquid. Mobile ions are needed to carry the electrical charge and allow electrolysis to occur.

  • In solid aluminium oxide, ions are fixed / cannot move (1m)
  • When molten or dissolved, ions are free to move (1m)
  • Mobile ions are required to carry charge / allow electrolysis (or: conduct electricity) (1m)

Electrolysis requires ions to be able to move to the electrodes. In a solid ionic compound, ions are in fixed lattice positions and cannot migrate, so the solid cannot conduct electricity or be electrolysed.

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8.

Explain why cryolite is used in the extraction of aluminium by electrolysis.

2 marks · foundationCommon

Aluminium oxide has a very high melting point of over 2000°C. Cryolite is used to dissolve the aluminium oxide, which lowers the melting point of the mixture to around 950°C. This reduces the amount of energy needed, making the process less expensive.

  • Cryolite lowers the melting point of aluminium oxide (accept: reduces operating temperature) (1m)
  • This reduces energy costs / saves energy / makes the process cheaper (1m)

Without cryolite, aluminium oxide would need to be heated above 2072°C before electrolysis could begin. Dissolving it in cryolite drops this to ~950°C, saving enormous amounts of energy and money.

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9.

State what is produced at the cathode and at the anode during the electrolysis of molten aluminium oxide in cryolite.

2 marks · foundationCommon

At the cathode, aluminium metal is produced. At the anode, oxygen gas is produced.

  • Aluminium (metal) is produced at the cathode (1m)
  • Oxygen (gas) is produced at the anode (1m)

During electrolysis, positive Al³⁺ ions migrate to the negative cathode and are reduced to aluminium metal. Negative O²⁻ ions migrate to the positive anode and are oxidised to oxygen gas.

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10.

Give two reasons why aluminium is a useful structural metal despite being difficult to extract.

2 marks · foundationCommon

Aluminium has a low density so it is lightweight, making it useful in aircraft and vehicles. It also has a protective oxide layer on its surface which prevents further corrosion.

  • Low density / lightweight (1 mark) (1m)
  • Resistant to corrosion / forms protective oxide layer (1 mark) (1m)

Aluminium's low density (2.7 g/cm³ vs iron at 7.9 g/cm³) makes it ideal for aircraft. Its natural oxide layer (Al₂O₃) is adherent and prevents further oxidation, unlike iron which rusts continuously.

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11.

Calculate the number of moles of aluminium produced when 6 moles of electrons pass through the cathode during electrolysis of aluminium oxide. Show your working.

2 marks · standardCommon

From the half equation: Al³⁺ + 3e⁻ → Al 3 moles of electrons produce 1 mole of aluminium. 6 moles of electrons ÷ 3 = 2 moles of aluminium.

  • States 3 moles of electrons are needed per mole of aluminium (or correctly uses the half equation ratio) (1m)
  • Correctly calculates 2 moles of aluminium (1m)

The cathode half equation Al³⁺ + 3e⁻ → Al shows that 3 moles of electrons produce 1 mole of aluminium. So 6 moles of electrons will produce 6/3 = 2 moles of aluminium.

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12.

Explain why aluminium is extracted by electrolysis rather than by reduction with carbon.

2 marks · standardCommon

Aluminium is more reactive than carbon, so carbon cannot displace aluminium from its oxide. Electrolysis is required because it provides enough electrical energy to decompose aluminium oxide.

  • Aluminium is more reactive than carbon (accept: aluminium is higher than carbon in the reactivity series) (1m)
  • Carbon cannot reduce/displace aluminium from aluminium oxide, so electrolysis is needed (1m)

Only metals below carbon in the reactivity series can be extracted using carbon reduction. Aluminium sits above carbon, so electrolysis is the only viable extraction method.

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13.

What is used as the electrolyte in the Hall-Héroult process and why must it be in a liquid state?

2 marks · standardCommon

The electrolyte is aluminium oxide dissolved in molten cryolite. It must be in a liquid state because the ions need to be free to move towards the electrodes for electrolysis to take place.

  • Aluminium oxide dissolved in (molten) cryolite is the electrolyte (1m)
  • Must be liquid so ions are free to move / carry charge to the electrodes (1m)

The electrolyte must be molten or dissolved so that ions can migrate. Solid Al₂O₃ cannot be electrolysed because the ions are in fixed lattice positions.

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14.

Why is aluminium extracted by electrolysis rather than by reduction with carbon?

  • A. Aluminium is less reactive than carbon
  • B. Aluminium is more reactive than carbon
  • C. Aluminium does not form ions
  • D. Carbon reacts with aluminium to form carbides
1 mark · foundationCommon

Aluminium is above carbon in the reactivity series. Carbon can only reduce metals below it in the series. For metals above carbon, electrolysis is required because it provides enough energy to break the strong ionic bonds.

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15.

What is the role of cryolite in the extraction of aluminium?

  • A. It acts as a reducing agent
  • B. It provides the aluminium ions for electrolysis
  • C. It prevents the carbon anodes from burning
  • D. It lowers the melting point of aluminium oxide
1 mark · foundationCommon

Aluminium oxide has a very high melting point of around 2072°C. Dissolving it in molten cryolite (Na₃AlF₆) reduces the operating temperature to about 950°C, which greatly reduces energy costs.

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16.

Which half equation correctly shows the reaction at the cathode during the electrolysis of aluminium oxide?

  • A. Al³⁺ + 3e⁻ → Al
  • B. Al → Al³⁺ + 3e⁻
  • C. 2O²⁻ → O₂ + 4e⁻
  • D. O₂ + 4e⁻ → 2O²⁻
1 mark · foundationCommon

At the cathode (negative electrode), Al³⁺ ions are reduced by gaining 3 electrons each to form aluminium metal atoms. This is a reduction reaction.

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17.

How many electrons does each Al³⁺ ion gain when it is reduced at the cathode?

1 mark · foundationCommon

Each Al³⁺ ion gains 3 electrons: Al³⁺ + 3e⁻ → Al

  • 3 electrons (accept 'three') (1m)

The Al³⁺ ion has a 3+ charge, meaning it has lost 3 electrons to become ionised. To be reduced back to neutral aluminium metal, it must gain exactly 3 electrons.

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18.

Why do the carbon anodes in the Hall-Héroult process need to be regularly replaced?

  • A. They dissolve into the molten electrolyte over time
  • B. They react with aluminium to form aluminium carbide
  • C. They react with the oxygen produced at the anode to form carbon dioxide
  • D. They become coated in aluminium oxide which blocks current flow
1 mark · standardCommon

Oxygen gas is produced at the anode (2O²⁻ → O₂ + 4e⁻). At the high operating temperatures (~950°C), this oxygen reacts with the hot carbon anodes: C + O₂ → CO₂. The anodes gradually burn away and must be regularly replaced, adding to the cost of the process.

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19.

Recycling aluminium saves approximately 95% of the energy compared to extracting new aluminium from ore. Which statement best explains why this energy saving occurs?

  • A. Recycled aluminium does not need to be melted down
  • B. Recycling avoids the energy-intensive electrolysis step needed to extract aluminium from its oxide
  • C. Aluminium ore is found in remote locations, increasing transport energy costs
  • D. Recycled aluminium has better properties than newly extracted aluminium
1 mark · standardCommon

Electrolysis is enormously energy-intensive because it requires melting aluminium oxide (even with cryolite, temperatures reach ~950°C) and then passing large electrical currents. Recycling aluminium only requires re-melting the metal (around 660°C), which uses a fraction of the energy.

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20.

What is the name of the ore from which aluminium is extracted, and what is its main component?

  • A. Bauxite, containing aluminium oxide
  • B. Galena, containing lead sulfide
  • C. Haematite, containing iron oxide
  • D. Malachite, containing copper carbonate
1 mark · standardCommon

Bauxite is the main ore of aluminium. It is purified to produce aluminium oxide (Al₂O₃), also known as alumina, which is then dissolved in molten cryolite for electrolysis. Haematite contains iron oxide, galena contains lead sulfide, and malachite contains copper carbonate.

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Reaction Profiles

Common28
1.

A student is asked to compare reaction profiles for exothermic and endothermic reactions, and to explain the effect of a catalyst on each type of reaction. Using your knowledge of activation energy, bond breaking, and bond forming, write a detailed comparison of the two types of reaction profile. In your answer, include the effect of adding a catalyst to each reaction. [6 marks]

6 marks · challengeCommon

In an exothermic reaction profile, the products are at a lower energy level than the reactants, and the overall energy change (delta H) is negative. This is because the energy released in forming new bonds is greater than the energy absorbed in breaking the old bonds. In an endothermic reaction profile, the products are at a higher energy level than the reactants, and delta H is positive, because more energy is absorbed breaking old bonds than is released forming new bonds. Both types of profile show a peak above the reactant energy level: this peak represents the activation energy, which is the minimum energy that reacting particles must have. In both exothermic and endothermic reactions, adding a catalyst provides an alternative reaction pathway with a lower activation energy, shown as a lower peak on the profile. The catalyst does not change the energy levels of the reactants or products, so delta H remains the same regardless of whether a catalyst is present.

  • Exothermic: products at lower energy level than reactants / delta H is negative (1m)
  • Exothermic: energy released in bond forming exceeds energy absorbed in bond breaking (1m)
  • Endothermic: products at higher energy level than reactants / delta H is positive (1m)
  • Endothermic: energy absorbed in bond breaking exceeds energy released in bond forming (1m)
  • Activation energy is shown as the peak height from reactants to the top of the curve; it is the minimum energy needed for particles to react (1m)
  • A catalyst lowers the activation energy (lower peak) for both types of reaction but does not change the reactant/product energy levels or delta H (1m)

A full comparison of reaction profiles requires: the relative positions of reactants and products (lower for exothermic, higher for endothermic), the bond energy explanation for each, the role of activation energy as the minimum energy barrier, and the effect of a catalyst in lowering activation energy without changing delta H.

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2.

Use ideas about bond breaking and bond forming to explain the shape of a reaction profile for an exothermic reaction, including the role of activation energy. [4 marks]

4 marks · higherCommon

Activation energy is the energy needed to break the bonds in the reactants. Bond breaking requires energy input, which is why the profile rises from the reactants to a peak. At the peak, the activated complex is formed. As new bonds form in the products, energy is released. Because more energy is released making new bonds than is absorbed breaking old bonds, the products are at a lower energy level than the reactants. The overall energy change is negative (exothermic).

  • Activation energy is the energy needed to break bonds in the reactants / the initial energy input required (1m)
  • Bond breaking is endothermic (energy absorbed) — causes the rise from reactants to the peak (1m)
  • Bond forming is exothermic (energy released) — causes the fall from the peak to products (1m)
  • Products are at a lower level than reactants because energy released in bond forming exceeds energy absorbed in bond breaking (delta H negative) (1m)

The shape of the reaction profile is explained by bond energies: the rise to the peak reflects endothermic bond breaking (activation energy), and the fall to products reflects exothermic bond forming. The exothermic net change occurs because bond forming releases more energy than bond breaking absorbs.

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3.

Explain, using the concept of activation energy, why adding a catalyst increases the rate of reaction. [3 marks]

3 marks · standardCommon

A catalyst provides an alternative reaction pathway with a lower activation energy. Because the activation energy is lower, a greater proportion of the reacting particles have enough energy to overcome the energy barrier. More successful collisions occur per second, so the rate of reaction increases.

  • Catalyst provides an alternative pathway with a lower activation energy (1m)
  • A greater proportion / more particles now have enough energy to react (1m)
  • More successful collisions per unit time, so rate of reaction increases (1m)

A catalyst speeds up reactions by lowering the activation energy. With a lower energy barrier, a greater proportion of particles have sufficient energy to react successfully when they collide, increasing the reaction rate.

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4.

Describe and explain the features of a reaction profile for an endothermic reaction. [3 marks]

3 marks · standardCommon

In an endothermic reaction profile, the products are at a higher energy level than the reactants. The reaction absorbs energy from the surroundings. The overall energy change (delta H) is positive, shown by the upward step from reactants to products.

  • Products are at a higher energy level than reactants on the profile (1m)
  • Energy is absorbed from the surroundings during the reaction (1m)
  • Delta H is positive / the energy difference shows the energy absorbed (1m)

An endothermic reaction profile shows products higher than reactants (energy absorbed), with a positive delta H value.

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5.

Compare the reaction profiles for a catalysed and an uncatalysed reaction. State what is the same and what is different. [3 marks]

3 marks · higherCommon

The activation energy is lower in the catalysed profile because the catalyst provides an alternative pathway. The energy levels of the reactants and products are the same in both profiles. Therefore, the overall energy change (delta H) is identical for the catalysed and uncatalysed reactions.

  • The activation energy is lower for the catalysed reaction (lower peak) because the catalyst provides an alternative pathway (1m)
  • The reactant and product energy levels are the same in both profiles (1m)
  • Therefore delta H is the same for both the catalysed and uncatalysed reactions (1m)

The key difference is the activation energy (peak height): lower with a catalyst. The key similarity is the reactant and product energy levels — and therefore delta H — which are unchanged.

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6.

A reaction profile shows: reactants at 50 kJ, peak at 130 kJ, products at 20 kJ. Calculate (a) the activation energy and (b) the overall energy change, delta H. State whether the reaction is exothermic or endothermic. [3 marks]

3 marks · higherCommon

Activation energy = peak minus reactants = 130 minus 50 = 80 kJ. Delta H = products minus reactants = 20 minus 50 = negative 30 kJ. The reaction is exothermic because delta H is negative.

  • Activation energy = peak minus reactant energy = 130 minus 50 = 80 kJ (1m)
  • Delta H = product energy minus reactant energy = 20 minus 50 = negative 30 kJ (1m)
  • Reaction is exothermic (because delta H is negative / products lower than reactants) (1m)

Activation energy = peak minus reactants = 130 - 50 = 80 kJ. Delta H = products minus reactants = 20 - 50 = -30 kJ. Negative delta H means exothermic.

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7.

A student is given the following data for a reaction: reactants at 60 kJ, peak at 200 kJ, products at 110 kJ. Calculate the activation energy and the overall energy change. State whether the reaction is exothermic or endothermic, and justify your answer. [3 marks]

3 marks · higherCommon

Activation energy = peak minus reactant energy = 200 minus 60 = 140 kJ. Delta H = product energy minus reactant energy = 110 minus 60 = positive 50 kJ. The reaction is endothermic because delta H is positive — the products have more energy than the reactants, meaning energy has been absorbed from the surroundings.

  • Activation energy = peak minus reactants = 200 minus 60 = 140 kJ (1m)
  • Delta H = products minus reactants = 110 minus 60 = +50 kJ (1m)
  • Reaction is endothermic because delta H is positive / products are higher than reactants / energy is absorbed (1m)

Activation energy = 200 - 60 = 140 kJ. Delta H = 110 - 60 = +50 kJ. Positive delta H means the products are higher in energy than the reactants — energy has been absorbed, so the reaction is endothermic.

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8.

The diagram shows a reaction profile for an exothermic reaction. Using your knowledge of bond breaking and bond forming, explain why the products are at a lower energy level than the reactants in an exothermic reaction. [3 marks]

3 marks · higherCommon

During a chemical reaction, bonds in the reactants must first be broken, which requires energy to be absorbed from the surroundings. New bonds are then formed in the products, which releases energy to the surroundings. In an exothermic reaction, the energy released when forming new bonds in the products is greater than the energy absorbed when breaking bonds in the reactants. This means there is a net release of energy to the surroundings, so the products end up at a lower energy level than the reactants, giving a negative value for delta H.

  • Bond breaking requires/absorbs energy from the surroundings (1m)
  • Bond forming releases energy to the surroundings (1m)
  • In exothermic reactions, energy released in bond forming is greater than energy absorbed in bond breaking / net energy is released / delta H is negative (1m)

All chemical reactions involve bond breaking (endothermic — energy absorbed) and bond forming (exothermic — energy released). In an exothermic reaction overall, the energy released when new bonds form is greater than the energy absorbed when old bonds break. This net energy release means the products sit at a lower energy level than the reactants on the profile, giving a negative delta H.

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9.

Compare the energy profile of an exothermic and an endothermic reaction using the diagram. [3 marks]

3 marks · higherCommon

In an exothermic reaction, the products are at a lower energy level than the reactants, so the overall energy change (delta H) is negative — energy is released to the surroundings. In an endothermic reaction, the products are at a higher energy level than the reactants, so delta H is positive — energy is absorbed from the surroundings. Both reactions have an activation energy (the peak of the curve above the reactant level), but the endothermic reaction's activation energy is larger because more energy must be put in overall.

  • Exothermic: products at a lower energy level than reactants / delta H is negative / energy released (1m)
  • Endothermic: products at a higher energy level than reactants / delta H is positive / energy absorbed (1m)
  • Both reactions have an activation energy shown by the peak on the curve / activation energy is the height from the reactant level to the peak (1m)

On an energy profile: exothermic reactions have products at a lower energy than reactants (delta H negative, energy released); endothermic reactions have products at a higher energy than reactants (delta H positive, energy absorbed). Both types have an activation energy — the energy barrier shown as the height of the peak above the reactant level.

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10.

Describe what a reaction profile for an exothermic reaction looks like. [2 marks]

2 marks · foundationCommon

In an exothermic reaction profile, the products are at a lower energy level than the reactants. The energy difference between the reactants and products represents the energy released to the surroundings.

  • Products are at a lower energy level than the reactants (1m)
  • The difference in energy levels represents the energy released (delta H is negative) (1m)

An exothermic profile shows a downward step from reactants to products because energy is released. The vertical gap from reactant level to product level is the energy released.

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11.

State what is plotted on the x-axis and y-axis of a reaction profile. [2 marks]

2 marks · foundationCommon

The y-axis shows the energy stored in the chemicals (or enthalpy). The x-axis shows the progress of the reaction (also called the reaction coordinate or extent of reaction).

  • Y-axis: energy (of chemicals / enthalpy / potential energy) (1m)
  • X-axis: progress of reaction / reaction coordinate / extent of reaction (1m)

A reaction profile has energy (enthalpy) on the y-axis and progress of reaction (reaction coordinate) on the x-axis. This allows us to see how the energy of the chemicals changes as the reaction proceeds.

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12.

Explain how a catalyst affects the activation energy shown on a reaction profile. [2 marks]

2 marks · standardCommon

A catalyst provides an alternative reaction pathway with a lower activation energy. On the reaction profile this is shown as a lower peak, meaning fewer particles need to overcome the energy barrier and the reaction is faster.

  • A catalyst provides an alternative reaction pathway with a lower activation energy (1m)
  • Shown as a lower peak on the reaction profile / more particles can overcome the energy barrier (1m)

Catalysts work by providing an alternative reaction pathway. This new route has a lower activation energy, shown as a smaller peak on the reaction profile.

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13.

A reaction profile shows reactants at 80 kJ and products at 30 kJ. Calculate the overall energy change (delta H) and state whether the reaction is exothermic or endothermic. [2 marks]

2 marks · standardCommon

Delta H = energy of products minus energy of reactants = 30 minus 80 = negative 50 kJ. Since delta H is negative, the reaction is exothermic.

  • Delta H = products minus reactants = 30 minus 80 = -50 kJ (accept negative 50 kJ) (1m)
  • Reaction is exothermic (because delta H is negative / products lower than reactants) (1m)

Delta H = products - reactants = 30 - 80 = -50 kJ. A negative delta H means energy is released to the surroundings, so the reaction is exothermic.

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14.

The diagram shows reaction profiles for an exothermic reaction (left) and an endothermic reaction (right). Using the diagram, describe one difference between the two profiles. [2 marks]

2 marks · standardCommon

In the exothermic reaction profile the products are at a lower energy level than the reactants, so the overall energy change (delta H) is negative. In the endothermic reaction profile the products are at a higher energy level than the reactants, so delta H is positive.

  • In the exothermic profile the products are at a lower energy level than the reactants / delta H is negative (1m)
  • In the endothermic profile the products are at a higher energy level than the reactants / delta H is positive (1m)

The key visual difference between the two profiles is the final position of the products. Exothermic: products lower than reactants (energy released, negative delta H). Endothermic: products higher than reactants (energy absorbed, positive delta H).

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15.

A catalyst is added to the exothermic reaction shown in the diagram. Describe how adding a catalyst would change the reaction profile. [2 marks]

2 marks · standardCommon

Adding a catalyst lowers the activation energy, so the peak of the curve on the reaction profile becomes lower. The catalyst provides an alternative reaction pathway with a lower activation energy. The energy levels of the reactants and products remain the same, so the overall energy change (delta H) is unchanged.

  • The activation energy (peak height) is lower / the curve has a lower peak (1m)
  • The reactant and product energy levels are unchanged / delta H remains the same (1m)

A catalyst works by providing an alternative reaction pathway with a lower activation energy. This is shown on the reaction profile as a lower peak. However, the catalyst does not change the energy levels of the reactants or products, so the overall energy change (delta H) is identical with or without the catalyst.

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16.

Using the energy profile diagram, explain what the activation energy represents. [2 marks]

2 marks · standardCommon

The activation energy (Ea) is the minimum amount of energy that particles must have in order to react when they collide. It is shown on the energy profile as the height of the peak above the reactant energy level. Only particles with energy equal to or greater than the activation energy will successfully react.

  • Activation energy is the minimum energy particles need to react / energy barrier for the reaction (1m)
  • Shown on the diagram as the height from the reactant level to the peak of the curve (1m)

Activation energy (Ea) is the minimum energy colliding particles must possess for a reaction to occur. On a reaction profile it is shown as the height from the reactant energy level up to the top of the curved hump (the transition state). Particles with less energy than Ea will collide but not react.

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17.

Using the diagram, explain why the products are at a lower energy level than the reactants in an exothermic reaction. [2 marks]

2 marks · standardCommon

In any chemical reaction, bonds in the reactants are broken (which requires energy input) and new bonds in the products are formed (which releases energy). In an exothermic reaction, the energy released when new bonds form is greater than the energy absorbed when old bonds break. This means the products end up at a lower energy level than the reactants, so energy is transferred to the surroundings.

  • Bond breaking absorbs energy and bond forming releases energy (1m)
  • In an exothermic reaction, energy released (bond forming) is greater than energy absorbed (bond breaking) / net energy released / delta H is negative (1m)

All chemical reactions involve bond breaking (endothermic process — energy absorbed) and bond forming (exothermic process — energy released). In an exothermic reaction, the energy released when forming new bonds in the products is greater than the energy absorbed when breaking bonds in the reactants. The net effect is a release of energy to the surroundings, which is why the products sit at a lower energy level on the profile and delta H is negative.

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18.

What does activation energy represent on a reaction profile?

  • A. The minimum energy particles need to react
  • B. The total energy released during the reaction
  • C. The energy stored in the reactants
  • D. The difference in energy between products and reactants
1 mark · foundationCommon

Activation energy is the minimum energy that colliding particles must have to overcome the energy barrier and react. It is shown on a reaction profile as the height from the reactant energy level to the peak of the curve.

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19.

On a reaction profile for an exothermic reaction, compared to the reactants, the products are at:

  • A. A higher energy level
  • B. The same energy level
  • C. A lower energy level
  • D. The peak of the curve
1 mark · foundationCommon

In an exothermic reaction, energy is released to the surroundings. This means the products have less energy than the reactants. On a reaction profile, the products are drawn at a lower energy level than the reactants.

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20.

Which statement correctly describes an endothermic reaction profile?

  • A. Products are lower than reactants and delta H is negative
  • B. Products are higher than reactants and delta H is positive
  • C. Products are higher than reactants and delta H is negative
  • D. Products are at the same level as reactants and delta H is zero
1 mark · foundationCommon

In an endothermic reaction, energy is absorbed from the surroundings. The products store more energy than the reactants, so they appear higher on the energy axis. Because energy is taken in, delta H is positive.

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21.

State what is meant by the term 'activation energy'. [1 mark]

1 mark · foundationCommon

Activation energy is the minimum energy that reacting particles must have in order to react.

  • The minimum energy that reacting particles need in order to react / to overcome the energy barrier (1m)

Activation energy is the energy barrier that particles must overcome. Only particles with at least this much energy can react when they collide.

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22.

Using the reaction profiles shown, what does the label 'Ea' represent on each diagram?

  • A. The overall energy change of the reaction
  • B. The minimum energy particles need to react
  • C. The energy stored in the products
  • D. The energy released when bonds form
1 mark · foundationCommon

Ea stands for activation energy — the minimum energy that colliding particles must possess for a reaction to occur. It is shown on the reaction profile as the height from the reactant energy level up to the peak of the curve. It is NOT the overall energy change (delta H), which is the difference between the reactant and product energy levels.

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23.

A catalyst speeds up a reaction. Which change is shown on a reaction profile when a catalyst is added?

  • A. The reactant energy level rises
  • B. The product energy level rises
  • C. The peak of the curve is lower
  • D. Both reactant and product energy levels rise
1 mark · standardCommon

A catalyst provides an alternative reaction pathway with a lower activation energy. On a reaction profile, this is shown as a lower peak — the hill is smaller. The energy levels of the reactants and products remain unchanged because the overall energy change (delta H) is not affected by a catalyst.

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24.

A catalyst is added to a reaction. What happens to the overall energy change (delta H)?

  • A. Delta H remains unchanged
  • B. Delta H becomes more negative
  • C. Delta H becomes zero
  • D. Delta H becomes more positive
1 mark · standardCommon

A catalyst only lowers the activation energy by providing an alternative reaction pathway. It does not change the energy of the reactants or the products, so the overall energy change (delta H = energy of products minus energy of reactants) stays exactly the same.

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25.

On a reaction profile diagram, what does the y-axis represent?

  • A. Time taken for the reaction
  • B. Temperature of the reaction mixture
  • C. Concentration of reactants
  • D. Energy stored in the chemicals
1 mark · standardCommon

On a reaction profile, the y-axis represents the energy stored in the chemicals (sometimes called potential energy or enthalpy). The x-axis represents the progress of the reaction (sometimes labelled 'reaction coordinate' or 'extent of reaction').

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26.

A reaction profile shows the reactants at 40 kJ and the peak of the curve at 100 kJ. What is the activation energy?

  • A. 40 kJ
  • B. 100 kJ
  • C. 140 kJ
  • D. 60 kJ
1 mark · standardCommon

Activation energy is the difference between the energy of the reactants and the energy at the peak of the curve. Activation energy = peak energy minus reactant energy = 100 minus 40 = 60 kJ.

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27.

A student draws two reaction profiles for the same reaction: one catalysed, one uncatalysed. Which of the following correctly describes the difference between the two profiles?

  • A. The catalysed profile has a lower peak and lower product energy level
  • B. The catalysed profile has a lower peak but the same reactant and product energy levels
  • C. The catalysed profile has the same peak height but the reactants are at a lower energy level
  • D. The catalysed profile has both a lower peak and a higher reactant energy level
1 mark · standardCommon

A catalyst lowers the activation energy by providing an alternative reaction pathway. On the reaction profile this appears as a lower peak (lower activation energy). However, the reactant and product energy levels are exactly the same in both profiles because the catalyst does not change the overall energy change (delta H) of the reaction.

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28.

What does a catalyst do to the activation energy shown on the reaction profile?

  • A. Increases the activation energy
  • B. Lowers the activation energy
  • C. Removes the activation energy completely
  • D. Has no effect on the activation energy
1 mark · standardCommon

A catalyst provides an alternative reaction pathway with a lower activation energy. This means the peak on the reaction profile is lower when a catalyst is present. The reactant and product energy levels are unchanged, so the overall energy change (delta H) stays the same. A catalyst does NOT remove the activation energy barrier entirely — it just lowers it.

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Matter

12
1.

A substance is heated from below its melting point until it becomes a gas above its boiling point. Sketch and explain the shape of the heating curve you would expect, with reference to particle energy and forces of attraction between particles. [5 marks]

5 marks · challenge

The heating curve has three sloping sections and two flat sections (plateaus). In the first sloping section (solid heating), the temperature rises because the kinetic energy of the particles increases as energy is absorbed. At the first plateau, the substance is melting: energy is absorbed and used entirely to break the forces of attraction between particles in the solid, so kinetic energy and temperature stay constant. In the second sloping section (liquid heating), temperature rises again as kinetic energy increases. At the second plateau, the substance is boiling: again, energy is used to break the remaining forces of attraction between liquid particles, so temperature stays constant. In the third sloping section, the gas particles gain kinetic energy and temperature rises again. The plateaus are longer for substances with stronger forces of attraction between particles, as more energy is needed to break them.

  • Heating curve has three rising sections and two flat plateaus (at melting point and boiling point) (1m)
  • Rising sections: energy absorbed increases kinetic energy of particles, temperature rises (1m)
  • Flat plateau at melting: energy used to break forces of attraction in solid; kinetic energy and temperature stay constant (1m)
  • Flat plateau at boiling: same principle — energy breaks remaining forces of attraction in liquid (1m)
  • Longer plateaus indicate stronger forces of attraction (more energy needed to break them) (1m)

A heating curve summarises all the particle-level changes that occur as a substance absorbs energy. The key principle: temperature is a measure of average kinetic energy. When energy goes into increasing kinetic energy (sloping sections), temperature rises. When energy goes into breaking forces of attraction (plateaus), temperature stays constant. Understanding why the two plateaus occur at the melting point and boiling point, and linking plateau length to force strength, is the grade 8-9 skill tested here.

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2.

A student claims that steam at 100 °C has more energy than boiling water at 100 °C because steam is in a higher state. Evaluate this claim and explain the energy difference between steam and water at 100 °C. [4 marks]

4 marks · higher

The student's reasoning is incorrect. Both steam and boiling water are at 100 °C, which means they have the same temperature and therefore the same average kinetic energy. However, steam does contain more energy than water at the same temperature. This is because steam has absorbed additional energy — called latent heat — to break the forces of attraction between water molecules during the change of state from liquid to gas. This energy is stored as potential energy in the separated particles, not as kinetic energy, which is why the temperature does not differ.

  • Both steam and water are at the same temperature (100 °C) so have the same average kinetic energy (1m)
  • Steam does have more energy than water at 100 °C (student's conclusion is wrong for the wrong reason) (1m)
  • Extra energy in steam is due to energy used to break forces of attraction between molecules during boiling (latent heat) (1m)
  • This extra energy is stored as potential energy (not kinetic energy) so temperature does not rise (1m)

This question targets the common misconception that 'a higher state of matter means more temperature'. Both steam and boiling water are at 100 °C — same temperature means same average kinetic energy. The correct reason steam has more total energy is that energy was absorbed to break the forces of attraction between water molecules (latent heat of vaporisation). This energy is potential energy stored in the separation of particles, which is why temperature stays at 100 °C throughout the boiling process. Being able to distinguish between kinetic energy (temperature) and potential energy (stored in particle separation) is a grade 7-9 skill.

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3.

A heating curve shows a flat section (plateau) when a solid is being heated to become a liquid. Explain why the temperature does not rise during this flat section. [3 marks]

3 marks · standard

During the flat section, the substance is changing state from solid to liquid (melting). Energy is being supplied by heating, but all of the energy absorbed is used to break the forces of attraction between particles, not to increase the kinetic energy of the particles. Because temperature is a measure of the average kinetic energy of the particles, the temperature stays constant until all the solid has melted.

  • The substance is changing state (melting / solid to liquid) (1m)
  • Energy is used to break (overcome) the forces of attraction between particles (1m)
  • The energy does not increase the kinetic energy of particles, so temperature stays constant (1m)

Temperature measures the average kinetic energy of particles. During a change of state, energy is absorbed but it goes entirely into breaking the forces of attraction between particles rather than speeding them up. So kinetic energy — and therefore temperature — stays the same. This is why heating curves have flat plateaus at the melting and boiling points. A common mistake is thinking 'the energy disappears' — it does not: it is stored as potential energy in the now-separated particles.

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4.

Describe the properties of a liquid using the kinetic particle model. Your answer should mention particle arrangement, movement, and shape. [3 marks]

3 marks · standard

In a liquid, particles are close together but not in a regular arrangement. They have enough energy to move around and flow past each other, which is why a liquid has no fixed shape and takes the shape of its container. However, the particles are still touching, so a liquid has a fixed volume and cannot be compressed.

  • Particles are close together but in a random (not regular) arrangement, and can move / flow past each other (1m)
  • Liquid has no fixed shape — takes the shape of its container (1m)
  • Liquid has a fixed volume (cannot be compressed) because particles are touching (1m)

The kinetic particle model explains liquid behaviour through particle spacing and motion. Particles are close together (explaining fixed volume and incompressibility) but not in an ordered lattice (explaining why they can flow). The ability to flow is key — it distinguishes a liquid from a solid. Students often lose marks by describing a liquid as 'in a regular arrangement' (that is a solid) or forgetting to mention fixed volume.

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5.

Give two limitations of the simple particle model used to describe the three states of matter. [3 marks]

3 marks · higher

The simple particle model treats particles as identical hard spheres with no size or internal structure. One limitation is that it does not show the forces of attraction or repulsion between particles. Another limitation is that it treats all particles as the same, when in reality atoms and molecules have different shapes, sizes, and internal structures. A third issue is that it does not account for the fact that particles are mostly empty space.

  • The model does not show forces of attraction (or repulsion) between particles (1m)
  • Particles are shown as identical hard spheres — the model ignores different sizes, shapes or internal structures of real particles (1m)
  • The model does not show that particles are mostly empty space (or does not account for the scale of particles vs space) (1m)

The kinetic particle model is a simplification. It treats particles as identical solid spheres, but real atoms and molecules have internal structures, different sizes and shapes, and interact via forces of attraction and repulsion. The model also cannot show that particles are mostly empty space (the nucleus is very small compared to the atom as a whole). Being aware of these limitations shows scientific thinking at grade 7+.

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6.

Substance A has a melting point of 801 °C. Substance B has a melting point of -39 °C. Use the kinetic particle model to explain why substance A has a much higher melting point than substance B. [3 marks]

3 marks · higher

Substance A has stronger forces of attraction between its particles than substance B. More energy is required to break these stronger forces during melting. Because a higher temperature (more kinetic energy) is needed to overcome the forces of attraction in A, its melting point is much higher than that of B.

  • Substance A has stronger forces of attraction between its particles (1m)
  • More energy is needed to break these forces (than in substance B) (1m)
  • A higher temperature (more kinetic energy) is therefore required to melt A, giving it a higher melting point (1m)

Melting point is determined by the strength of the forces of attraction between particles. Stronger forces require more energy (higher temperature) to break. Temperature reflects average kinetic energy — so more kinetic energy means a higher temperature must be reached before particles can overcome the attraction and move freely. This is a cause-chain question: stronger forces → more energy needed → higher melting point. Avoid saying 'bonds' without clarification — at GCSE the correct phrase is 'forces of attraction between particles'.

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7.

State two differences between the arrangement of particles in a gas compared to a solid. [2 marks]

2 marks · foundation

In a gas, particles are very far apart and move randomly at high speed, filling the container. In a solid, particles are close together in a regular arrangement and can only vibrate about fixed positions.

  • Gas particles are much further apart (less ordered / randomly arranged) (1m)
  • Gas particles move randomly at high speed (solid particles only vibrate / are fixed) (1m)

Gases and solids differ in both particle spacing and particle movement. In a gas, particles are far apart (they fill the available volume) and move randomly and quickly. In a solid, particles are tightly packed in a regular arrangement and can only vibrate — they cannot change places. This difference in particle behaviour explains why gases fill containers and are compressible, while solids hold their shape.

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8.

Which of the following best describes the arrangement of particles in a solid?

  • A. Particles are far apart and move randomly in all directions
  • B. Particles are close together in a regular arrangement and vibrate about fixed positions
  • C. Particles are close together but can flow past each other
  • D. Particles are far apart and move quickly in straight lines
1 mark · foundation

In a solid, particles are held close together in a regular, ordered arrangement by strong forces of attraction. They do not move freely — they vibrate about fixed positions. This is why solids have a definite shape and volume. Option C describes a liquid; options A and D describe a gas.

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9.

What does the state symbol (aq) mean when it appears after a substance in a chemical equation?

  • A. The substance is a gas
  • B. The substance is dissolved in water
  • C. The substance is a solid
  • D. The substance is a liquid
1 mark · foundation

(aq) stands for aqueous, which means the substance is dissolved in water (an aqueous solution). The four state symbols are: (s) solid, (l) liquid, (g) gas, and (aq) aqueous solution. Knowing these lets you read the physical state of every reactant and product directly from the equation.

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10.

What is the correct name for the change of state from liquid to gas?

  • A. Condensing
  • B. Freezing
  • C. Evaporating (or boiling)
  • D. Subliming
1 mark · standard

When a liquid changes state to a gas, the process is called evaporation (or boiling if it occurs throughout the bulk of the liquid). The reverse — gas to liquid — is condensation. Freezing is liquid to solid, and sublimation is solid directly to gas (skipping the liquid stage). Knowing these terms precisely is essential for equation state symbols.

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11.

Which state of matter can be compressed (squashed into a smaller volume) and why?

  • A. Solid, because its particles are in a fixed arrangement
  • B. Liquid, because its particles can flow past each other
  • C. Gas, because its particles are far apart with lots of empty space between them
  • D. Both solid and liquid, because their particles are close together
1 mark · standard

Gases can be compressed because their particles are far apart with a great deal of empty space between them. Squeezing a gas pushes the particles closer together, reducing the volume. Solids and liquids cannot be significantly compressed because their particles are already very close together — there is little empty space to reduce.

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12.

Iodine crystals can turn directly from a solid into a purple gas when heated, without forming a liquid first. What is this process called?

  • A. Condensing
  • B. Evaporating
  • C. Subliming
  • D. Depositing
1 mark · standard

Sublimation is the change of state directly from solid to gas, bypassing the liquid stage. Iodine is a classic GCSE example. The reverse process — gas directly to solid — is called deposition (or reverse sublimation). Evaporation is liquid to gas, and condensation is gas to liquid.

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Simple Molecules

20
1.

A student investigates three substances: hydrogen chloride (HCl, Mr = 36.5), bromine (Br2, Mr = 160), and iodine (I2, Mr = 254). All three are simple molecular substances. Using your knowledge of simple molecular structures, evaluate how well the properties of these three substances match what is predicted for simple molecular substances. Include reference to melting points, boiling points, electrical conductivity, and the effect of molecular size on properties.

6 marks · higher

All three substances are simple molecular substances, so they are all expected to have low melting and boiling points and not conduct electricity in any state. They all have weak intermolecular forces between molecules and strong covalent bonds within each molecule. The covalent bonds within the molecules are not broken during melting or boiling; only the weak intermolecular forces between molecules are overcome. None of the three substances conduct electricity because none have free electrons or ions in any state. The differences in their melting and boiling points are also explained by the simple molecular model. As the size of the molecules increases (from HCl to Br2 to I2), the relative molecular mass increases. Larger molecules have more electrons and larger electron clouds, which leads to stronger intermolecular forces between the molecules. Therefore, more energy is required to overcome these intermolecular forces. This explains why HCl is a gas at room temperature, bromine is a liquid, and iodine is a solid. The trend in melting and boiling points (HCl lowest, I2 highest) matches perfectly with predictions from the simple molecular model: larger molecules have stronger intermolecular forces and therefore higher melting and boiling points.

  • All three are simple molecular substances with weak intermolecular forces between molecules and strong covalent bonds within molecules (1m)
  • None of them conduct electricity because they have no free electrons or ions (1m)
  • Melting and boiling points are low because weak intermolecular forces are overcome (not covalent bonds) (1m)
  • As molecular size increases (HCl < Br2 < I2), relative molecular mass increases (1m)
  • Larger molecules have stronger intermolecular forces because they have more electrons (1m)
  • This explains the trend: HCl is a gas, Br2 a liquid, I2 a solid at room temperature — consistent with predictions from simple molecular model (1m)

A substance can be identified as a simple molecular compound if it has: a low melting and boiling point (weak intermolecular forces), does not conduct electricity in any state (no free ions or electrons), and may form small discrete molecules. Examples include water (H2O), carbon dioxide (CO2), methane (CH4), chlorine (Cl2), and ammonia (NH3).

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2.

Describe and explain the physical properties (melting point, boiling point, and electrical conductivity) of simple molecular substances in terms of their bonding and structure.

4 marks · higher

Simple molecular substances have low melting and boiling points because they have weak intermolecular forces between the molecules. When they melt or boil, it is these weak intermolecular forces that are overcome, not the strong covalent bonds within the molecules. Only a small amount of energy is needed to overcome these weak forces, which is why melting and boiling points are low. Simple molecular substances do not conduct electricity in any state because they have no free electrons and no ions. Without charge carriers, electrical charge cannot flow through them.

  • Low melting/boiling points because weak intermolecular forces between molecules (1m)
  • Intermolecular forces (not covalent bonds within molecules) are overcome during melting/boiling (1m)
  • Do not conduct electricity in any state (1m)
  • No free electrons and no ions to act as charge carriers (1m)

Simple covalent substances have low melting points (weak intermolecular forces between molecules), are poor conductors of electricity (no free ions or electrons), and may be insoluble in water but soluble in organic solvents. These properties allow them to be distinguished from ionic compounds (high melting points, conduct when molten) and giant covalent substances (very high melting points, do not conduct).

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3.

Explain why water (H2O) has a relatively low boiling point compared to many other substances, yet the O-H bonds within the molecule are strong.

3 marks · standard

Water is a simple molecular substance. There are strong covalent bonds within each water molecule holding the oxygen and hydrogen atoms together. However, between separate water molecules there are only weak intermolecular forces. When water boils, it is these weak intermolecular forces between molecules that are overcome, not the strong covalent bonds within the molecules. Because the intermolecular forces are weak, only a small amount of energy is needed to separate the molecules, which is why the boiling point is relatively low.

  • Weak intermolecular forces act between water molecules (1m)
  • These intermolecular forces (not the covalent bonds) are overcome during boiling (1m)
  • Little energy is needed to overcome the weak intermolecular forces (1m)

Iodine is a simple molecular substance consisting of I2 molecules. It has a low melting point because only weak intermolecular forces between I2 molecules need to be overcome. The strong I-I covalent bond within each molecule is NOT broken when iodine melts. This is why the melting point is much lower than expected if all bonds were broken.

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4.

A student notices that iodine (I2) is a solid at room temperature whilst chlorine (Cl2) is a gas. Both are simple molecular substances. Explain this difference in terms of intermolecular forces.

3 marks · standard

Both iodine and chlorine are simple molecular substances held together by weak intermolecular forces. Iodine molecules are larger and have more electrons than chlorine molecules. Larger molecules with more electrons have stronger intermolecular forces between them. These stronger intermolecular forces in iodine require more energy to overcome, so iodine has a higher melting and boiling point. This means iodine is solid at room temperature while chlorine, with weaker intermolecular forces, is a gas.

  • Iodine molecules are larger / have more electrons than chlorine (1m)
  • Iodine has stronger intermolecular forces between the molecules (1m)
  • More energy needed to overcome these forces in iodine, so higher melting/boiling point (1m)

Hydrogen chloride (HCl) is a polar covalent molecule because chlorine is more electronegative than hydrogen, creating a permanent dipole. Despite being a simple molecular substance, its stronger intermolecular forces (permanent dipole-dipole interactions in addition to London forces) make it more soluble in water than non-polar molecules of similar size.

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5.

Explain what happens to the intermolecular forces in a simple molecular substance as it changes from solid to liquid to gas.

3 marks · standard

In a solid simple molecular substance, the intermolecular forces between molecules hold the molecules in fixed positions. As the substance is heated and melts, some energy is used to overcome the intermolecular forces, allowing molecules to move. In the liquid state, the intermolecular forces are still present but weaker in effect, allowing molecules to flow. When the substance boils and becomes a gas, the intermolecular forces are fully overcome and molecules move independently. The covalent bonds within the molecules are not broken at any stage.

  • Intermolecular forces hold molecules in fixed positions in the solid (1m)
  • Intermolecular forces are (partially) overcome during melting, allowing molecules to move/flow (1m)
  • Intermolecular forces are fully overcome during boiling, molecules move independently / covalent bonds within molecules are not broken (1m)

Simple molecular substances exist as discrete molecules (e.g. H2O, CO2, CH4). The atoms within each molecule are held together by strong covalent bonds. Between molecules, only weak intermolecular forces (van der Waals forces, and in polar molecules, permanent dipole-dipole forces or hydrogen bonds) exist. It is these weak intermolecular forces that give simple molecular substances their characteristic low melting and boiling points.

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6.

Poly(ethene) is a polymer with a very high relative molecular mass. Explain why poly(ethene) has a much higher melting point than ethene (C2H4), even though both are molecular substances.

3 marks · higher

Both poly(ethene) and ethene are molecular substances held together by intermolecular forces. Poly(ethene) consists of very large molecules with a much greater relative molecular mass than ethene. Larger molecules have stronger intermolecular forces between them because there are more points of contact and more electrons. These stronger intermolecular forces in poly(ethene) require much more energy to overcome, which is why poly(ethene) has a much higher melting point than ethene.

  • Poly(ethene) has larger molecules / much higher relative molecular mass than ethene (1m)
  • Larger molecules have stronger intermolecular forces between them (1m)
  • More energy needed to overcome the stronger intermolecular forces in poly(ethene) (1m)

The strength of van der Waals (London dispersion) forces between simple molecules depends on the number of electrons in the molecule and its surface area. More electrons create larger temporary dipoles and stronger induced dipole interactions. This is why boiling points increase as molecules get larger: Cl2 (-34 degrees C) < Br2 (+59 degrees C) < I2 (+184 degrees C).

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7.

A student claims that methane (CH4) can conduct electricity when melted. Evaluate whether this claim is correct.

3 marks · higher

The student's claim is incorrect. Methane is a simple molecular substance. It has no free electrons and no ions in any state — solid, liquid or gas. Because there are no charge carriers present, methane cannot conduct electricity even when it is a liquid. Conductivity in a substance requires either free (delocalised) electrons or mobile ions.

  • Claim is incorrect (1m)
  • Methane has no free electrons (and no ions) in any state (1m)
  • No charge carriers means no electrical conduction is possible (1m)

Chlorine is a simple molecular substance (Cl2 molecules) with weak intermolecular forces. It is a gas at room temperature (-34 degrees C boiling point). Iodine (I2) is also a simple molecular substance but has a higher boiling point (184 degrees C) because larger I2 molecules have more electrons and stronger van der Waals forces. Both are poor conductors of electricity.

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8.

State two features of the structure of a simple molecular substance.

2 marks · foundation

Simple molecular substances consist of small molecules formed by covalent bonds between non-metal atoms. The molecules are held together by weak intermolecular forces.

  • Small molecules / molecules held together by covalent bonds (within the molecules) (1m)
  • Weak intermolecular forces between the molecules (1m)

As the size of simple molecules increases (larger molecules, more electrons), the strength of instantaneous dipole-induced dipole (London/van der Waals) forces between molecules increases. Larger molecules with more electrons can create bigger temporary dipoles, giving stronger attractive forces. More energy is therefore needed to separate the molecules, so melting and boiling points increase with molecular size.

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9.

Define covalent bonding.

2 marks · foundation

Covalent bonding is the sharing of a pair of electrons between two non-metal atoms. Each shared pair forms one covalent bond.

  • Sharing of (a pair of) electrons (1m)
  • Between two non-metal atoms (or within a molecule) (1m)

Water's anomalously high boiling point for its small molecular mass is due to hydrogen bonding between molecules. Each water molecule can form up to 4 hydrogen bonds with neighbouring water molecules. These are stronger than the van der Waals forces in comparable molecules like H2S, so much more energy is needed to separate the molecules and boil the liquid.

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10.

Explain why chlorine (Cl2) has a low boiling point.

2 marks · standard

Chlorine consists of simple molecules with weak intermolecular forces between the molecules. Only a small amount of energy is needed to overcome these weak intermolecular forces when the substance boils. The covalent bonds within the Cl2 molecules are strong but are NOT broken during boiling.

  • Chlorine has weak intermolecular forces between molecules (1m)
  • Little energy is needed to overcome these forces (during boiling) (1m)

Simple molecular substances have low melting and boiling points because the intermolecular forces between molecules are weak (van der Waals/London dispersion forces). Only these weak forces between molecules need to be overcome to melt or boil the substance — the strong covalent bonds within each molecule remain intact. This is a common misconception: students often think breaking covalent bonds causes melting, but it is the intermolecular forces that are broken.

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11.

Explain why carbon dioxide (CO2) does not conduct electricity in any state.

2 marks · standard

Carbon dioxide is a simple molecular substance. It has no free electrons and no ions. Without charge carriers, electrical charge cannot flow through the substance, so it does not conduct electricity in any state.

  • No free electrons (or delocalised electrons) (1m)
  • No ions present / no charge carriers to carry current (1m)

Simple covalent molecules do not conduct electricity in any state. They have no free electrons (all electrons are in shared or lone pairs, all localised) and no ions. Without charged particles free to move, no electrical current can flow. This contrasts with ionic compounds (conduct when molten) and metals (always conduct).

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12.

Give two examples of simple molecular substances and state the type of bonding within each molecule.

2 marks · higher

Water (H2O) and carbon dioxide (CO2) are both simple molecular substances. Within each molecule, the atoms are joined by covalent bonds formed by sharing pairs of electrons.

  • Any two correct examples of simple molecular substances e.g. H2O, CO2, O2, Cl2, CH4, HCl, N2, NH3 (1m)
  • Covalent bonds (within the molecules) formed by sharing electrons (1m)

Simple molecular substances are often gases or low-boiling liquids at room temperature due to weak intermolecular forces. They do not conduct electricity. They are often soluble in organic solvents. Most do not dissolve readily in water unless they can form hydrogen bonds or react with water. These properties differ fundamentally from ionic and giant covalent substances.

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13.

Which type of force holds simple molecules together as a substance?

  • A. Weak intermolecular forces between molecules
  • B. Strong ionic bonds between oppositely charged ions
  • C. Metallic bonds from a sea of delocalised electrons
  • D. Covalent bonds between separate molecules
1 mark · foundation

Simple molecular substances are held together as a bulk substance by weak intermolecular forces between the molecules. The covalent bonds exist within each molecule, not between molecules.

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14.

Why do simple molecular substances have low melting and boiling points?

  • A. Because the covalent bonds within molecules break easily
  • B. Because they contain metal atoms with weak metallic bonds
  • C. Because only a small amount of energy is needed to overcome weak intermolecular forces
  • D. Because their molecules contain only hydrogen atoms
1 mark · foundation

Simple molecular substances have low melting and boiling points because the intermolecular forces between molecules are weak. Only a small amount of energy is needed to overcome these forces. The covalent bonds within the molecules are NOT broken during melting or boiling.

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15.

Why do simple molecular substances not conduct electricity?

  • A. Their molecules are too small to carry charge
  • B. They have no free electrons or ions to carry charge
  • C. Their intermolecular forces prevent electron flow
  • D. They dissolve in water and lose their charge
1 mark · foundation

Electrical conductivity requires charge carriers - either free (delocalised) electrons or mobile ions. Simple molecular substances have neither: electrons are held within covalent bonds between specific atoms, and there are no ions present.

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16.

In a water molecule (H2O), which type of bond exists between the oxygen and hydrogen atoms?

  • A. Covalent bonds formed by sharing pairs of electrons
  • B. Ionic bonds formed by transfer of electrons from O to H
  • C. Metallic bonds formed by delocalised electrons
  • D. Intermolecular forces between the oxygen and hydrogen atoms
1 mark · foundation

In a water molecule, the oxygen and hydrogen atoms are bonded together by covalent bonds. Each O-H bond consists of a shared pair of electrons. This is the bond within the molecule (intramolecular), not to be confused with the weak intermolecular forces between separate water molecules.

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17.

What name is given to the forces that act between simple molecules (not the bonds within the molecules)?

1 mark · foundation
  • Intermolecular forces (accept: van der Waals forces, weak intermolecular forces) (1m)

The forces between separate molecules are called intermolecular forces (sometimes called van der Waals forces). These are weak compared to the covalent bonds within the molecules and are the forces that are overcome when a simple molecular substance melts or boils.

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18.

Bromine (Br2) has a higher boiling point than chlorine (Cl2). What best explains this difference?

  • A. Bromine has stronger covalent bonds within the Br2 molecule
  • B. Chlorine has more electrons than bromine
  • C. Bromine has a smaller relative molecular mass than chlorine
  • D. Bromine molecules have stronger intermolecular forces because they have more electrons
1 mark · standard

Br2 has a larger molecule with more electrons than Cl2. More electrons means greater temporary dipoles can form, leading to stronger intermolecular forces. More energy is needed to overcome these forces, so Br2 has a higher boiling point.

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19.

A student compares two substances. Substance X is a simple molecule with Mr = 44. Substance Y is a polymer with Mr = 120,000. Which statement about their physical properties is most likely correct?

  • A. Substance X will have a higher boiling point because it is denser
  • B. Both substances will have the same boiling point because they are both molecular
  • C. Substance Y will have a higher melting point because its larger molecules have stronger intermolecular forces
  • D. Substance X will not conduct electricity but Substance Y will
1 mark · standard

Polymers are large molecules with much higher relative molecular masses than simple molecules. Larger molecules have stronger intermolecular forces, requiring more energy to overcome. Therefore, polymers have much higher melting points than simple molecules. Neither conducts electricity as both lack free ions and electrons.

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20.

Calculate the relative molecular mass (Mr) of oxygen gas (O2). (Relative atomic mass of O = 16)

1 mark · standard
  • Mr(O2) = 2 x 16 = 32 (1m)

An oxygen molecule contains 2 oxygen atoms. Mr(O2) = 2 x 16 = 32. Oxygen gas at room temperature exists as diatomic molecules O2.

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Polymers

22
1.

Polymers are used in a wide range of applications in everyday life. Different polymers have very different properties depending on how they are made and how their chains are arranged. Using your knowledge of polymers, write a detailed account that covers: (a) The difference between addition and condensation polymerisation (b) How the structure of thermosoftening and thermosetting polymers explains their properties (c) One natural polymer and how it is formed

6 marks · higher

(a) In addition polymerisation, monomers containing a C=C double bond join together. The double bond opens and monomers bond to form a long polymer chain. No other products are formed. An example is ethene forming poly(ethene). In condensation polymerisation, monomers react at functional groups and a small molecule, usually water, is released with each new bond formed. An example is amino acids forming proteins. (b) Thermosoftening polymers have long chains held together by weak intermolecular forces. When heated, these forces are overcome and the chains slide past each other, allowing the polymer to melt and be remoulded. On cooling, the forces reform. Thermosetting polymers have strong covalent cross-links between chains, forming a rigid three-dimensional network. These cross-links do not break when heated, so thermosetting polymers are rigid and cannot be melted. (c) Proteins are a natural polymer formed by condensation polymerisation of amino acid monomers. A peptide bond forms between each pair of amino acids and a water molecule is released each time. The sequence of amino acids determines the specific protein structure.

  • (a) Addition: C=C double bond in monomers opens; monomers join to form polymer chain with no by-products (1m)
  • (a) Condensation: small molecule (water) released with each bond; correct example given (proteins/DNA/starch) (1m)
  • (b) Thermosoftening: weak intermolecular forces between chains; overcome on heating so polymer melts and can be remoulded (1m)
  • (b) Thermosetting: covalent cross-links between chains form rigid 3D network; cross-links not broken by heating so cannot melt (1m)
  • (c) Named natural polymer (e.g. proteins, DNA, starch) formed by condensation polymerisation (1m)
  • (c) Correct structural detail: e.g. peptide bond formed between amino acids with water released / nucleotides forming DNA by condensation (1m)

A high-mark extended answer should cover all three parts. (a) Addition polymerisation: monomers must have a C=C double bond which opens during polymerisation; monomers join to form a long chain polymer with no by-products. Condensation polymerisation: monomers react at functional groups; a small molecule (usually water) is released each time a new bond forms. (b) Thermosoftening polymers have weak intermolecular forces between chains that are overcome on heating, allowing the polymer to melt and be remoulded. Thermosetting polymers have covalent cross-links between chains forming a rigid 3D network that cannot be broken by heating, so the polymer does not melt. (c) Proteins are a natural polymer formed by condensation polymerisation of amino acid monomers; a peptide bond forms between each pair of amino acids and water is released. DNA (formed from nucleotides) or starch (formed from glucose) are also acceptable.

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2.

Compare thermosoftening and thermosetting polymers in terms of their structure, bonding, and properties. Include specific named examples of each type and evaluate which type would be more appropriate for making a heat-resistant kitchen utensil.

5 marks · challenge

Thermosoftening polymers consist of long polymer chains held together by weak intermolecular forces between chains. When heated, these intermolecular forces are overcome and the chains can slide past each other, so the polymer melts and can be reshaped or remoulded. On cooling, the forces reform and the polymer hardens. Examples include poly(ethene), poly(propene), and PET. Because they can be remoulded, thermosoftening polymers can be recycled. Thermosetting polymers have a different structure: the polymer chains are joined by strong covalent cross-links forming a rigid three-dimensional network throughout the material. These cross-links do not break on heating, so thermosetting polymers cannot melt and become rigid, hard materials. Examples include bakelite and melamine. Thermosetting polymers cannot be recycled by melting. For a heat-resistant kitchen utensil (such as a saucepan handle), a thermosetting polymer would be more appropriate. A thermosetting polymer will not soften, deform, or melt when exposed to heat from the cooker because its covalent cross-links hold the structure rigid even at elevated temperatures. A thermosoftening polymer would soften and lose its shape when heated, making it unsafe for use near a cooker.

  • Thermosoftening: weak intermolecular forces between chains — overcome on heating — can melt and be remoulded; named example (poly(ethene)/poly(propene)/PET/nylon) (1m)
  • Thermosetting: strong covalent cross-links between chains — form rigid 3D network — cannot melt when heated; named example (bakelite/melamine/epoxy resin) (1m)
  • Thermosoftening can be recycled (melted and remoulded); thermosetting cannot be recycled by melting (cross-links permanent) (1m)
  • Thermosetting is more appropriate for heat-resistant utensil because cross-links hold structure rigid at high temperatures (1m)
  • Thermosoftening would be unsuitable because intermolecular forces overcome by heat — polymer softens, deforms, or melts near a cooker (safety concern) (1m)

This 5-mark compare and evaluate question requires: (1) accurate description of thermosoftening structure and properties; (2) accurate description of thermosetting structure and properties; (3) comparison of recyclability; (4) and (5) a justified evaluation of which is better for a heat-resistant application. The evaluation is a two-part mark — thermosetting is better AND thermosoftening would be unsuitable with a reason. Students who simply state 'thermosetting is better' without explaining why (cross-links remain intact at high temperature) or why thermosoftening fails (weak forces overcome by heat, polymer melts) will lose marks.

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3.

Compare addition and condensation polymerisation. In your answer, include: the type of monomers required for each, whether any by-product is formed, and one example of each type.

4 marks · higher

In addition polymerisation, monomers must contain a carbon-carbon double bond. The double bond opens and monomers join to form a long polymer chain. No by-product is produced. An example is ethene forming poly(ethene). In condensation polymerisation, monomers react at functional groups such as amine and carboxyl groups. A small molecule, usually water, is released each time a new bond forms. An example is amino acids forming proteins, where peptide bonds form with water released.

  • Addition: monomers have C=C double bond that opens; no by-product formed (1m)
  • Addition example: ethene forming poly(ethene) (or propene forming poly(propene)) (1m)
  • Condensation: water (or small molecule) released as by-product when monomers join (1m)
  • Condensation example: amino acids forming proteins / peptide bonds formed (or nucleotides forming DNA, or glucose forming starch) (1m)

Addition and condensation polymerisation produce polymers by different mechanisms. Addition polymerisation requires monomers with a C=C double bond — the double bond opens and the monomers join in a chain. Crucially, only the polymer is produced and no by-product is formed. Example: ethene monomers form poly(ethene). Condensation polymerisation uses monomers with functional groups (such as amine and carboxyl groups). Each time two monomers join, a small molecule — almost always water — is released as a by-product. Example: amino acid monomers join through peptide bonds, releasing water, to form protein polymers. A key exam error is stating that water is released in addition polymerisation.

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4.

Most synthetic polymers are made from crude oil. Evaluate the advantages and disadvantages of using polymers from crude oil, compared to using natural alternatives such as plant-based or biodegradable polymers.

4 marks · challenge

Polymers derived from crude oil (such as poly(ethene), PVC, and polystyrene) have several advantages: they are cheap to produce because crude oil feedstocks are relatively inexpensive; they are durable, strong, and resistant to water and chemicals; they can be designed to have a wide range of specific properties for different applications; and they are lightweight. However, there are significant disadvantages: crude oil is a non-renewable resource that will eventually run out; the extraction and processing of crude oil releases greenhouse gases, contributing to climate change; most crude-oil polymers are not biodegradable and persist in the environment for hundreds of years, causing problems such as plastic pollution in oceans; and incineration of these polymers can release toxic gases. Natural alternatives such as plant-based bioplastics (made from starch or cellulose) or naturally biodegradable polymers (like polylactic acid, PLA, from fermented plant sugars) have advantages: they are made from renewable resources; they may be biodegradable and break down faster in the environment; and they reduce dependence on finite fossil fuels. However, natural polymers are generally more expensive to produce, may be less durable than synthetic alternatives, and growing crops for bioplastics requires land and water, potentially competing with food production.

  • Advantage of crude oil polymers: cheap to produce / durable / strong / versatile / resistant to water (any one with justification) (1m)
  • Disadvantage of crude oil polymers: non-renewable resource will run out / not biodegradable — environmental pollution / greenhouse gas emissions (1m)
  • Advantage of natural/plant-based polymers: renewable resource / biodegradable / reduces fossil fuel dependence (any one with justification) (1m)
  • Disadvantage of natural polymers: more expensive / less durable / land use competes with food / not always fully biodegradable in all conditions — AND a balanced conclusion or judgement (1m)

This evaluate question requires balanced assessment of both crude oil and natural polymer options. A good answer presents at least one advantage and one disadvantage of each, then makes a reasoned judgement. Common weaknesses: (1) only discussing one type of polymer; (2) listing environmental disadvantages of crude oil without mentioning economic or durability advantages; (3) claiming natural polymers are 'better' without acknowledging their limitations. The final mark requires a qualifying judgement — the best answer explains that the choice depends on the application, cost constraints, and environmental priorities.

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5.

Explain the process of addition polymerisation, using poly(ethene) as an example.

3 marks · standard

Addition polymerisation uses monomers that contain a carbon-carbon double bond. In poly(ethene), the monomer is ethene (CH₂=CH₂). The double bond opens and each carbon atom forms a new single bond with the adjacent monomer. Many thousands of ethene monomers join in this way to form the long polymer chain poly(ethene). No small molecules are produced — the only product is the polymer.

  • Monomers (ethene) have a C=C double bond that opens during polymerisation (1m)
  • Monomers join together to form a long polymer chain (poly(ethene)) (1m)
  • Only product is the polymer — no small molecules / no by-products released (1m)

Addition polymerisation converts small monomers into a large polymer chain. Ethene (CH₂=CH₂) has a carbon-carbon double bond. During polymerisation, this double bond opens and each carbon atom forms a new single bond with the carbon of an adjacent monomer. Thousands of ethene monomers link together in this way to form the long-chain polymer poly(ethene). The reaction produces only one product — the polymer. No water, CO₂ or other small molecule is released, which is the defining characteristic of addition polymerisation. Confusing this with condensation polymerisation (which does release water) is a common exam mistake.

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6.

Compare the structures of thermosoftening and thermosetting polymers and explain how their structures determine their properties.

3 marks · standard

Thermosoftening polymers have long polymer chains held together by weak intermolecular forces. These forces can be overcome by heating, allowing the chains to slide past each other so the polymer melts and can be remoulded. Thermosetting polymers have covalent cross-links between their polymer chains. These cross-links form a rigid three-dimensional network that cannot be broken by heating, so thermosetting polymers do not melt.

  • Thermosoftening: weak intermolecular forces between chains; these are overcome by heat so the polymer melts (1m)
  • Thermosetting: covalent cross-links between chains (1m)
  • Cross-links are strong bonds not broken by heating, so thermosetting polymers are rigid and do not melt (1m)

The key structural difference is in what holds the polymer chains together. Thermosoftening polymers have separate chains connected only by weak intermolecular forces — these are overcome when the polymer is heated, allowing the chains to slide and the polymer to melt. Thermosetting polymers have covalent cross-links between chains, forming a permanent 3D network. These covalent bonds are much stronger than intermolecular forces and are not broken by ordinary heating, so thermosetting polymers remain rigid. A common misconception is that both types can be melted — only thermosoftening can be melted and remoulded.

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7.

Explain how proteins are formed by condensation polymerisation of amino acid monomers.

3 marks · standard

Proteins are formed when amino acid monomers join together by condensation polymerisation. When two amino acids react, a peptide bond forms between them and a water molecule is released. Many amino acids join in this way to form a long protein polymer chain. The sequence of amino acids determines the specific protein formed.

  • Amino acid monomers join by condensation polymerisation (1m)
  • A peptide bond forms between amino acid monomers (1m)
  • A water molecule is released each time a new peptide bond forms (1m)

Proteins are natural polymers formed by condensation polymerisation of amino acid monomers. Each amino acid has an amine group (–NH₂) and a carboxyl group (–COOH). When two amino acids react, a peptide bond forms between them and a water molecule is released — this is the condensation step. Many hundreds or thousands of amino acids join in this way to form the long protein polymer chain. The type of protein formed depends on which amino acids are present and in what order. Students sometimes confuse this with addition polymerisation — the key difference is that water is released in condensation but not in addition polymerisation.

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8.

High density poly(ethene) (HDPE) has a higher melting point and greater strength than low density poly(ethene) (LDPE). Explain this difference in terms of polymer structure.

3 marks · higher

HDPE has unbranched polymer chains that can pack closely together. This means the intermolecular forces between adjacent chains are stronger, requiring more energy to overcome. LDPE has branched polymer chains that cannot pack as closely together, so the intermolecular forces between chains are weaker. Because HDPE has stronger intermolecular forces, it has a higher melting point and greater strength than LDPE.

  • HDPE has unbranched (linear/straight) chains; LDPE has branched chains (1m)
  • Unbranched HDPE chains can pack more closely together than branched LDPE chains (1m)
  • Closer packing gives stronger intermolecular forces in HDPE, requiring more energy to overcome — higher melting point and greater strength (1m)

Both HDPE and LDPE are made from ethene monomers by addition polymerisation, but they differ in chain shape. HDPE has straight, unbranched chains. These can lie alongside each other and pack closely together, which increases the contact area between chains and therefore increases the strength of intermolecular forces. LDPE has branched chains that prevent close packing, so its intermolecular forces are weaker. Because HDPE's intermolecular forces are stronger, more energy is required to overcome them, giving HDPE a higher melting point and greater mechanical strength than LDPE. A common error is suggesting HDPE has cross-links — it does not; it is still a thermosoftening polymer.

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9.

Bakelite is a thermosetting polymer used in electrical fittings and saucepan handles. Explain, using structural ideas, why bakelite is suitable for these uses.

3 marks · higher

Bakelite is a thermosetting polymer with strong covalent cross-links between its polymer chains. These cross-links form a rigid three-dimensional network. The rigid structure means bakelite does not melt or deform under high temperatures, making it suitable for saucepan handles which are exposed to heat. The covalent structure also makes bakelite a good electrical insulator because there are no free electrons or ions to carry charge, making it suitable for electrical fittings.

  • Bakelite has covalent cross-links between chains, creating a rigid 3D network (1m)
  • The rigid structure / cross-links not broken by heat: bakelite is heat-resistant / does not melt (suitable for saucepan handles) (1m)
  • Bakelite is an electrical insulator: no free electrons or ions to carry charge (suitable for electrical fittings) (1m)

Bakelite is a thermosetting polymer with strong covalent cross-links between adjacent polymer chains, forming a rigid three-dimensional network structure. These covalent cross-links cannot be broken by heating, so bakelite does not soften or melt — this makes it suitable for saucepan handles, which are exposed to high temperatures during cooking. Bakelite is also an electrical insulator because all electrons in its covalent structure are involved in bonding; there are no free electrons or ions that could carry electrical charge. This makes it safe for use in electrical fittings. A common error is thinking bakelite conducts electricity — it does not.

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10.

Describe how addition polymerisation works to form poly(propene) from propene monomers.

2 marks · foundation

Propene monomers contain a carbon-carbon double bond. During addition polymerisation, the double bond opens and each carbon forms a new single bond with the adjacent monomer. Many monomers join together to form a long polymer chain. No other product is formed.

  • The C=C double bond in propene monomers opens during polymerisation (1m)
  • Monomers join to form a long polymer chain (no other product is formed) (1m)

In addition polymerisation, the carbon-carbon double bond (C=C) in each propene monomer opens up. Each carbon atom then forms a new single bond with the carbon of the next monomer. Thousands of propene monomers link together in this way to form the long polymer chain poly(propene). A key feature of addition polymerisation is that only one product is made — the polymer itself. No water or other small molecules are released, which distinguishes it from condensation polymerisation.

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11.

Describe the main difference between addition polymerisation and condensation polymerisation.

2 marks · foundation

In addition polymerisation, monomers with a C=C double bond join together to form a polymer and no other product is formed. In condensation polymerisation, monomers join together but a small molecule, usually water, is released each time a new bond forms.

  • Addition polymerisation: only polymer is formed (no other product / no small molecule released) (1m)
  • Condensation polymerisation: a small molecule (water) is released when monomers join (1m)

The key difference between the two types of polymerisation is what else is produced. In addition polymerisation, monomers with a C=C double bond join together and the only product is the polymer — nothing else is released. In condensation polymerisation, monomers react at their functional groups and a small molecule (usually water) is released every time a new bond forms. A common mistake is saying water is released in addition polymerisation — it is not.

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12.

Explain why thermosoftening polymers can be melted and reshaped.

2 marks · foundation

Thermosoftening polymers have only weak intermolecular forces between their polymer chains. When heated, these weak forces are overcome and the chains can slide past each other, allowing the polymer to melt and flow. When cooled, the intermolecular forces reform and the polymer sets in its new shape.

  • Thermosoftening polymers have weak intermolecular forces between chains (1m)
  • Heating overcomes these forces, allowing chains to slide and the polymer to melt/flow; forces reform on cooling (1m)

Thermosoftening polymers have long, separate polymer chains held together only by weak intermolecular forces. When the polymer is heated, the energy supplied is enough to overcome these weak forces. Once the forces are overcome, the chains can slide past each other and the polymer melts into a flowing liquid. When it is cooled, the intermolecular forces reform between the chains and the polymer solidifies in its new shape. This is why thermosoftening polymers can be melted, remoulded, and recycled.

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13.

Explain why thermosetting polymers are rigid and do not melt when heated.

2 marks · standard

Thermosetting polymers have strong covalent cross-links between adjacent polymer chains. These cross-links form a rigid three-dimensional network structure. When heated, these covalent bonds do not break, so the polymer cannot melt or flow.

  • Thermosetting polymers have covalent cross-links between polymer chains (1m)
  • These cross-links are strong covalent bonds that do not break on heating, so the polymer cannot melt (1m)

Thermosetting polymers are permanently rigid because they have covalent cross-links connecting adjacent polymer chains. These cross-links are strong covalent bonds that form during the polymerisation process, creating a giant three-dimensional network. Unlike the weak intermolecular forces in thermosoftening polymers, covalent bonds require far more energy to break and are not overcome at normal heating temperatures. This means the polymer cannot soften, melt, or flow — it stays rigid. If the temperature becomes too high, the polymer will char and decompose rather than melt.

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14.

Poly(ethene) is used for plastic bags and packaging. Suggest two properties of poly(ethene) that make it suitable for this use, and link each property to the polymer's structure.

2 marks · standard

Poly(ethene) is flexible because the long polymer chains can slide past each other — the intermolecular forces between chains are weak enough to allow movement without breaking. It is also a thermosoftening polymer that can be melted and reformed into different shapes during manufacture.

  • Flexible/soft: weak intermolecular forces between chains allow the chains to slide or move (1m)
  • Thermosoftening / can be melted and remoulded: weak forces overcome on heating, suitable for manufacturing (1m)

Poly(ethene) is a thermosoftening polymer with long chains held together by weak intermolecular forces. These weak forces explain two important properties. First, flexibility: the chains can slide past each other slightly under physical pressure, making poly(ethene) soft and flexible — useful for bags and packaging that must bend without cracking. Second, it can be melted and remoulded: because the intermolecular forces are overcome easily on heating, poly(ethene) can be melted during manufacture and shaped into the required form. Both properties arise directly from the weak intermolecular forces between the chains.

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15.

In addition polymerisation, what feature of monomer molecules allows them to join together?

  • A. A carbon-carbon double bond that opens to form new bonds
  • B. A hydroxyl (-OH) group that reacts with an amine group
  • C. A carboxyl (-COOH) group that loses a water molecule
  • D. A free electron that forms a new covalent bond
1 mark · foundation

In addition polymerisation, monomers must contain a carbon-carbon double bond (C=C). When the double bond opens, the two carbons each form a new single bond with the adjacent monomer, creating a long polymer chain with no other products released.

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16.

What small molecule is released during condensation polymerisation?

  • A. Carbon dioxide (CO₂)
  • B. Hydrogen (H₂)
  • C. Water (H₂O)
  • D. Oxygen (O₂)
1 mark · foundation

In condensation polymerisation, each time two monomer molecules join together, a small molecule — usually water (H₂O) — is eliminated. This is why it is called condensation: a molecule is removed with each bond formed.

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17.

What is the name of the small molecules that join together to form a polymer?

1 mark · foundation
  • monomers (accept: monomer, monomer molecules) (1m)

Monomers are the small, repeating molecules that join together (polymerise) to form the much longer polymer chains. For example, ethene is the monomer and poly(ethene) is the polymer.

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18.

What is the common name for poly(chloroethene)?

1 mark · foundation
  • PVC (accept: polyvinyl chloride) (1m)

Poly(chloroethene) is commonly known as PVC — polyvinyl chloride. It is made by addition polymerisation of chloroethene (CH₂=CHCl) monomers. PVC is used for pipes, window frames, electrical cable insulation, and flooring.

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19.

Which statement correctly explains why thermosetting polymers do not melt when heated?

  • A. They have very weak intermolecular forces that require little energy to overcome
  • B. They have strong covalent cross-links between polymer chains that do not break on heating
  • C. They contain delocalised electrons that stabilise the structure
  • D. Their chains are arranged in a regular lattice so they cannot be separated
1 mark · standard

Thermosetting polymers have permanent covalent cross-links between adjacent polymer chains. These cross-links are strong covalent bonds that do not break when the polymer is heated, so the material cannot flow or melt. The 3D network structure is rigid and permanent.

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20.

Poly(ethene) is made by addition polymerisation of ethene (CH₂=CH₂). What is the repeat unit of poly(ethene)?

  • A. -CH₂-CH₂- with a double bond between the carbons
  • B. CH₂=CH₂ (ethene monomer, unchanged)
  • C. A single carbon atom only
  • D. (-CH₂-CH₂-)n where n is a very large number
1 mark · standard

In addition polymerisation, the C=C double bond in ethene opens. Each carbon forms a new single bond with neighbouring monomer units. The repeat unit is -CH₂-CH₂-, and the polymer is represented as (-CH₂-CH₂-)n, where n is a very large number of repeat units joined in a chain.

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21.

Why can thermosoftening polymers be melted and remoulded multiple times?

  • A. The weak intermolecular forces between chains are easily overcome by heating, allowing chains to move and be remoulded
  • B. The covalent bonds in the polymer backbone break and reform when heated
  • C. The cross-links between chains break permanently when heated
  • D. The polymer chains shrink when heated, making the structure more flexible
1 mark · standard

Thermosoftening polymers have only weak intermolecular forces (van der Waals forces) between their chains. These forces are easily overcome by heating, so the chains can slide past each other, allowing the polymer to melt and flow into a new shape. When cooled, the forces reform and the new shape is retained.

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22.

Which of the following statements about natural polymers is correct?

  • A. Starch is formed by addition polymerisation of glucose monomers
  • B. DNA is formed by addition polymerisation of nucleotide monomers
  • C. Both proteins and DNA are formed by condensation polymerisation, releasing water
  • D. Proteins are formed by addition polymerisation of amino acid monomers
1 mark · standard

Both proteins and DNA are natural polymers formed by condensation polymerisation. Proteins form when amino acids join together, releasing a water molecule with each peptide bond formed. DNA forms when nucleotide monomers join, also releasing water. Starch is also formed by condensation polymerisation of glucose units.

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Titrations (HT)

22
1.

Describe the full procedure for carrying out a titration to find the concentration of an unknown acid using a standard solution of sodium hydroxide.

6 marks · higher

1. Use a pipette to measure exactly 25.0 cm³ of the sodium hydroxide solution and transfer it into a clean conical flask. 2. Add 2-3 drops of a suitable indicator, such as phenolphthalein, to the conical flask. The solution turns pink. 3. Place the conical flask on a white tile to help see the colour change. 4. Rinse the burette with the unknown acid solution, then fill it with the acid using a funnel. Remove the funnel and record the initial burette reading to the nearest 0.05 cm³. 5. Carry out a rough titration by adding the acid from the burette to the conical flask while swirling. Stop when the indicator permanently changes colour (pink to colourless for phenolphthalein). Record the final burette reading and calculate the rough titre. 6. Repeat the titration accurately: add acid quickly until close to the rough titre value, then add dropwise near the endpoint until one drop causes a permanent colour change. 7. Repeat until at least two concordant results are obtained (within 0.10 cm³ of each other). 8. Calculate the mean titre from the concordant results, excluding the rough and any anomalous values. Use this mean titre in the concentration calculation.

  • Use a pipette to measure a fixed volume (e.g. 25.0 cm³) of the alkali into a conical flask (1m)
  • Add a suitable indicator (e.g. phenolphthalein or methyl orange) to the conical flask (1m)
  • Rinse the burette with the acid, fill it, record the initial reading to the nearest 0.05 cm³ (1m)
  • Carry out a rough titration, adding acid from the burette while swirling the flask, and stop at the permanent colour change (1m)
  • Repeat accurately by adding acid quickly at first then dropwise near the endpoint (1m)
  • Repeat until concordant results (within 0.10 cm³) are obtained. Calculate the mean titre from concordant results only (1m)

This is AQA Required Practical 1 for chemistry. The full method tests your understanding of: the equipment used (pipette for accurate fixed volume, burette for variable volume), the role of the indicator, the technique of adding acid dropwise near the endpoint, and the importance of concordant results for reliability. Key details: always rinse the burette with acid first, use a white tile for visibility, remove the funnel before starting, and record all readings to ±0.05 cm³.

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2.

20.0 cm³ of sulfuric acid (H₂SO₄) was neutralised by exactly 25.0 cm³ of 0.200 mol/dm³ sodium hydroxide (NaOH). Calculate the concentration of the sulfuric acid. The equation is: H₂SO₄(aq) + 2NaOH(aq) → Na₂SO₄(aq) + 2H₂O(l)

4 marks · higher

Step 1: Convert volumes. V(NaOH) = 25.0 ÷ 1000 = 0.0250 dm³. V(H₂SO₄) = 20.0 ÷ 1000 = 0.0200 dm³. Step 2: Calculate moles of NaOH. n = c × V = 0.200 × 0.0250 = 0.00500 mol. Step 3: Use mole ratio. H₂SO₄ : NaOH = 1 : 2, so moles of H₂SO₄ = 0.00500 ÷ 2 = 0.00250 mol. Step 4: Calculate concentration. c = n ÷ V = 0.00250 ÷ 0.0200 = 0.125 mol/dm³

  • Calculates moles of NaOH: n = 0.200 × (25.0 ÷ 1000) = 0.00500 mol (1m)
  • Uses 1:2 mole ratio to halve moles: moles H₂SO₄ = 0.00500 ÷ 2 = 0.00250 mol (1m)
  • Converts H₂SO₄ volume to dm³: 20.0 ÷ 1000 = 0.0200 dm³ (1m)
  • Correct final answer: c = 0.00250 ÷ 0.0200 = 0.125 mol/dm³ (accept 0.13) (1m)

This is a non-1:1 titration. The balanced equation shows 1 mole of H₂SO₄ reacts with 2 moles of NaOH. So after finding moles of NaOH, you must divide by 2 to get moles of H₂SO₄ before calculating the concentration. The most common error is forgetting to apply the mole ratio.

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3.

25.0 cm³ of sodium hydroxide (NaOH) solution was titrated with 0.100 mol/dm³ hydrochloric acid (HCl). The mean titre was 22.50 cm³. Calculate the concentration of the NaOH solution. The equation is: NaOH(aq) + HCl(aq) → NaCl(aq) + H₂O(l)

3 marks · higher

Step 1: Convert volumes to dm³. Volume of HCl = 22.50 ÷ 1000 = 0.02250 dm³. Volume of NaOH = 25.0 ÷ 1000 = 0.0250 dm³. Step 2: Calculate moles of HCl. n = c × V = 0.100 × 0.02250 = 0.00225 mol. Step 3: Use the mole ratio. NaOH : HCl = 1 : 1, so moles of NaOH = 0.00225 mol. Step 4: Calculate concentration of NaOH. c = n ÷ V = 0.00225 ÷ 0.0250 = 0.0900 mol/dm³

  • Calculates moles of HCl: n = 0.100 × (22.50 ÷ 1000) = 0.00225 mol (1m)
  • Uses 1:1 mole ratio to state moles of NaOH = 0.00225 mol (1m)
  • Calculates concentration of NaOH: c = 0.00225 ÷ 0.0250 = 0.0900 mol/dm³ (accept 0.09) (1m)

This is a standard 1:1 titration calculation. First find moles of the known solution (HCl) using n = c × V. Then use the balanced equation to find moles of the unknown (NaOH). Finally calculate the concentration using c = n ÷ V. Remember to convert cm³ to dm³ by dividing by 1000.

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4.

Calculate the volume of 0.100 mol/dm³ hydrochloric acid (HCl) needed to neutralise 30.0 cm³ of 0.0800 mol/dm³ sodium hydroxide (NaOH). The equation is: NaOH(aq) + HCl(aq) → NaCl(aq) + H₂O(l). Give your answer in cm³.

3 marks · higher

Step 1: Convert volume of NaOH. V = 30.0 ÷ 1000 = 0.0300 dm³. Step 2: Calculate moles of NaOH. n = c × V = 0.0800 × 0.0300 = 0.00240 mol. Step 3: Mole ratio NaOH : HCl = 1 : 1, so moles HCl = 0.00240 mol. Step 4: Calculate volume. V = n ÷ c = 0.00240 ÷ 0.100 = 0.0240 dm³ = 24.0 cm³

  • Calculates moles of NaOH: n = 0.0800 × 0.0300 = 0.00240 mol (1m)
  • Uses 1:1 ratio so moles HCl = 0.00240 mol, then V = n ÷ c = 0.00240 ÷ 0.100 = 0.0240 dm³ (1m)
  • Converts to cm³: 0.0240 × 1000 = 24.0 cm³ (1m)

To find an unknown volume: (1) calculate moles of the known solution, (2) use the mole ratio to find moles of the unknown, (3) rearrange c = n/V to V = n/c, (4) convert dm³ back to cm³ if needed. The answer is 24.0 cm³.

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5.

Name two indicators used in titrations and state the colour change each shows when acid is added to alkali.

2 marks · foundation

Phenolphthalein changes from pink in alkali to colourless in acid. Methyl orange changes from yellow in alkali to red (or orange) in acid.

  • Phenolphthalein: pink to colourless (accept pink/purple to colourless/clear) (1m)
  • Methyl orange: yellow to orange/red (accept yellow to orange or yellow to red) (1m)

Titrations require indicators with a sharp, clear colour change at the endpoint. The two most commonly used are phenolphthalein and methyl orange. Phenolphthalein is pink in alkaline conditions and turns colourless when the solution becomes acidic (at neutralisation). Methyl orange is yellow in alkaline/neutral conditions and turns red or orange in acid. Both indicators give a clearly visible single colour change rather than a gradual transition, making it easy to identify the endpoint precisely. Litmus and universal indicator are not suitable for titrations because their colour changes are not sharp enough to pinpoint the endpoint accurately.

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6.

A student carries out four titrations with results: 24.50, 23.95, 24.05, 24.00 cm³. Calculate the mean titre, ignoring any anomalous results.

2 marks · standard

The result 24.50 cm³ is anomalous because it is much higher than the other three values. Excluding this: mean = (23.95 + 24.05 + 24.00) ÷ 3 = 72.00 ÷ 3 = 24.00 cm³

  • Identifies 24.50 cm³ as the anomalous result and excludes it from the calculation (1m)
  • Correct mean calculation: (23.95 + 24.05 + 24.00) ÷ 3 = 24.00 cm³ (1m)

The first result (24.50 cm³) is anomalous as it is 0.45 cm³ higher than the next highest value (24.05 cm³). The remaining three concordant results are within 0.10 cm³ of each other. Mean = (23.95 + 24.05 + 24.00) ÷ 3 = 72.00 ÷ 3 = 24.00 cm³.

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7.

Explain why the burette should be rinsed with the acid solution before filling it for a titration.

2 marks · standard

The burette should be rinsed with the acid solution to remove any residual water left inside from washing. If water remained, it would dilute the acid solution and reduce its concentration, making the titre volume inaccurate and giving an unreliable result.

  • Rinsing removes residual water (or any previous solution) from the burette (1m)
  • Water would dilute the acid, changing its concentration / making the results inaccurate (1m)

Before a titration, glassware is washed with distilled water. If the burette is then filled with acid without first rinsing it with acid, small amounts of water remain inside and mix with the acid solution. This dilutes the acid, reducing its concentration below the stated value. Because calculations of the unknown concentration assume the acid has its stated concentration, any dilution causes an error in the final answer. Rinsing with the acid itself removes the water and ensures the concentration inside the burette is exactly as expected. The conical flask does not need rinsing with alkali for the same reason — see the related question.

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8.

How does a student know when to stop adding acid from the burette during a titration?

2 marks · standard

The student knows to stop adding acid when the indicator undergoes a permanent colour change. For example, if using phenolphthalein, the solution changes from pink to colourless. The endpoint is reached when a single drop of acid causes the colour change that does not reverse on swirling.

  • The indicator changes colour (accept specific example such as pink to colourless for phenolphthalein or yellow to orange for methyl orange) (1m)
  • The colour change is permanent / does not reverse on swirling / occurs with a single drop of acid (1m)

The endpoint of a titration is signalled by a permanent colour change of the indicator. Near the endpoint, the student should add acid drop by drop rather than freely running it from the burette. The key sign that the endpoint has been reached is that a single drop of acid causes the indicator to change colour, and after swirling the flask, this colour change does not revert. If the colour disappears on swirling, it means there is still alkali present and acid should continue to be added. Using phenolphthalein: pink (alkali) to colourless (neutral/acidic). Using methyl orange: yellow (alkali) to orange or red (acidic). Stopping too early or too late gives an inaccurate titre.

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9.

Explain why titrations are repeated several times.

2 marks · standard

Titrations are repeated to obtain concordant results, which are titre values within 0.10 cm³ of each other. Concordant results show that the titration has been carried out accurately and allows the calculation of a reliable mean titre. Repeating also helps identify and exclude any anomalous results.

  • To obtain concordant results (values within 0.10 cm³ of each other) / to identify anomalous results (1m)
  • Concordant results allow calculation of a reliable/accurate mean titre (1m)

A single titration could contain errors — for example, the student may have slightly overshot the endpoint or misread the burette. Repeating the titration multiple times reduces the impact of random errors. Two or more results are concordant if they agree within 0.10 cm³. Concordant results give confidence that the titration was performed consistently and accurately. Any results outside this range are considered anomalous and are excluded. The mean titre is then calculated using only the concordant values. This mean is more reliable than any single measurement because random errors average out.

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10.

Explain how to correctly read the volume on a burette.

2 marks · standard

The burette should be read at eye level to avoid parallax error. The reading should be taken from the bottom of the meniscus, which is the curved surface of the liquid. Values should be recorded to the nearest 0.05 cm³.

  • Read at eye level to avoid parallax error (1m)
  • Read from the bottom of the meniscus (the curved liquid surface) (1m)

Burettes are precision instruments graduated to 0.1 cm³ and read to 0.05 cm³. Two technique points are essential for accurate reading. First, eye level: if you look at the burette from above or below, the line of sight crosses the scale at an angle, causing a parallax error — the liquid appears to be at a different level than it actually is. Eyes must be level with the liquid surface. Second, the meniscus: aqueous solutions form a curved surface (concave meniscus). The correct reading is taken from the lowest point (bottom) of this curve. Both errors together can easily introduce a 0.5 cm³ inaccuracy, which is significant in titration calculations.

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11.

Explain why the conical flask does not need to be rinsed with the alkali solution before use, unlike the burette which must be rinsed with the acid.

2 marks · standard

The conical flask is measured using a pipette which delivers a fixed, accurate volume of alkali. Any distilled water left in the flask from rinsing will not change the number of moles of alkali present. The moles of alkali depend only on the volume measured by the pipette, not on what is already in the flask. The extra water only dilutes the solution but does not affect the number of moles reacting.

  • The number of moles of alkali is determined by the pipette volume, which is fixed (1m)
  • Water in the flask dilutes the solution but does not change the moles of alkali, so the result is not affected (1m)

This is a conceptual question about what determines the amount of alkali that reacts. The key is that moles = concentration × volume. A volumetric pipette delivers a very precise, fixed volume of alkali regardless of what is already in the flask. The number of moles of alkali in the flask is therefore already determined before any acid is added. If there is distilled water in the flask, it simply dilutes the alkali, making it less concentrated — but concentration × volume still gives the same moles, because the volume increase is compensated by the lower concentration. The burette, by contrast, is the measuring device for the acid — if the acid is diluted by residual water in the burette, its concentration changes and the titre volume needed to neutralise the fixed moles of alkali would change, introducing an error.

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12.

Explain why a rough (trial) titration is carried out before the accurate titrations.

2 marks · standard

The rough titration gives an approximate volume for the endpoint so the student knows roughly how much acid is needed. In the accurate titrations, the acid can be added quickly until close to the rough titre, then added dropwise near the endpoint to get a more precise result.

  • The rough titration gives an approximate/estimated endpoint volume (1m)
  • This allows the student to add acid quickly at first, then dropwise/slowly near the endpoint in accurate titrations for a more precise result (1m)

The first (rough) titration is run freely — acid is added quickly from the burette without worrying too much about the exact endpoint. Its result is intentionally imprecise and is not used in the final calculation. Its purpose is to identify approximately where the endpoint will be (e.g., around 22 cm³). In subsequent accurate titrations, the student can run acid in rapidly up to about 1-2 cm³ before the rough titre, then switch to adding drops one at a time. This dropwise addition near the endpoint allows the student to stop precisely when a single drop causes the permanent colour change, giving a much more accurate titre reading. The rough titration result is always excluded from the mean calculation.

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13.

What is the purpose of a titration?

  • A. To find the unknown concentration of a solution
  • B. To measure the temperature change of a reaction
  • C. To separate a mixture into its components
  • D. To identify the gas produced in a reaction
1 mark · foundation

A titration is used to find the unknown concentration of a solution by adding a solution of known concentration from a burette until the reaction is just complete. The endpoint is shown by an indicator colour change.

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14.

What is the resolution (smallest measurable increment) of a standard burette used in titrations?

  • A. 0.5 cm³
  • B. 1.0 cm³
  • C. 0.10 cm³
  • D. 0.05 cm³
1 mark · foundation

A standard burette has scale divisions every 0.10 cm³, and readings can be estimated to the nearest 0.05 cm³. This gives a resolution of ±0.05 cm³, which is important for achieving accurate and precise results.

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15.

When phenolphthalein indicator is used in a titration of alkali with acid, what colour change is seen at the endpoint?

  • A. Colourless to pink
  • B. Pink to colourless
  • C. Yellow to red
  • D. Blue to red
1 mark · foundation

Phenolphthalein is pink in alkali and colourless in acid. When acid is added from the burette to alkali in the conical flask, the solution changes from pink to colourless at the endpoint when the alkali has been neutralised.

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16.

Explain why the conical flask is swirled during a titration.

1 mark · foundation

The conical flask is swirled to ensure that the acid added from the burette is thoroughly mixed with the alkali, so that the reaction occurs evenly throughout the solution and the endpoint can be identified accurately.

  • To mix/ensure thorough mixing of the acid and alkali solutions so the reaction occurs evenly (1m)

When acid drops from the burette into the alkali in the conical flask, it initially localises in the region where it falls. If the flask is not swirled, the indicator in that spot may change colour prematurely without the overall solution reaching the neutralisation point. Swirling ensures the acid disperses evenly throughout the alkali so the reaction happens uniformly across the entire solution. This gives a reliable endpoint: the permanent colour change seen after swirling indicates that all the alkali has been neutralised, not just the portion nearest to where the drops fell.

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17.

Why is a white tile placed under the conical flask during a titration?

1 mark · foundation

A white tile is placed under the conical flask to make it easier to see the colour change of the indicator at the endpoint. The white background provides contrast so even a slight colour change can be detected.

  • To make the colour change of the indicator easier to see / to identify the endpoint more easily (1m)

The indicator colour change at the endpoint is the most important visual signal in a titration. The white tile is placed under the conical flask to provide a plain, bright background that makes even a subtle change in colour easy to detect. Without a white background, small colour changes may be difficult to see, especially if the indicator change is from one pale colour to another (such as yellow to very pale orange in methyl orange). This simple step helps ensure the endpoint is identified accurately.

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18.

A student obtains titration results of 24.50, 24.10, 24.05, and 24.00 cm³. Which results are concordant?

  • A. All four results
  • B. 24.50, 24.10, and 24.05 cm³
  • C. 24.10, 24.05, and 24.00 cm³
  • D. 24.50 and 24.10 cm³ only
1 mark · standard

Concordant results are titre values that are within 0.10 cm³ of each other. 24.10, 24.05, and 24.00 cm³ all fall within a 0.10 cm³ range. The result of 24.50 cm³ is anomalous because it is 0.40 cm³ higher than the others.

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19.

Which formula correctly calculates the number of moles from concentration and volume?

  • A. moles = concentration ÷ volume
  • B. moles = concentration × volume
  • C. moles = volume ÷ concentration
  • D. moles = concentration + volume
1 mark · standard

The formula is n = c × V, where n is moles (mol), c is concentration (mol/dm³), and V is volume (in dm³). This can be rearranged to c = n ÷ V or V = n ÷ c. Remember that volume must be in dm³, not cm³.

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20.

Why is a pipette used to measure the alkali in a titration rather than a measuring cylinder?

  • A. A pipette can measure any volume
  • B. A pipette is cheaper than a measuring cylinder
  • C. A measuring cylinder cannot hold alkali solutions
  • D. A pipette measures a fixed volume more accurately than a measuring cylinder
1 mark · standard

A pipette delivers a precise, fixed volume (usually 25.0 cm³) with much greater accuracy than a measuring cylinder. This accuracy is essential in titrations because the volume of alkali used directly affects the final calculation of the unknown concentration.

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21.

A student uses methyl orange indicator in a titration. They add acid from a burette to alkali in a conical flask. What colour change indicates the endpoint?

  • A. Red to yellow
  • B. Pink to colourless
  • C. Yellow to orange/red
  • D. Green to blue
1 mark · standard

Methyl orange is yellow in alkali and red in acid. When acid is added to the alkali, the endpoint is seen as a colour change from yellow to orange (or red). The first permanent orange/red colour indicates the alkali has just been neutralised.

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22.

Explain why the funnel should be removed from the top of the burette before starting the titration.

1 mark · standard

The funnel should be removed because solution could drip from the funnel into the burette during the titration, adding extra solution that is not accounted for in the burette reading, making the titre volume inaccurate.

  • Solution may drip from the funnel into the burette, making the burette reading inaccurate / giving a larger than expected titre (1m)

The funnel is used only to pour acid into the burette at the start. Once filling is complete, it must be removed. If left in place, small residual drops of acid in the funnel can drip down into the burette during the titration. These extra drops are not shown in the initial burette reading, so they are not accounted for when calculating the titre. The true volume of acid that reacted would be smaller than the measured volume difference, making the titre erroneously large. Removing the funnel eliminates this source of systematic error.

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Conservation

13
1.

A student reacts zinc with hydrochloric acid solution and collects the gas produced. The student measures the mass of the flask and its contents before and after the reaction using an open container. The student observes that the mass decreases. Write a balanced symbol equation for the reaction, including state symbols, and use your equation to explain the student's observation about the change in mass.

5 marks · challenge

Zn(s) + 2HCl(aq) → ZnCl₂(aq) + H₂(g) Zinc reacts with hydrochloric acid to produce zinc chloride solution and hydrogen gas. In the open container, the hydrogen gas escapes into the atmosphere. Because the gas leaves the flask, its mass is no longer included in the balance reading. The balance therefore shows a decrease. Mass is still conserved — the mass of hydrogen gas that escaped plus the mass remaining in the flask equals the original mass of the reactants.

  • Correct formulae: Zn + HCl → ZnCl₂ + H₂ (1m)
  • Correctly balanced: Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl₂ + H₂ (coefficient of 2 on HCl) (1m)
  • Correct state symbols: Zn(s), HCl(aq), ZnCl₂(aq), H₂(g) (1m)
  • Hydrogen gas escapes / leaves the open container (1m)
  • Mass is conserved / the escaped gas still has mass / total mass unchanged (1m)

The reaction between zinc and hydrochloric acid: Zn(s) + 2HCl(aq) → ZnCl₂(aq) + H₂(g). The coefficient 2 before HCl is needed because there are two Cl atoms in ZnCl₂ and one H in H₂, requiring 2HCl to provide both. State symbols: Zn is solid metal, HCl is in aqueous solution, ZnCl₂ dissolves in the solution, H₂ is a gas. The mass decrease occurs because hydrogen gas escapes the open container — it is no longer being weighed. Conservation of mass is not broken: mass of Zn + mass of HCl solution = mass of ZnCl₂ solution + mass of H₂ escaped.

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2.

Explain why mass is conserved in a chemical reaction.

3 marks · standard

In a chemical reaction, no atoms are created or destroyed. The atoms are rearranged to form new products. Because the same atoms are present before and after the reaction, the total mass of the reactants equals the total mass of the products.

  • No atoms are created or destroyed (atoms cannot be made or destroyed) (1m)
  • Atoms are rearranged to form new products (1m)
  • Total mass of reactants = total mass of products (OR same number of atoms means same mass) (1m)

Conservation of mass follows directly from Dalton's atomic theory: atoms are indestructible. In a chemical reaction, chemical bonds are broken and new bonds formed, but the atoms themselves do not disappear. Because the exact same set of atoms appears on both sides of a balanced equation, the total mass cannot change. This is why balanced equations must have the same number of each type of atom on both sides.

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3.

A student heats calcium carbonate on an open balance. The reading on the balance decreases during the reaction. Explain why the mass appears to decrease even though mass is conserved.

3 marks · standard

When calcium carbonate decomposes, it produces carbon dioxide gas. In an open system, the carbon dioxide escapes into the air. The balance only measures the solid remaining, so the reading decreases. The total mass is still conserved — if the gas were collected and added to the solid, the total mass would equal the original mass of calcium carbonate.

  • Carbon dioxide (gas) is produced / a gas is produced (1m)
  • The gas escapes from the open container / into the atmosphere / is not collected (1m)
  • The balance only measures the remaining solid / mass is conserved overall (the escaped gas still has mass) (1m)

The decomposition of calcium carbonate (CaCO₃ → CaO + CO₂) produces carbon dioxide gas. In an open system the gas escapes into the atmosphere — the balance cannot weigh gas that has left the container. This makes it appear that mass has been lost, but in reality conservation of mass still holds: if you could weigh the escaped CO₂ and add it back to the solid CaO, you'd get the original mass of CaCO₃. The key is distinguishing between measured mass (what the balance shows) and total mass (always conserved).

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4.

A student burns a strip of magnesium ribbon in air. They notice that the mass of the ash is greater than the mass of the original ribbon. Explain why the mass increases and state whether this contradicts the law of conservation of mass.

3 marks · higher

When magnesium burns in air it reacts with oxygen from the atmosphere: 2Mg + O₂ → 2MgO. The oxygen atoms from the air become part of the solid magnesium oxide product. Because the oxygen is taken from the air and added to the solid, the mass of the ash is greater than the original ribbon. This does not contradict conservation of mass — the total mass (ribbon + oxygen absorbed) equals the mass of the ash. In a closed system, no change in mass would be measured.

  • Magnesium reacts with / absorbs / gains oxygen from the air (1m)
  • The oxygen becomes part of the solid product (magnesium oxide) increasing its mass (1m)
  • This does NOT contradict conservation of mass — total mass (ribbon + O₂ absorbed) = mass of ash / mass is still conserved (1m)

When magnesium burns, the equation is 2Mg(s) + O₂(g) → 2MgO(s). The oxygen atoms from the atmosphere are incorporated into the solid product. Unlike the calcium carbonate example (where mass appears to decrease because gas escapes), here the solid gains atoms from a gas — so it gets heavier. This is entirely consistent with conservation of mass: the system in this case is open and absorbing matter from outside. If you weighed the ash and the used-up oxygen together, total mass = original ribbon mass.

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5.

Write the formula of calcium hydroxide and explain how you worked it out. Calcium is Ca²⁺ and hydroxide is OH⁻.

2 marks · standard

The formula is Ca(OH)₂. Calcium has a 2+ charge and hydroxide has a 1− charge. Using the swap-and-drop rule, the 2 and 1 swap to give Ca₁(OH)₂. This simplifies to Ca(OH)₂. Brackets are needed around OH because there are two hydroxide ions.

  • Ca(OH)₂ (correct formula with brackets) (1m)
  • Explanation: two OH⁻ needed to balance Ca²⁺ / charges must balance to zero / 2 and 1 swapped (1m)

Calcium is Ca²⁺ (charge +2) and hydroxide is OH⁻ (charge −1). To achieve electrical neutrality, two hydroxide ions are needed for each calcium ion: the total charge becomes 2+ plus 2(1−) = 0. The formula is Ca(OH)₂ — brackets are essential around OH to show that the subscript 2 applies to the whole OH group, not just the oxygen.

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6.

Which of the following is the correct formula for oxygen gas?

  • A. O
  • B. O₂
  • C. O₃
  • D. 2O
1 mark · foundation

Oxygen exists as a diatomic molecule — two oxygen atoms bonded together — giving the formula O₂. A single O would represent a lone oxygen atom, which is not how oxygen normally exists. O₃ is ozone, a different allotrope. The seven diatomic elements are H₂, N₂, O₂, F₂, Cl₂, Br₂ and I₂.

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7.

What is the correct formula for magnesium chloride?

  • A. MgCl
  • B. Mg₂Cl
  • C. MgCl₂
  • D. MgCl₃
1 mark · foundation

Magnesium forms a 2+ ion (Mg²⁺) and chlorine forms a 1− ion (Cl⁻). To balance the charges, you need two chloride ions for every one magnesium ion: MgCl₂. Using the swap-and-drop method: swap the charge numbers (2 and 1) to get Mg₁Cl₂, then simplify to MgCl₂.

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8.

What does the state symbol (aq) mean?

  • A. A solid substance
  • B. Dissolved in water
  • C. A liquid substance
  • D. A gas at room temperature
1 mark · foundation

(aq) stands for aqueous, meaning the substance is dissolved in water. The four state symbols are: (s) solid, (l) liquid, (g) gas, and (aq) aqueous. For example, NaCl(aq) means sodium chloride dissolved in water, forming a salt solution.

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9.

Which equation is correctly balanced? H₂ + O₂ → H₂O

  • A. H₂ + O₂ → H₂O (as written)
  • B. H₂ + O₂ → H₂O₂
  • C. H₄ + O₂ → 2H₂O
  • D. 2H₂ + O₂ → 2H₂O
1 mark · foundation

2H₂ + O₂ → 2H₂O is balanced: Left side has 4 H and 2 O; right side has 4 H and 2 O. Option A is unbalanced (2 O on left, 1 O on right). Option B changes the product to hydrogen peroxide (H₂O₂) — a different substance. Option C wrongly changes the subscript in H₂ to H₄, which would be a different formula.

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10.

Iron(II) sulfate contains Fe²⁺ ions and SO₄²⁻ ions. Write the formula of iron(II) sulfate.

1 mark · standard
  • FeSO₄ (1:1 ratio as charges cancel) (1m)

Fe²⁺ has a 2+ charge and SO₄²⁻ has a 2− charge. Applying the swap-and-drop rule: swap the numbers (both are 2) → Fe₂SO₄₂, then simplify to FeSO₄. The charges cancel in a 1:1 ratio. No brackets are needed because there is only one sulfate ion.

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11.

Balance this equation by filling in the missing coefficient. __ H₂ + Cl₂ → 2HCl Enter the number only.

1 mark · standard
  • H₂ + Cl₂ → 2HCl (coefficient of 1 in front of H₂) (1m)

Checking atoms: Right side has 2 H and 2 Cl in 2HCl. Left side needs 1 H₂ (giving 2 H) and 1 Cl₂ (giving 2 Cl). The equation H₂ + Cl₂ → 2HCl is already balanced — the coefficient of H₂ is 1 (which is not normally written). A common error is writing 2H₂ which would give 4 H on the left but only 2 H on the right.

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12.

Propane burns in oxygen: C₃H₈ + O₂ → CO₂ + H₂O Which set of coefficients correctly balances this equation?

  • A. 1, 5, 3, 4
  • B. 1, 4, 3, 4
  • C. 2, 7, 3, 4
  • D. 1, 5, 3, 3
1 mark · higher

Balance step by step: 1 C₃H₈ gives 3 C (need 3 CO₂) and 8 H (need 4 H₂O). Now count O on right: 3×2 + 4×1 = 10 O atoms, so need 5 O₂ on left. Check: C₃H₈ + 5O₂ → 3CO₂ + 4H₂O. Left: 3C, 8H, 10O. Right: 3C, 8H, 10O. Balanced.

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13.

Aluminium sulfate contains Al³⁺ ions and SO₄²⁻ ions. What is the correct formula?

  • A. AlSO₄
  • B. Al₂SO₄
  • C. Al₂(SO₄)₃
  • D. Al₃(SO₄)₂
1 mark · higher

Al³⁺ has a 3+ charge and SO₄²⁻ has a 2− charge. Using swap-and-drop: swap the numbers to get Al₂(SO₄)₃. Check: 2 × (+3) + 3 × (−2) = 6 − 6 = 0. Balanced. Brackets are required around SO₄ because there are three sulfate groups. Option D (Al₃(SO₄)₂) would give 3×3 + 2×(−2) = 9 − 4 = +5, which is not neutral.

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The Reactivity Series

28
1.

Describe and explain how the reactivity series is used to predict displacement reactions and to determine the method of metal extraction. In your answer, refer to: the positions of carbon and hydrogen in the series; how to predict whether a displacement reaction will occur; the conditions required for extracting metals above and below carbon; and how reactivity is explained in terms of ions and electrons.

6 marks · higher

The reactivity series lists metals in order of how readily they react, from most reactive (potassium) to least reactive (gold). Carbon and hydrogen are also included: carbon sits between aluminium and zinc, and hydrogen sits between iron and copper. Displacement reactions occur when a more reactive metal is placed in a solution of a less reactive metal's salt. The more reactive metal displaces the less reactive metal because it has a greater tendency to lose electrons and form positive ions. For example, zinc displaces copper from copper sulfate solution because zinc is above copper in the series. No reaction occurs if a less reactive metal is added to the salt of a more reactive metal. The position of carbon in the series determines the extraction method. Metals below carbon (such as zinc, iron, and copper) can be extracted by reduction with carbon — carbon is more reactive and displaces the metal from its ore. Metals above carbon (such as aluminium, magnesium, and calcium) cannot be reduced by carbon because they are more reactive than carbon. These metals are extracted by electrolysis of their molten compounds. Metals below hydrogen (gold, silver) are so unreactive they are found as native elements. Reactivity is explained by the tendency of metal atoms to lose electrons and form positive ions. More reactive metals lose electrons more readily. This electron transfer is the basis of both displacement reactions (the more reactive metal loses electrons; the less reactive metal's ions gain them) and electrolysis (metal ions at the cathode gain electrons to form metal atoms).

  • Carbon is positioned between aluminium and zinc; hydrogen is between iron and copper in the reactivity series (1m)
  • Displacement occurs when a more reactive metal is added to the salt of a less reactive metal; a less reactive metal will not displace a more reactive one (1m)
  • Metals below carbon can be extracted by reduction with carbon because carbon is more reactive and can displace them (1m)
  • Metals above carbon must be extracted by electrolysis of molten compounds because they are more reactive than carbon (1m)
  • Reactivity is explained by tendency to lose electrons to form positive ions — more reactive metals lose electrons more readily (1m)
  • Link between electron transfer and both displacement and electrolysis — more reactive metal loses electrons in displacement; metal ions gain electrons at cathode in electrolysis (1m)

This 6-mark extended response requires a structured answer covering all four specified areas. Award marks for: (1) carbon (between Al and Zn) and hydrogen (between Fe and Cu) positions; (2) displacement rule — more reactive displaces less reactive; (3) metals below carbon extracted by carbon reduction; (4) metals above carbon extracted by electrolysis of molten compound; (5) reactivity = ease of electron loss to form positive ions; (6) electron transfer link between displacement and electrolysis. A full-marks answer integrates all four areas with examples. Aim for 150-250 words. Common error: covering only 2-3 areas instead of all four.

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2.

Explain why aluminium is extracted by electrolysis but iron is extracted using carbon reduction. Use ideas about the reactivity series and oxidation-reduction in your answer.

6 marks · challenge

Aluminium is above carbon in the reactivity series, so carbon cannot reduce aluminium oxide — carbon is not reactive enough to displace aluminium from its compound. Instead, electrolysis of molten aluminium oxide (mixed with cryolite to lower the melting point) is used. At the cathode, aluminium ions gain electrons and are reduced to form aluminium metal. At the anode, oxide ions lose electrons and are oxidised to form oxygen gas. Iron is below carbon in the reactivity series, so carbon can reduce iron oxide. Carbon is oxidised to carbon dioxide, while iron oxide is reduced to iron. Carbon reduction is much cheaper than electrolysis because it does not require large amounts of electrical energy.

  • Aluminium is above carbon in the reactivity series / aluminium is more reactive than carbon (1m)
  • Carbon cannot reduce aluminium oxide / carbon is not reactive enough to displace aluminium (1m)
  • Electrolysis is used; aluminium oxide must be molten (and mixed with cryolite to lower melting point) (1m)
  • At the cathode, Al3+ ions gain electrons and are reduced to aluminium metal (1m)
  • Iron is below carbon in the reactivity series, so carbon CAN reduce iron oxide (1m)
  • Carbon reduction is cheaper than electrolysis because less electrical energy is required (1m)

This question links three topics: the reactivity series, redox chemistry, and extraction methods. The key principle is that a more reactive substance cannot be displaced by a less reactive one. Aluminium sits above carbon in the reactivity series, meaning carbon is not reactive enough to reduce aluminium oxide — carbon cannot donate electrons to Al3+ ions forcefully enough to displace them. Instead, electrical energy via electrolysis is used: at the cathode, Al3+ ions gain electrons (reduction) to form aluminium metal. The oxide must be molten (mixed with cryolite to lower the melting point) so ions can move and carry charge. Iron sits below carbon in the reactivity series, so carbon CAN reduce iron oxide — carbon is oxidised to CO2 while iron oxide is reduced to iron. This is cheaper than electrolysis because no large electrical supply is needed. Students often confuse which direction reduction goes: always remember that the ore's metal ion is REDUCED (gains electrons) at the cathode or by the reducing agent. The reason aluminium needs electrolysis is its HIGH position in the reactivity series, not just that it is a metal.

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3.

A student electrolyses copper sulfate solution using carbon electrodes. Predict and explain the products at each electrode. Include half equations in your answer.

6 marks · challenge

At the cathode, copper is deposited. Copper ions (Cu2+) are preferentially discharged over hydrogen ions because copper is lower than hydrogen in the reactivity series. Cu2+ ions gain two electrons and are reduced to copper atoms. Half equation: Cu2+ + 2e- → Cu. At the anode, oxygen gas is produced. Hydroxide ions (OH-) are preferentially discharged over sulfate ions. OH- ions lose electrons and are oxidised. Half equation: 4OH- → 2H2O + O2 + 4e-. As electrolysis continues, the solution loses copper ions, and the blue colour of the copper sulfate solution fades.

  • Copper deposited at the cathode (1m)
  • Cu2+ is preferentially discharged over H+ because copper is lower in the reactivity series (less reactive than hydrogen) (1m)
  • Correct half equation at cathode: Cu2+ + 2e- → Cu (1m)
  • Oxygen produced at the anode (1m)
  • OH- is preferentially discharged over SO42- (1m)
  • Correct half equation at anode: 4OH- → 2H2O + O2 + 4e- (1m)

Electrolysis of copper sulfate solution is a key AQA required practical. The solution contains four ions: Cu2+ (from copper sulfate), SO42- (from copper sulfate), H+ (from water), and OH- (from water). At the cathode, the least reactive cation is preferentially discharged: Cu2+ is below H+ in terms of discharge preference because copper is lower in the reactivity series, so copper metal is deposited. At the anode, the rule is that OH- is preferentially discharged over SO42- (halide ions discharge before OH- if present, but there are none here). OH- ions lose electrons and oxygen gas is produced. The half equations show electron transfer: at the cathode Cu2+ + 2e- → Cu (reduction, gain of electrons); at the anode 4OH- → 2H2O + O2 + 4e- (oxidation, loss of electrons). Students often predict hydrogen at the cathode — this would only happen if no metal ions were present or if the metal were above hydrogen in the reactivity series. Copper is BELOW hydrogen, so copper deposits instead.

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4.

Compare the extraction of aluminium and iron. Explain why aluminium extraction is more expensive, linking your answer to reactivity, energy costs, and the electrolysis process.

6 marks · challenge

Aluminium is above carbon in the reactivity series, so carbon cannot reduce aluminium oxide. Aluminium is extracted by electrolysis of molten aluminium oxide dissolved in cryolite. Cryolite lowers the melting point of aluminium oxide so it can conduct electricity. Electrolysis requires a large and continuous electrical energy supply, making aluminium extraction expensive. Iron is below carbon in the reactivity series, so carbon (coke) can reduce iron oxide (haematite) in the blast furnace. This uses chemical energy from burning coke, which is much cheaper per kilogram than the electrical energy needed for electrolysis. Therefore, the high position of aluminium in the reactivity series is the fundamental reason its extraction is more expensive.

  • Aluminium is above carbon in the reactivity series (iron is below carbon) (1m)
  • Carbon cannot reduce aluminium oxide; iron oxide CAN be reduced by carbon (1m)
  • Aluminium extracted by electrolysis; aluminium oxide dissolved in cryolite to allow conduction / lower melting point (1m)
  • Electrolysis requires large continuous electrical energy input (1m)
  • Iron extracted by carbon reduction in the blast furnace using cheaper chemical energy / combustion of coke (1m)
  • Aluminium extraction is more expensive because electrical energy is more costly than chemical energy from carbon (1m)

This is a comparison question that requires students to connect reactivity series position, extraction method, and economic cost. Aluminium is higher in the reactivity series than carbon, so carbon cannot reduce aluminium oxide — electrolysis is required. This makes aluminium expensive to produce because electrolysis demands large, continuous electrical energy input; the process runs at very high temperatures and the aluminium oxide must be dissolved in molten cryolite (melting point ~960 degrees C) to allow ionic conduction, adding further energy costs. Iron is below carbon in the reactivity series, so coke (carbon) can reduce haematite (iron oxide) in the blast furnace. This uses chemical energy from combustion, which is far cheaper than electrical energy per kilogram of metal produced. The key examiner distinction for Level 3 answers is linking the HIGH POSITION in the reactivity series directly to the NEED for electrolysis, and then linking electrolysis to HIGH ELECTRICAL ENERGY costs. Simply stating 'aluminium needs electrolysis and iron doesn't' is Level 1. Explaining WHY and connecting it to cost moves to Level 3.

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5.

Evaluate whether recycling aluminium is better than extracting new aluminium from its ore. Consider energy, reactivity, and environmental impact in your answer.

6 marks · challenge

Recycling aluminium is better than extracting new aluminium from bauxite ore, primarily because of the enormous energy saving. Aluminium is very high in the reactivity series — above carbon — meaning its extraction requires electrolysis of molten aluminium oxide, which consumes very large amounts of electrical energy. Recycling aluminium only requires melting the metal down, using approximately 5% of the energy needed for extraction. This also means recycling produces far less carbon dioxide, reducing the carbon footprint. Extraction from bauxite also requires mining, which destroys habitats and creates waste rock. The main limitation of recycling is that aluminium must be collected and sorted, requiring infrastructure and consumer participation. Overall, given the very high energy cost of electrolysis linked to aluminium's high reactivity, recycling aluminium is significantly better for both economic and environmental reasons.

  • Aluminium is above carbon in the reactivity series, requiring electrolysis for extraction (very energy-intensive) (1m)
  • Recycling aluminium uses only a small fraction of the energy needed for electrolysis (approximately 5%) (1m)
  • Extraction involves mining bauxite, causing habitat destruction / environmental damage (1m)
  • Recycling produces far less carbon dioxide / smaller carbon footprint than electrolysis (1m)
  • Limitation of recycling: requires collection, sorting infrastructure / consumer behaviour (1m)
  • Justified conclusion: recycling is better overall because energy savings and reduced environmental impact outweigh the logistical drawbacks (1m)

This evaluation question requires students to consider multiple perspectives and reach a justified conclusion — classic AO3 work. The case for recycling aluminium rests on the enormous energy saving: recycling requires only about 5% of the energy needed to extract aluminium from bauxite by electrolysis. This is because electrolysis operates at very high temperatures and requires a continuous, large electrical current — all linked to aluminium's high position in the reactivity series (above carbon). Extracting from bauxite also requires mining, which destroys habitats, and the electrolysis process produces CO2 (from carbon anode burning away). Recycling avoids all of these: no mining, no electrolysis energy costs, no anode CO2. The environmental impact is dramatically lower. The reactivity connection: aluminium is VERY reactive (high in series), which is why its initial extraction is so energy-intensive; but once aluminium metal exists, it can be re-melted at a fraction of the cost. Students must go beyond just stating facts — they need to make a JUDGEMENT (Level 3), explaining which factors are most significant and why recycling is the better choice, acknowledging any limitations (e.g., recycling needs collection infrastructure).

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6.

Explain why adding sodium chloride to water changes the products of electrolysis compared to electrolysing pure water. Use ideas about the preferential discharge of ions and the reactivity series in your answer.

5 marks · challenge

Pure water contains only H+ and OH- ions (from water's partial ionisation). Electrolysis produces hydrogen at the cathode and oxygen at the anode. When sodium chloride is dissolved, Cl- ions are introduced at high concentration. At the cathode, H+ ions are still preferentially discharged over Na+ ions because sodium is very high in the reactivity series — Na+ ions are very difficult to reduce. Hydrogen gas is still produced. At the anode, Cl- ions are preferentially discharged over OH- ions because halide ions are always discharged preferentially. Chlorine gas is produced instead of oxygen. The remaining Na+ and OH- ions in solution form sodium hydroxide.

  • Pure water gives hydrogen at cathode and oxygen at anode from H+ and OH- ions (1m)
  • Adding NaCl introduces Cl- ions at high concentration (1m)
  • At cathode: H+ preferentially discharged over Na+ because Na is very high in the reactivity series / Na+ is very difficult to reduce (1m)
  • At anode: Cl- preferentially discharged over OH- because halide ions are always discharged preferentially (1m)
  • Chlorine produced at anode instead of oxygen; sodium hydroxide formed in solution from remaining Na+ and OH- (1m)

Pure water produces hydrogen at the cathode and oxygen at the anode — both come from the very low concentration of H+ and OH- ions that form when water partially ionises. When sodium chloride is dissolved, the ion concentration changes dramatically. The solution now contains four main ion types: Na+ and Cl- from the salt, plus H+ and OH- from water. At the cathode, H+ is still preferentially discharged over Na+ because sodium is very high in the reactivity series — Na+ has a very strong pull on its electrons and is very difficult to reduce. Hydrogen gas is produced at the cathode regardless, same as pure water. At the anode, the change is significant: Cl- ions are now present at high concentration. The rule for the anode is that halide ions (Cl-, Br-, I-) are ALWAYS preferentially discharged over OH-. Chlorine gas is produced instead of oxygen. The Na+ and OH- ions that remain in solution after electrolysis combine to give sodium hydroxide (NaOH). Students commonly mix up which electrode changes — it is the ANODE that changes when Cl- is added. The cathode still produces hydrogen because Na+ is too reactive to be reduced.

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7.

Explain why aluminium is extracted by electrolysis rather than by reduction with carbon. Include reference to the reactivity series and the conditions required.

4 marks · higher

Aluminium is above carbon in the reactivity series, meaning aluminium is more reactive than carbon. A more reactive element cannot be reduced by a less reactive one, so carbon cannot reduce aluminium oxide. Instead, electrolysis of molten aluminium oxide is used. The aluminium oxide must be molten (not dissolved in water) so that the aluminium ions can move and are free to be discharged at the cathode. This requires very high temperatures, making the process expensive.

  • Aluminium is more reactive than carbon / aluminium is above carbon in the reactivity series (1m)
  • Carbon cannot reduce aluminium oxide (a less reactive element cannot displace a more reactive one) (1m)
  • Electrolysis of molten aluminium oxide is used (NOT a solution — ions must be free to move) (1m)
  • The process requires high temperatures and is expensive OR aluminium ions are discharged at the cathode (1m)

Aluminium sits above carbon in the reactivity series. Only a more reactive element can reduce a less reactive one, so carbon (less reactive than aluminium) cannot reduce Al₂O₃. Electrolysis of molten aluminium oxide (dissolved in cryolite to lower the melting point to ~900°C) is used instead. The aluminium ions are discharged at the cathode: Al³⁺ + 3e⁻ → Al. For full marks: (1) Al above carbon in reactivity series; (2) carbon cannot reduce Al₂O₃; (3) electrolysis used instead; (4) conditions (molten/dissolved in cryolite). Common error: saying Al cannot be extracted because it is 'too expensive' without explaining the reactivity reason.

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8.

A student has three metals: copper, zinc, and magnesium. They are tested in solutions of copper sulfate, zinc sulfate, and magnesium sulfate. Using the reactivity series, predict which combinations will result in a displacement reaction and which will not. Explain your reasoning.

4 marks · higher

A displacement reaction occurs only when a more reactive metal is placed into a solution of a less reactive metal's salt. Magnesium is above zinc, which is above copper in the reactivity series. Magnesium will displace copper from copper sulfate and will displace zinc from zinc sulfate. Zinc will displace copper from copper sulfate, but zinc will not displace magnesium from magnesium sulfate because zinc is less reactive than magnesium. Copper will not displace either zinc or magnesium from their sulfate solutions because copper is the least reactive of the three.

  • Reactivity order correctly identified as Mg > Zn > Cu (1m)
  • Magnesium displaces both copper (from CuSO₄) and zinc (from ZnSO₄) — two reactions stated (1m)
  • Zinc displaces copper (from CuSO₄) but NOT magnesium (from MgSO₄) (1m)
  • Copper causes no displacement reactions (less reactive than both Zn and Mg) with correct reasoning (1m)

Reactivity order: Mg > Zn > Cu. A more reactive metal only displaces a less reactive one. Magnesium displaces both zinc (from ZnSO₄) and copper (from CuSO₄). Zinc displaces copper (from CuSO₄) but not magnesium (from MgSO₄). Copper displaces neither zinc nor magnesium. For full marks: (1) correct reactivity order; (2) Mg displaces both; (3) Zn displaces Cu only; (4) Cu displaces neither with reasoning. Common error: saying 'copper displaces zinc' — copper is LESS reactive than zinc.

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9.

Gold and silver are found as uncombined elements in the Earth's crust, while iron is found as iron oxide ore. Use the reactivity series to explain this difference.

4 marks · higher

Gold and silver are at the bottom of the reactivity series and are very unreactive. They have very little tendency to form positive ions, so they do not react with oxygen or other substances in the Earth's crust over geological time. They are therefore found as native metals — uncombined elements. Iron is higher in the reactivity series and is more reactive than gold and silver. Iron readily reacts with oxygen to form iron oxide, which is the ore from which iron must be extracted. The position in the reactivity series determines how easily a metal combines with other elements.

  • Gold and silver are at the bottom of the reactivity series / very unreactive (1m)
  • Gold and silver have very little tendency to lose electrons / form ions / react with oxygen (1m)
  • Iron is higher in the reactivity series and more reactive than gold/silver (1m)
  • Iron reacts with oxygen to form iron oxide (ore), so it is found combined / not as a free element (1m)

Position in the reactivity series determines how readily a metal reacts with oxygen and other elements in the environment. Gold and silver sit near the bottom, with very low tendency to form ions, so they don't react with oxygen over geological time — they remain as native (uncombined) metals. Iron sits much higher in the series, readily reacts with oxygen to form iron oxide ore. For full marks: (1) gold/silver are low/unreactive; (2) low tendency to form ions/react with oxygen; (3) iron is more reactive/higher in series; (4) iron reacts with oxygen forming iron oxide ore. Common error: saying gold 'won't dissolve' rather than explaining the electron/ion tendency basis.

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10.

Iron filings are added to copper sulfate solution. Explain what happens, including what is observed and why the reaction occurs.

3 marks · standard

Iron is more reactive than copper. Iron displaces copper from copper sulfate solution because iron has a greater tendency to form positive ions than copper. The iron atoms lose electrons to form iron ions, while copper ions gain electrons to form copper atoms. A brown/orange deposit of copper metal forms on the iron, and the blue colour of the copper sulfate solution fades as copper ions are removed from solution.

  • Iron is more reactive than copper / iron is above copper in the reactivity series (1m)
  • A brown/orange solid (copper metal) deposits on the iron (accept: solution turns from blue to pale green / colourless) (1m)
  • Iron atoms lose electrons to form iron ions; copper ions gain electrons to form copper atoms (accept reference to oxidation/reduction or electron transfer) (1m)

Iron is more reactive than copper, so iron displaces copper from copper sulfate solution: Fe(s) + CuSO₄(aq) → FeSO₄(aq) + Cu(s). Observations: blue solution fades to colourless/pale green, brown/orange copper solid deposits on the iron. Iron atoms lose 2 electrons (oxidised: Fe → Fe²⁺); Cu²⁺ ions gain 2 electrons (reduced: Cu²⁺ → Cu). For full marks cover: observation (colour change, solid forms), reason (iron more reactive), and electron transfer. Common error: describing the solution turning green — it fades to colourless or very pale green only.

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11.

Compare the reactions of magnesium, zinc, and iron when each is added separately to dilute hydrochloric acid. Describe the differences in reactivity.

3 marks · standard

Magnesium reacts vigorously with dilute hydrochloric acid, producing rapid fizzing as hydrogen gas is released and the metal dissolves quickly. Zinc reacts moderately, with steady but less vigorous fizzing, and takes longer to dissolve. Iron reacts slowly with only gentle fizzing, and it takes much longer for the iron to dissolve. This pattern reflects the reactivity series: magnesium is above zinc which is above iron.

  • Magnesium reacts vigorously / fastest / most rapid fizzing (1m)
  • Iron reacts slowest / barely fizzes / least vigorous reaction (1m)
  • Zinc reacts at an intermediate rate (between Mg and Fe) OR order stated as Mg > Zn > Fe (1m)

All three metals react with dilute HCl to produce a metal chloride and hydrogen gas (M + 2HCl → MCl₂ + H₂). The rate of fizzing reflects position in the reactivity series: Mg > Zn > Fe. Magnesium: vigorous rapid fizzing, dissolves quickly. Zinc: steady moderate fizzing, slower. Iron: slow gentle fizzing, takes much longer. For full marks: describe observations for all three metals, link to reactivity order. Common error: only describing one metal's reaction without making a comparison.

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12.

Describe what happens when calcium is added to water. Include observations, products formed, and the properties of the resulting solution.

3 marks · standard

When calcium is added to water it reacts steadily, producing fizzing as hydrogen gas is released. The calcium slowly dissolves and the water becomes cloudy or milky as calcium hydroxide is produced, some of which is only slightly soluble. The resulting solution is alkaline because calcium hydroxide is a base. This reaction is slower than the reactions of potassium or sodium with water.

  • Calcium fizzes / produces bubbles of hydrogen gas (accept: reacts steadily) (1m)
  • Products are calcium hydroxide and hydrogen gas (1m)
  • The resulting solution is alkaline / has a pH above 7 (accept: contains a base) (1m)

Calcium reacts with cold water: Ca(s) + 2H₂O(l) → Ca(OH)₂(aq) + H₂(g). Observations: fizzing (H₂ gas), calcium sinks and disappears, solution turns milky (Ca(OH)₂ is only slightly soluble). The resulting solution is alkaline (pH > 7) because calcium hydroxide is a base. Reaction is slower than Na or K but faster than Mg. For full marks: observations (fizzing, milky), products (Ca(OH)₂ and H₂), alkaline nature. Common error: saying the solution turns clear — it turns slightly milky due to Ca(OH)₂ being sparingly soluble.

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13.

A recycling company recovers copper metal from a copper sulfate solution in electronic waste by adding iron filings. (a) Explain why iron displaces copper from copper sulfate solution, using the reactivity series in your answer. [1 mark] (b) Write the ionic equation for this reaction. [1 mark] (c) Predict and explain what would happen if zinc filings were used instead of iron filings. [1 mark]

3 marks · standard

(a) Iron is higher in the reactivity series than copper, so iron is a more reactive metal and can displace copper from its salt solution. More reactive metals displace less reactive metals from their compounds. (b) Fe(s) + Cu²⁺(aq) → Fe²⁺(aq) + Cu(s) (c) Zinc would also displace copper from the solution because zinc is higher in the reactivity series than copper, so zinc is more reactive. Copper would be deposited as a solid and the zinc would dissolve.

  • Iron is more reactive than copper (higher in reactivity series) so displaces it from solution (1m)
  • Ionic equation: Fe(s) + Cu²⁺(aq) → Fe²⁺(aq) + Cu(s) [accept Fe + Cu2+ → Fe2+ + Cu] (1m)
  • Zinc is more reactive than copper so zinc would also displace copper / copper solid would form (1m)

Displacement reactions occur when a more reactive metal 'pushes out' a less reactive metal from its compound. Iron is above copper in the reactivity series, so iron atoms lose electrons to copper ions, forming iron ions while copper metal is deposited. The ionic equation Fe(s) + Cu²⁺(aq) → Fe²⁺(aq) + Cu(s) shows this electron transfer (a redox reaction). Zinc is also above copper in the reactivity series, so it would similarly displace copper — in fact, zinc is more reactive than iron, so it would react even faster. This type of question is common in OCR B sustainability and recycling contexts.

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14.

In a displacement reaction between magnesium and copper sulfate solution, identify which substance is oxidised, which is reduced, and explain in terms of electron transfer.

3 marks · higher

Magnesium is oxidised because it loses electrons to form magnesium ions (Mg → Mg²⁺ + 2e⁻). Copper ions are reduced because they gain electrons to form copper atoms (Cu²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Cu). Oxidation is the loss of electrons and reduction is the gain of electrons. Magnesium is the reducing agent as it donates electrons to the copper ions.

  • Magnesium is oxidised — it loses electrons (to form Mg²⁺ ions) (1m)
  • Copper ions are reduced — they gain electrons (to form copper atoms) (1m)
  • Oxidation is loss of electrons; reduction is gain of electrons (OIL RIG) OR magnesium is the reducing agent (1m)

OILRIG: Oxidation Is Loss, Reduction Is Gain of electrons. Magnesium atoms LOSE 2 electrons → oxidised: Mg → Mg²⁺ + 2e⁻. Copper(II) ions GAIN 2 electrons → reduced: Cu²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Cu. Magnesium is the reducing agent (donates electrons); Cu²⁺ is the oxidising agent (accepts electrons). For full marks: (1) Mg oxidised/loses electrons; (2) Cu²⁺ reduced/gains electrons; (3) OIL RIG stated or reducing agent identified. Common error: saying 'Mg gains electrons' or 'Cu is oxidised' — always check the direction of electron transfer first.

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15.

Magnesium burns in oxygen with a bright white flame. Write a word equation and a balanced symbol equation for this reaction, and explain why magnesium is so reactive with oxygen.

3 marks · higher

Word equation: magnesium + oxygen → magnesium oxide. Balanced symbol equation: 2Mg(s) + O₂(g) → 2MgO(s). Magnesium is reactive with oxygen because it is high in the reactivity series and has a strong tendency to lose electrons. When magnesium reacts, each Mg atom loses two electrons to form Mg²⁺ ions, and the oxygen atoms gain those electrons to form O²⁻ ions, creating the ionic compound magnesium oxide.

  • Correct word equation: magnesium + oxygen → magnesium oxide (1m)
  • Correct balanced symbol equation: 2Mg + O₂ → 2MgO (state symbols not required for this mark) (1m)
  • Explanation: magnesium readily loses electrons to form Mg²⁺ ions / magnesium is high in the reactivity series and has a strong tendency to lose electrons (1m)

Magnesium burns vigorously in oxygen with a brilliant white flame: 2Mg(s) + O₂(g) → 2MgO(s). The equation must be balanced — oxygen is diatomic (O₂), requiring 2Mg atoms. Magnesium's high position in the reactivity series means it has a strong tendency to lose the 2 electrons in its outer shell, forming Mg²⁺ ions. Oxygen accepts those electrons to form O²⁻ ions, creating the ionic compound MgO. For full marks: (1) word equation; (2) balanced symbol equation with correct coefficients; (3) electron loss explanation. Common error: writing Mg + O → MgO (unbalanced — oxygen is O₂).

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16.

State the positions of carbon and hydrogen in the reactivity series and explain what their positions tell us about metal extraction.

2 marks · foundation

Carbon is placed in the reactivity series between aluminium and zinc. Hydrogen is placed between iron and copper. Their positions divide the series: metals above carbon cannot be extracted by carbon reduction and must be extracted by electrolysis. Metals between carbon and hydrogen can be extracted by reduction with carbon. Metals below hydrogen are so unreactive they are often found as uncombined elements in the Earth's crust.

  • Carbon is positioned between aluminium and zinc (above zinc, below aluminium) in the reactivity series (1m)
  • Hydrogen is positioned between iron and copper OR metals above carbon need electrolysis / metals below carbon can be reduced by carbon (accept either) (1m)

Carbon sits between aluminium and zinc; hydrogen sits between iron and copper. These positions are used as dividing lines for extraction methods: metals above carbon are too reactive for carbon reduction and need electrolysis (e.g. aluminium, magnesium); metals between carbon and hydrogen are extracted by reduction with carbon/coke (e.g. iron, zinc); metals below hydrogen are found uncombined or require minimal processing (e.g. copper, silver, gold). For full marks: (1) carbon's position (between Al and Zn); (2) hydrogen's position or extraction implication. Common error: placing hydrogen above carbon.

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17.

Explain what is meant by the 'reactivity' of a metal in terms of its atoms and electrons.

2 marks · foundation

The reactivity of a metal describes how readily it loses electrons from its outer shell to form positive ions. Metals high in the reactivity series have a greater tendency to lose electrons and form positive ions. Metals low in the series lose electrons less readily and are therefore less reactive.

  • Reactivity describes how readily a metal loses electrons from its outer shell (1m)
  • More reactive metals form positive ions more easily / have a greater tendency to lose electrons (1m)

Metal reactivity is fundamentally about how readily a metal atom loses electrons from its outermost shell to form positive ions. More reactive metals lose electrons more easily; less reactive metals hold onto their electrons more tightly. This electron-loss tendency explains why reactive metals react vigorously with water and acid, while unreactive metals like gold remain stable. For full marks: link reactivity to ease of electron loss, positive ion formation, and examples from the series. Common error: describing reactivity as 'how fast' the metal reacts rather than explaining the electron transfer basis.

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18.

Describe what happens when sodium is added to cold water. Include observations and the products formed.

2 marks · foundation

When sodium is added to cold water it fizzes rapidly and moves around on the surface. The sodium gradually gets smaller as it reacts. The products formed are sodium hydroxide solution and hydrogen gas.

  • Sodium fizzes / moves around on the water surface (accept any correct observation such as 'it hisses' or 'it melts into a ball') (1m)
  • Products are hydrogen gas and sodium hydroxide solution (1m)

Sodium reacts vigorously with cold water: 2Na(s) + 2H₂O(l) → 2NaOH(aq) + H₂(g). The metal floats, fizzes vigorously, moves around rapidly, and may melt into a sphere. The products are sodium hydroxide (making the solution alkaline) and hydrogen gas. A full answer covers: observations (fizzing, movement, melting), products (NaOH + H₂), and the alkaline nature of the solution. Common error: omitting hydrogen as a product or not noting the strongly alkaline solution produced.

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19.

Aluminium drinks cans are widely used and resist rusting (corrosion) despite aluminium being quite high in the reactivity series. Explain why aluminium resists corrosion even though it is a reactive metal. [2 marks]

2 marks · foundation

When aluminium is exposed to air, it immediately reacts with oxygen to form a thin layer of aluminium oxide on its surface. This oxide layer is tightly bonded to the surface and acts as a protective barrier, preventing oxygen and water from reaching the aluminium metal underneath. This stops further corrosion from occurring.

  • Aluminium reacts with oxygen to form aluminium oxide layer on the surface (1m)
  • The oxide layer acts as a protective barrier / prevents further reaction / stops oxygen and water reaching the metal (1m)

Aluminium is reactive (high in the reactivity series) but has a natural defence: it reacts almost instantly with oxygen in the air to form a thin, hard layer of aluminium oxide (Al₂O₃). This layer sticks tightly to the metal surface and acts like a shield, preventing oxygen and moisture from reaching the aluminium beneath. Unlike iron oxide (rust), which is flaky and falls off (exposing more metal), aluminium oxide is dense and adherent. This is why aluminium is used for drinks cans and aircraft despite being reactive. OCR B often sets this in a sustainability context around material choice and recycling.

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20.

Which of the following shows metals listed in order from MOST reactive to LEAST reactive?

  • A. Copper > Iron > Zinc > Magnesium > Potassium
  • B. Potassium > Sodium > Calcium > Magnesium > Aluminium
  • C. Potassium > Sodium > Magnesium > Calcium > Aluminium
  • D. Potassium > Sodium > Calcium > Aluminium > Zinc
1 mark · foundation

The reactivity series (most to least reactive) is: K > Na > Li > Ca > Mg > Al > C > Zn > Fe > H > Cu > Ag > Au. Option D correctly places K, Na, Ca, Al, Zn in the right order. Note: Ca comes before Mg is a common error — Ca is actually more reactive than Mg.

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21.

When potassium is added to cold water, which observation is correct?

  • A. No reaction occurs
  • B. It reacts slowly, producing hydrogen gas with no flame
  • C. It fizzes vigorously and the hydrogen produced ignites with a lilac flame
  • D. It dissolves quietly to form a neutral solution
1 mark · foundation

Potassium is so reactive that when added to water it fizzes extremely vigorously. The hydrogen gas produced ignites immediately and burns with a characteristic lilac (or violet/purple) flame. This is because potassium has a very strong tendency to lose its outer electron.

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22.

Copper is added to dilute hydrochloric acid. What is observed?

  • A. Vigorous fizzing and the copper dissolves rapidly
  • B. Slow fizzing and the copper gradually dissolves
  • C. No reaction occurs
  • D. A purple precipitate forms immediately
1 mark · foundation

Copper is below hydrogen in the reactivity series. This means copper cannot displace hydrogen from acids, so no reaction occurs between copper and dilute acids such as hydrochloric acid or sulfuric acid. Only metals above hydrogen in the reactivity series react with dilute acids.

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23.

Which metal can be extracted from its ore by heating with carbon?

  • A. Sodium
  • B. Potassium
  • C. Copper
  • D. Calcium
1 mark · foundation

Metals that are BELOW carbon in the reactivity series can be extracted by reduction with carbon (heating the ore with carbon or carbon monoxide). Copper is below carbon in the reactivity series, so it can be extracted this way. Sodium, calcium, and potassium are all ABOVE carbon in the reactivity series — they are too reactive to be extracted by carbon reduction and require electrolysis instead. The reactivity series order (most to least reactive): K > Na > Ca > Mg > Al > (C) > Zn > Fe > (H) > Cu.

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24.

A strip of zinc metal is placed into copper sulfate solution. Which observation is correct, and why?

  • A. No reaction occurs because zinc is below copper in the reactivity series
  • B. Copper deposits on the zinc because zinc is more reactive than copper and displaces it
  • C. Zinc dissolves and the solution turns colourless because copper is more reactive
  • D. Zinc and copper sulfate react to form zinc sulfate and copper oxide
1 mark · standard

Zinc is above copper in the reactivity series, so zinc is more reactive than copper. Zinc displaces copper from copper sulfate solution: Zn(s) + CuSO₄(aq) → ZnSO₄(aq) + Cu(s). A pink/orange copper deposit forms on the zinc, and the blue colour of the copper sulfate solution fades as copper ions are removed.

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25.

Iron is extracted from its ore using carbon (coke) in a blast furnace. Which statement correctly explains why this method works?

  • A. Iron is below carbon in the reactivity series, so carbon can displace iron from its ore
  • B. Carbon is below iron in the reactivity series, so it can reduce iron oxide
  • C. Carbon and iron have the same reactivity, so the reaction is reversible
  • D. Iron is above carbon in the reactivity series, so carbon reduces iron oxide
1 mark · standard

Carbon is above iron in the reactivity series. This means carbon is more reactive than iron and can displace (reduce) iron from its oxide ore. The reduction reaction is: Fe₂O₃ + 3C → 2Fe + 3CO₂ (simplified). Metals below carbon in the series can be extracted using carbon reduction; metals above carbon require electrolysis.

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26.

Aluminium cannot be extracted by reduction with carbon. What is the correct reason for this, and which method is used instead?

  • A. Aluminium is above carbon in the reactivity series; electrolysis is used
  • B. Aluminium is below carbon in the reactivity series; electrolysis is used
  • C. Aluminium is above carbon in the reactivity series; carbon reduction is used
  • D. Aluminium is below carbon in the reactivity series; carbon reduction is used
1 mark · standard

Aluminium is above carbon in the reactivity series, meaning aluminium is more reactive than carbon. A more reactive element cannot be displaced by a less reactive one, so carbon cannot reduce aluminium oxide. Instead, aluminium is extracted by electrolysis of molten aluminium oxide (bauxite). Metals above carbon (K, Na, Ca, Mg, Al) are all extracted by electrolysis.

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27.

The reactivity of a metal is related to its tendency to form positive ions. Which statement correctly explains why potassium is more reactive than iron?

  • A. Potassium atoms are smaller than iron atoms, so they hold onto their outer electrons more tightly
  • B. Potassium has a greater tendency to lose its outer electron and form a positive ion than iron does
  • C. Potassium forms ions with a higher charge than iron, making it more reactive
  • D. Iron has more electrons to lose, so it reacts more readily than potassium
1 mark · standard

Reactivity of metals is determined by how readily they lose electrons to form positive ions. Potassium has one outer electron that is far from the nucleus (in shell 4), shielded by many inner electrons, so it is very easily lost. Iron's outer electrons are held more tightly. A higher tendency to lose electrons = higher reactivity.

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28.

A piece of silver metal is placed into zinc sulfate solution. What would be observed, and why?

  • A. Zinc deposits on the silver because silver is more reactive than zinc
  • B. Silver dissolves and the solution turns grey because silver displaces zinc
  • C. A white precipitate forms as silver reacts with the sulfate ions
  • D. No reaction occurs because silver is below zinc in the reactivity series
1 mark · standard

In a displacement reaction, a more reactive metal displaces a less reactive metal from a solution of its salt. Silver is below zinc in the reactivity series (much less reactive than zinc). Silver cannot displace zinc from zinc sulfate solution, so no reaction occurs. Displacement only happens when the metal added is MORE reactive than the metal in solution.

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Topic Metal Extraction

5
1.

Bioleaching and phytomining are used as alternatives to traditional copper mining. Describe how each method works and give one advantage of these methods over traditional copper smelting.

4 marks · higher

In bioleaching, bacteria are used to leach copper compounds from low-grade ores, producing a copper sulfate solution. Copper is then extracted from this solution by displacement with iron. In phytomining, plants that absorb copper from the soil are grown on low-grade deposits, then harvested and burned. The copper compounds in the ash are processed to obtain copper. Both methods have a lower environmental impact than traditional mining and smelting, and allow extraction of copper from low-grade ores that would be uneconomical to smelt.

  • Bioleaching: bacteria leach / dissolve copper compounds from low-grade ore (into solution) (1m)
  • Bioleaching: copper obtained from solution by displacement (with iron / more reactive metal) (1m)
  • Phytomining: plants absorb / take up copper from soil; plants harvested and burned; ash contains copper compounds (1m)
  • Advantage: lower environmental impact / works on low-grade ores uneconomical for traditional smelting / less energy-intensive (1m)

Both bioleaching and phytomining exploit living organisms to extract copper from ores too low in metal content for traditional smelting. In bioleaching, bacteria (such as Acidithiobacillus thiooxidans) produce acids that dissolve copper compounds from the ore, forming copper sulfate solution. Scrap iron (more reactive than copper) then displaces copper from the solution. In phytomining, specially selected plants accumulate copper in their tissues; burning them produces an ash concentrated in copper compounds, which is further processed. The key advantage over traditional smelting is lower environmental impact and the ability to use low-grade ore deposits that would otherwise be uneconomical. However, both methods are slower than traditional smelting.

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2.

Iron is extracted from haematite in a blast furnace. Describe how iron is obtained from iron oxide using carbon, and explain the term 'reduction' in this context.

3 marks · standard

Iron oxide is reduced by carbon monoxide in the blast furnace. Carbon acts as the reducing agent and removes oxygen from the iron oxide. Reduction means the loss of oxygen — the iron oxide loses its oxygen to become iron.

  • Carbon (or carbon monoxide) reduces iron oxide in the blast furnace (or iron oxide reacts with carbon / carbon monoxide) (1m)
  • Carbon / carbon monoxide acts as the reducing agent (removes oxygen from iron oxide) (1m)
  • Reduction means the loss of oxygen (from iron oxide) (1m)

In the blast furnace, coke (carbon) burns to produce carbon monoxide. The carbon monoxide then reduces iron oxide (haematite, Fe₂O₃) by removing its oxygen, producing iron and carbon dioxide. The carbon/carbon monoxide is called the reducing agent because it causes the reduction by taking the oxygen. Reduction in this context means loss of oxygen — iron oxide loses oxygen to become iron. The word equation is: iron oxide + carbon monoxide → iron + carbon dioxide.

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3.

Aluminium is extracted from aluminium oxide by electrolysis. Describe what happens at the cathode and at the anode during this process.

3 marks · standard

At the cathode, aluminium ions (Al³⁺) gain electrons and are reduced to form aluminium metal. At the anode, oxide ions (O²⁻) lose electrons and are oxidised to form oxygen gas. The oxygen reacts with the carbon anode at high temperatures, causing the anode to burn away.

  • At the cathode: Al³⁺ ions gain electrons (are reduced) to form aluminium metal (1m)
  • At the anode: O²⁻ ions lose electrons (are oxidised) to form oxygen gas (1m)
  • The oxygen reacts with the carbon anode (anode burns / is oxidised / must be replaced) (1m)

Electrolysis uses electrical energy to break down the molten aluminium oxide. At the negative cathode, Al³⁺ ions (positive ions, cations) are attracted and gain three electrons each to become neutral aluminium atoms — this is reduction. At the positive anode, O²⁻ ions (negative ions, anions) lose electrons to form oxygen gas — this is oxidation. The oxygen produced at high temperatures reacts with the carbon anodes, gradually burning them away. This is why carbon anodes must be regularly replaced, adding to the cost of aluminium production.

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4.

Which method is used to extract a metal that is MORE reactive than carbon?

  • A. Heating with carbon in a furnace
  • B. Electrolysis of the molten compound
  • C. Displacement with a more reactive metal
  • D. It is found native and needs no extraction
1 mark · foundation

Metals more reactive than carbon (such as aluminium, sodium, and potassium) cannot be extracted using carbon because carbon is not reactive enough to take oxygen away from them. Electrolysis of the molten compound supplies enough electrical energy to break the strong ionic bonds and release the pure metal. Carbon reduction only works for metals BELOW carbon in the reactivity series (e.g. iron, zinc).

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5.

Why is cryolite used in the extraction of aluminium?

  • A. It is the ore from which aluminium is extracted
  • B. It acts as a reducing agent to remove oxygen from aluminium oxide
  • C. It lowers the melting point of aluminium oxide, reducing energy costs
  • D. It conducts electricity better than aluminium oxide
1 mark · foundation

Aluminium oxide (from bauxite ore) has a very high melting point of around 2050°C. Melting it directly would cost enormous amounts of energy. Cryolite is dissolved in the aluminium oxide to act as a solvent, lowering the melting point to around 970°C. This dramatically cuts energy costs, making the process more economical. Cryolite is not the ore (bauxite is), and it does not reduce aluminium oxide — that job is done by electrolysis.

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Displacement Reactions

22
1.

A student has a strip of magnesium metal and three solutions: copper sulfate, iron sulfate and zinc sulfate. She claims that by carrying out displacement experiments she can determine the order of reactivity of copper, iron, zinc and magnesium. Describe the experiments she should carry out, predict and explain the results for each experiment involving magnesium, and use the results to justify the reactivity order she would establish. Include ionic equations for the reactions that occur. [6 marks]

6 marks · higher

The student places magnesium in copper sulfate solution: the blue solution fades and orange/pink copper solid deposits on the magnesium. She places magnesium in iron(II) sulfate solution: the pale green solution fades and grey iron solid deposits. She places magnesium in zinc sulfate solution: the solution remains colourless but grey zinc deposits on the magnesium surface. In all three reactions, magnesium displaces the other metal because magnesium is more reactive. Magnesium is oxidised in each case: Mg(s) → Mg²⁺(aq) + 2e⁻. The metal ions are reduced. Ionic equations: - Mg(s) + Cu²⁺(aq) → Mg²⁺(aq) + Cu(s) - Mg(s) + Fe²⁺(aq) → Mg²⁺(aq) + Fe(s) - Mg(s) + Zn²⁺(aq) → Mg²⁺(aq) + Zn(s) From these experiments, magnesium is the most reactive. To determine the order of Cu, Fe and Zn, further displacement experiments between those metals would be needed. The full order is Mg > Zn > Fe > Cu.

  • Magnesium placed in copper sulfate solution — reaction occurs; blue solution fades to colourless and pink/orange solid (copper) deposits on the magnesium (1m)
  • Magnesium placed in iron sulfate solution — reaction occurs; green solution fades and grey solid (iron) deposits on the magnesium (1m)
  • Magnesium placed in zinc sulfate solution — reaction occurs; colourless solution remains, grey solid (zinc) deposits on the magnesium (1m)
  • Ionic equation for Mg + Cu²⁺: Mg(s) + Cu²⁺(aq) → Mg²⁺(aq) + Cu(s); OR for Mg + Fe²⁺: Mg(s) + Fe²⁺(aq) → Mg²⁺(aq) + Fe(s); OR for Mg + Zn²⁺: Mg(s) + Zn²⁺(aq) → Mg²⁺(aq) + Zn(s) — 1 mark for any correct ionic equation (1m)
  • In all three reactions magnesium is oxidised (Mg → Mg²⁺ + 2e⁻) because it donates electrons to the metal ions, showing magnesium is more reactive than copper, iron and zinc (1m)
  • The reactivity order from these results alone places magnesium above copper, iron and zinc. Additional reactions between the other metals and their salts would be needed to order Cu, Fe and Zn relative to each other; from the standard series: Mg > Zn > Fe > Cu (1m)

Magnesium sits above copper, iron, and zinc in the reactivity series, so it displaces all three. For each experiment: magnesium goes into the salt solution, the metal ion is reduced and the metal deposits on the magnesium, while Mg is oxidised to Mg²⁺. Ionic equations follow the same pattern: Mg(s) + M²⁺(aq) → Mg²⁺(aq) + M(s). However, these three experiments only confirm Mg > Cu, Mg > Fe, Mg > Zn. To order Cu, Fe, and Zn relative to each other requires additional experiments. Full marks require: (1)-(3) observations for each experiment; (4) ionic equation; (5) oxidation explanation; (6) reactivity order discussion. Aim for 150-250 words with one idea per sentence.

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2.

Use the reactivity series to predict and explain the results of the following displacement reactions: (i) Iron added to copper sulfate solution (ii) Copper added to zinc sulfate solution (iii) Zinc added to iron sulfate solution For each reaction, state whether a reaction occurs, give the ionic equation if it does, and identify which species is oxidised and which is reduced. [5 marks]

5 marks · challenge

(i) Iron is more reactive than copper, so iron displaces copper from copper sulfate solution. A red-brown solid (copper) deposits on the iron and the blue colour fades. Ionic equation: Fe(s) + Cu²⁺(aq) → Fe²⁺(aq) + Cu(s). Iron is oxidised (loses electrons, Fe → Fe²⁺); copper ions are reduced (gain electrons, Cu²⁺ → Cu). (ii) Copper is less reactive than zinc, so copper does NOT displace zinc from zinc sulfate solution. No reaction occurs; the solution remains colourless and no solid forms. (iii) Zinc is more reactive than iron, so zinc displaces iron from iron sulfate solution. A grey solid (iron) deposits on the zinc and the green colour fades. Ionic equation: Zn(s) + Fe²⁺(aq) → Zn²⁺(aq) + Fe(s). Zinc is oxidised; iron ions are reduced.

  • (i) Iron displaces copper: reaction occurs; red-brown solid copper deposits; correct ionic equation Fe(s) + Cu²⁺(aq) → Fe²⁺(aq) + Cu(s) (1m)
  • (ii) No reaction: copper is LESS reactive than zinc and does not displace zinc from solution (1m)
  • (iii) Zinc displaces iron: reaction occurs; correct ionic equation Zn(s) + Fe²⁺(aq) → Zn²⁺(aq) + Fe(s) (1m)
  • Identifies oxidation correctly in any reaction: the more reactive metal loses electrons and is oxidised (e.g. Fe → Fe²⁺ + 2e⁻) (1m)
  • Identifies reduction correctly in any reaction: the metal ion gains electrons and is reduced (e.g. Cu²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Cu) (1m)

This question requires applying the reactivity series to three specific cases and using redox terminology for each. The reactivity order is: zinc > iron > copper (potassium, sodium, calcium, magnesium, aluminium, zinc, iron, lead, copper, silver, gold). A more reactive metal will always displace a less reactive metal from its salt solution. For (i): iron is above copper, so displacement occurs. The ionic equation is Fe(s) + Cu²⁺(aq) → Fe²⁺(aq) + Cu(s). Observations: blue colour of copper sulfate fades to colourless; red-brown copper solid deposits on the iron. For (ii): copper is BELOW zinc, so no reaction occurs. This is the key discriminator — students often assume all combinations react. For (iii): zinc is above iron, so displacement occurs. Zn(s) + Fe²⁺(aq) → Zn²⁺(aq) + Fe(s); green iron sulfate fades to colourless. For redox: OIL RIG (Oxidation Is Loss, Reduction Is Gain of electrons). The solid metal entering the solution loses electrons and is oxidised; the metal ion gaining electrons to become solid is reduced. The metal entering is always the reducing agent; the dissolved ion is always the oxidising agent.

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3.

Iron nails are placed in copper sulfate solution. Write half equations for the oxidation and reduction processes that occur. Use these to explain the overall electron transfer in this displacement reaction. [4 marks]

4 marks · higher

Iron is oxidised: Fe(s) → Fe²⁺(aq) + 2e⁻. Copper ions are reduced: Cu²⁺(aq) + 2e⁻ → Cu(s). The iron atoms lose two electrons which are transferred to copper ions. This electron transfer is the basis of all displacement reactions — the more reactive metal (iron in this case) acts as a reducing agent, donating electrons to the less reactive metal ions (Cu²⁺), reducing them to metal atoms.

  • Correct oxidation half equation: Fe → Fe²⁺ + 2e⁻ (accept with state symbols) (1m)
  • Correct reduction half equation: Cu²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Cu (accept with state symbols) (1m)
  • Electrons from iron are transferred to copper ions / iron donates electrons to Cu²⁺ (1m)
  • Iron is the more reactive metal / reducing agent / donates electrons; Cu²⁺ is the oxidising agent / accepts electrons (1m)

In this redox reaction: Fe → Fe²⁺ + 2e⁻ (oxidation — iron loses electrons) and Cu²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Cu (reduction — copper ions gain electrons). Electrons flow from iron to copper ions. Iron is the reducing agent (donates electrons); Cu²⁺ is the oxidising agent (accepts electrons). For full marks: (1) Fe oxidation half equation; (2) Cu²⁺ reduction half equation; (3) electron transfer from iron to copper ions; (4) identify iron as reducing agent / copper ion as oxidising agent. Common error: saying electrons move from copper to iron — they move from more reactive to less reactive.

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4.

A student has four unknown metals: W, X, Y and Z. She carries out systematic displacement experiments and records whether a reaction occurs. Describe how she should carry out the experiments and how she would use the results to place the metals in order of reactivity. [4 marks]

4 marks · higher

The student should add each metal in turn to solutions of the other three metals' salts and record whether a reaction occurs (e.g. colour change, temperature increase, solid forming on the metal). If metal W displaces metal Y from Y's salt solution, then W is more reactive than Y. By comparing all the results systematically, she can determine all the reactivity relationships. The metal that displaces all others is the most reactive. The metal that displaces none is the least reactive. The full order is determined by counting how many metals each one can displace.

  • Each metal added to solutions of the other metals' salts (systematic approach described) (1m)
  • Record whether displacement occurs — accept: colour change, temperature change, solid forming as evidence of reaction (1m)
  • If displacement occurs, the added metal is more reactive than the metal in the salt (1m)
  • Comparing all results, rank metals: most reactive displaces all, least reactive displaces none (1m)

A systematic displacement study involves adding each metal to all the other metals' salt solutions and recording whether reaction occurs (colour change, solid formation, temperature change). If metal W displaces Y, then W is more reactive than Y. The metal that can displace all others is most reactive; the one that displaces none is least reactive. For full marks: (1) method — metal to salt solutions; (2) observation indicating reaction; (3) interpreting a result; (4) building the full ranked order. Common error: only describing what to do without explaining how to interpret results.

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5.

Copper is placed in silver nitrate solution. Describe the observations and write the ionic equation for the reaction, including state symbols. Explain the changes in terms of electron transfer. [4 marks]

4 marks · higher

Observations: The blue copper metal surface becomes coated with a silvery-grey solid (silver metal) and the colourless silver nitrate solution gradually becomes blue as Cu²⁺ ions form. Ionic equation: Cu(s) + 2Ag⁺(aq) → Cu²⁺(aq) + 2Ag(s). Copper atoms are oxidised, each losing two electrons: Cu → Cu²⁺ + 2e⁻. Two silver ions each gain one electron and are reduced: 2Ag⁺ + 2e⁻ → 2Ag. The electrons are transferred from copper atoms to silver ions.

  • Grey/silver solid forms on copper; solution turns blue (two valid observations for 1 mark) (1m)
  • Correct ionic equation: Cu(s) + 2Ag⁺(aq) → Cu²⁺(aq) + 2Ag(s) with state symbols (1m)
  • Copper is oxidised — loses 2 electrons / Cu → Cu²⁺ + 2e⁻ (1m)
  • Silver ions are reduced — each gains 1 electron / Ag⁺ + e⁻ → Ag (1m)

Copper is more reactive than silver, so copper displaces silver from silver nitrate solution. Observations: a silver-grey solid (silver metal) coats the copper surface, and the solution turns blue as Cu²⁺ ions form. Ionic equation: Cu(s) + 2Ag⁺(aq) → Cu²⁺(aq) + 2Ag(s). Note the 2:1 ratio — copper loses 2 electrons while each Ag⁺ gains only 1 electron. For full marks: (1) observations; (2) ionic equation with state symbols; (3) copper oxidised; (4) silver ions reduced. Common error: getting the equation ratio wrong — Cu loses 2e⁻, so 2Ag⁺ ions are needed.

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6.

A student adds gold to copper sulfate solution. Predict and explain what would happen. Then explain what this tells us about the relative reactivity of gold and copper. [4 marks]

4 marks · higher

No reaction would occur when gold is added to copper sulfate solution. This is because gold is less reactive than copper and therefore cannot displace copper from its salt solution. For displacement to occur, the added metal must be more reactive than the metal in the compound. Since gold is below copper in the reactivity series, gold cannot give electrons to Cu²⁺ ions. This confirms that copper is more reactive than gold.

  • Prediction: no reaction occurs (1m)
  • Gold is less reactive than copper / gold is below copper in the reactivity series (1m)
  • A more reactive metal is required to displace a less reactive metal (general principle stated) (1m)
  • This shows copper is more reactive than gold / copper is above gold in the reactivity series (1m)

Gold is one of the least reactive metals and sits below copper in the reactivity series. For displacement to occur, the added metal must be more reactive than the one in the compound — gold cannot meet this condition with copper. No colour change and no solid forming would be observed. For full marks: (1) no reaction prediction; (2) gold is less reactive than copper; (3) general principle — more reactive displaces less reactive; (4) therefore copper is more reactive than gold. Common error: confusing the direction of reactivity — gold is LESS reactive than copper, not more.

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7.

Three unknown metals — Metal W, Metal X, and Metal Y — need to be placed in order of reactivity. You have access to salt solutions of all three metals: W sulfate, X sulfate, and Y sulfate. Design an experiment to determine the order of reactivity of W, X, and Y using displacement reactions. Include: the experiments to carry out, the observations that would indicate a reaction, and how you would use the results to determine the order. [4 marks]

4 marks · challenge

I would carry out six experiments, placing each metal into each of the other two salt solutions in turn: W into X sulfate, W into Y sulfate, X into W sulfate, X into Y sulfate, Y into W sulfate, and Y into X sulfate. An observation indicating a reaction has occurred is: a solid depositing on the surface of the metal, and/or a change in colour of the solution, and/or the metal dissolving. No change would indicate no reaction. If metal W displaces both X and Y from their salt solutions, W is the most reactive. The results of all six experiments allow the three metals to be ranked: if W > X > Y, then W displaces X and Y, X displaces Y, and Y displaces neither W nor X. A fair test requires the same volume and concentration of salt solution, the same surface area of metal, and the same temperature.

  • Describes testing each metal in each other metal's salt solution — at least three experiments described (W in X sulfate, W in Y sulfate, X in Y sulfate or equivalent) (1m)
  • States correct observation indicating a reaction: solid metal deposits on the surface of the added metal AND/OR colour change of the solution (1m)
  • Explains how a reaction is interpreted: if displacement occurs, the added metal is more reactive than the metal in solution (1m)
  • Uses the pattern of reactions and non-reactions to determine the full reactivity order (1m)

This experimental design question tests whether students can apply their knowledge of displacement reactions to an unfamiliar scenario. To determine the order of reactivity of three unknown metals, you must test each metal in the salt solutions of the other two — giving a minimum of three experiments (W in X sulfate, W in Y sulfate, X in Y sulfate), though doing all six (including the 'reverse' tests) is best practice. In each test, the observation that confirms a displacement reaction has occurred is: (a) a solid deposits on the surface of the added metal (the displaced metal precipitates out), and/or (b) the solution changes colour (the original metal ion leaves solution and a new ion enters). No visible change means no reaction — the added metal is less reactive than the one in solution. Interpreting the results: a metal that displaces both others is most reactive; a metal that displaces one but not the other is intermediate; a metal that displaces neither is least reactive. Full marks require the displacement logic to be explained clearly: reaction means the added metal is more reactive, no reaction means it is less reactive, and the whole pattern gives the order. Common mistakes: describing the setup without explaining how the results determine the order, or treating the question as a fair-test prompt instead of a displacement-logic prompt.

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8.

In the reaction between zinc and copper sulfate solution, explain which species is oxidised and which is reduced. Include half equations in your answer. [3 marks]

3 marks · standard

Zinc is oxidised because it loses two electrons to form Zn²⁺ ions: Zn → Zn²⁺ + 2e⁻. Copper(II) ions are reduced because they gain two electrons to form copper atoms: Cu²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Cu. The electrons are transferred from zinc atoms to copper(II) ions.

  • Zinc is oxidised — loses electrons / Zn → Zn²⁺ + 2e⁻ (1m)
  • Cu²⁺ ions are reduced — gain electrons / Cu²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Cu (1m)
  • Electrons are transferred from zinc to Cu²⁺ ions (accept: sulfate is a spectator ion / unchanged) (1m)

Use OILRIG — Oxidation Is Loss, Reduction Is Gain of electrons. Zinc atoms lose 2 electrons (oxidised): Zn → Zn²⁺ + 2e⁻. Copper(II) ions gain 2 electrons (reduced): Cu²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Cu. The key transfer is from zinc atoms to copper(II) ions; sulfate ions are spectators and may be mentioned as unchanged. For full marks cover oxidation, reduction, and the electron transfer direction. Common error: saying 'zinc gains electrons' or 'copper is oxidised' — always check electron direction with OILRIG.

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9.

Explain how competition reactions using displacement can be used to determine the order of metals in the reactivity series. [3 marks]

3 marks · standard

A metal is added to solutions of different metal salts. If a reaction occurs (e.g. colour change, solid forms), the added metal is more reactive than the metal in the salt and has displaced it. By testing multiple metals against each other's salt solutions and recording which reactions occur, the order of reactivity can be established from most reactive to least reactive.

  • Metal added to salt solutions of other metals / competition reaction described (1m)
  • If displacement occurs, the added metal is more reactive (e.g. colour change / solid forms = reaction happened) (1m)
  • Comparing results across multiple metals builds up the reactivity order (1m)

To rank metals by reactivity, add each metal to solutions of other metals' salts and observe whether displacement occurs. A reaction (colour change, solid forming) shows the added metal is more reactive. Systematically comparing all pairs builds the full reactivity order. For full marks: (1) describe the experimental setup; (2) explain how to interpret a positive result; (3) explain how comparing results gives the full order. Common error: saying 'more reactive means it reacts faster' — it's about whether displacement happens at all, not the speed.

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10.

Write the ionic equation for the reaction between zinc and copper sulfate solution, including state symbols. Explain the role of each species. [3 marks]

3 marks · standard

Ionic equation: Zn(s) + Cu²⁺(aq) → Zn²⁺(aq) + Cu(s). Zinc is solid and dissolves to form aqueous zinc ions. Copper ions in solution are converted to solid copper metal. Sulfate ions are spectators and are not shown in the ionic equation.

  • Correct ionic equation: Zn(s) + Cu²⁺(aq) → Zn²⁺(aq) + Cu(s) with correct state symbols (1m)
  • Zinc loses electrons / is oxidised to form Zn²⁺(aq) (1m)
  • Cu²⁺ gains electrons / is reduced to Cu(s) / sulfate is spectator ion excluded from equation (1m)

The ionic equation shows only species that change: Zn(s) + Cu²⁺(aq) → Zn²⁺(aq) + Cu(s). State symbols are essential: zinc starts as a solid, copper ions are aqueous, zinc ions form in solution, and copper deposits as a solid. Sulfate is excluded because it is a spectator ion. For full marks: (1) correct ionic equation with state symbols; (2) zinc is oxidised; (3) copper ions are reduced / sulfate is a spectator. Common error: including sulfate in the ionic equation.

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11.

Explain why the thermite reaction is a displacement reaction, and state one use of the thermite reaction. Include a balanced equation. [3 marks]

3 marks · standard

The thermite reaction is a displacement reaction because aluminium is more reactive than iron and displaces it from iron(III) oxide. The balanced equation is: 2Al(s) + Fe₂O₃(s) → Al₂O₃(s) + 2Fe(l). One use of the thermite reaction is welding railway tracks together because it produces molten iron at very high temperatures.

  • Aluminium is more reactive than iron and displaces it from iron(III) oxide (displacement reaction explained) (1m)
  • Balanced equation: 2Al + Fe₂O₃ → Al₂O₃ + 2Fe (accept with or without state symbols for this mark) (1m)
  • Use: welding railway tracks / thermite welding (accept: joining metals, welding) (1m)

The thermite reaction (2Al + Fe₂O₃ → Al₂O₃ + 2Fe) is a displacement reaction because aluminium is more reactive than iron and takes its place in the compound. The reaction is highly exothermic, producing molten iron at temperatures around 2500°C, which is why it is used to weld railway tracks. For full marks: (1) explain aluminium displaces iron because it is more reactive; (2) balanced equation; (3) industrial use (railway welding). Common error: writing the equation without balancing the aluminium (needs coefficient 2).

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12.

Define a displacement reaction. [2 marks]

2 marks · foundation

A displacement reaction is when a more reactive metal pushes out (displaces) a less reactive metal from its compound or salt solution.

  • A more reactive metal displaces / pushes out a less reactive metal (1m)
  • From its compound / salt solution (1m)

A displacement reaction occurs when a more reactive metal takes the place of a less reactive metal in a compound or salt solution. The key condition is that the incoming metal must be higher in the reactivity series than the one being displaced. For full marks: (1) a more reactive metal displaces a less reactive metal; (2) from its compound or salt solution. Common error: omitting either the reactivity condition or the compound/salt context.

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13.

A student adds a piece of zinc to copper sulfate solution. Describe two observations the student would make. [2 marks]

2 marks · foundation

The blue copper sulfate solution fades / becomes colourless / paler as zinc displaces copper. A brown or orange solid (copper metal) forms on the surface of the zinc.

  • Blue solution fades / becomes paler / colourless (accept: colour change from blue) (1m)
  • Brown or orange solid forms on the zinc (accept: copper metal deposits, solid appears) (1m)

When zinc displaces copper from copper sulfate solution, two visible changes occur: the blue Cu²⁺ ions are removed from solution (colour fades) and solid copper metal deposits on the zinc surface (brown/orange solid). For full marks: (1) blue solution fades or becomes colourless; (2) brown or orange solid (copper) forms on the zinc. Common error: describing the solid as 'zinc' or giving the wrong colour — copper is brown/orange, not grey.

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14.

State the reactants and products of the thermite reaction. [2 marks]

2 marks · foundation

The reactants of the thermite reaction are aluminium and iron oxide (iron(III) oxide). The products are aluminium oxide and iron.

  • Reactants: aluminium and iron oxide / Fe₂O₃ (accept iron(III) oxide) (1m)
  • Products: aluminium oxide and iron (both required for this mark) (1m)

The thermite reaction: 2Al + Fe₂O₃ → Al₂O₃ + 2Fe. Aluminium (more reactive) displaces iron from iron(III) oxide. The equation is highly exothermic and used industrially for welding railway tracks. For full marks: (1) reactants — aluminium and iron(III) oxide; (2) products — aluminium oxide and iron. Common error: getting reactants and products mixed up, or omitting one of the two products.

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15.

Which statement correctly describes a displacement reaction?

  • A. A less reactive metal replaces a more reactive metal from its salt solution
  • B. A more reactive metal replaces a less reactive metal from its salt solution
  • C. Two metals both dissolve when placed in the same acid
  • D. A metal oxide breaks down when heated strongly
1 mark · foundation

In a displacement reaction, a more reactive metal pushes out (displaces) a less reactive metal from its compound. Reactivity drives the reaction — the more reactive metal is a stronger reducing agent.

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16.

Zinc is added to copper sulfate solution. Which observation would you make?

  • A. No reaction occurs and the solution stays blue
  • B. The blue solution fades and a brown/orange solid forms on the zinc
  • C. The zinc dissolves and the solution turns green
  • D. A gas is produced and the solution turns colourless
1 mark · foundation

Zinc is more reactive than copper, so zinc displaces copper from copper sulfate solution. The blue Cu²⁺ ions are removed (solution fades) and copper metal deposits on the zinc as a brown/orange solid. Zn + CuSO₄(aq) → ZnSO₄(aq) + Cu(s).

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17.

Copper is added to zinc sulfate solution. What happens?

  • A. Copper displaces zinc and a grey solid forms
  • B. The solution turns blue as copper ions form
  • C. No reaction occurs
  • D. Zinc gas is released
1 mark · foundation

Copper is less reactive than zinc, so copper cannot displace zinc from zinc sulfate solution. No reaction occurs. Only a more reactive metal can displace a less reactive metal.

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18.

In the displacement reaction Zn + CuSO₄ → ZnSO₄ + Cu, which species is oxidised?

  • A. Cu²⁺ ions
  • B. SO₄²⁻ ions
  • C. Zn atoms
  • D. ZnSO₄
1 mark · standard

Zinc atoms (Zn) are oxidised because they lose electrons: Zn → Zn²⁺ + 2e⁻. OIL RIG — Oxidation Is Loss of electrons. Cu²⁺ ions are reduced (they gain electrons). Sulfate is a spectator ion and is unchanged.

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19.

The thermite reaction is: 2Al + Fe₂O₃ → Al₂O₃ + 2Fe. Which statement about this reaction is correct?

  • A. Iron is more reactive than aluminium, so it displaces aluminium
  • B. No electron transfer occurs because no electrolyte is present
  • C. This is a decomposition reaction because a compound breaks apart
  • D. Aluminium displaces iron because aluminium is more reactive
1 mark · standard

Aluminium is higher in the reactivity series than iron, so aluminium displaces iron from iron(III) oxide. Al is oxidised (Al → Al³⁺ + 3e⁻) and Fe³⁺ is reduced (Fe³⁺ + 3e⁻ → Fe). The thermite reaction is highly exothermic and used in welding rail tracks.

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20.

Which is the correct ionic equation for the displacement of copper from copper sulfate solution by zinc?

  • A. Zn(s) + Cu²⁺(aq) → Zn²⁺(aq) + Cu(s)
  • B. Zn²⁺(aq) + Cu(s) → Zn(s) + Cu²⁺(aq)
  • C. Zn(s) + CuSO₄(aq) → ZnSO₄(aq) + Cu(s)
  • D. Zn(s) + SO₄²⁻(aq) → ZnSO₄(aq) + 2e⁻
1 mark · standard

The ionic equation removes spectator ions (SO₄²⁻ is unchanged). Zn(s) loses 2 electrons (oxidised) and Cu²⁺(aq) gains 2 electrons (reduced). State symbols are essential: Zn is solid, Cu²⁺ is in aqueous solution, Cu is solid, Zn²⁺ is aqueous.

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21.

A student adds metals X, Y and Z in turn to solutions of each metal's salt. The results are: X displaces Y and Z; Y displaces Z but not X; Z displaces neither X nor Y. What is the correct reactivity order from most reactive to least reactive?

  • A. Z > Y > X
  • B. Y > X > Z
  • C. X > Z > Y
  • D. X > Y > Z
1 mark · standard

X displaces both Y and Z — so X is the most reactive. Y displaces Z but not X — so Y is in the middle. Z displaces neither — so Z is the least reactive. Order: X > Y > Z. This method of systematic competition reactions is how the reactivity series was established experimentally.

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22.

In the displacement reaction between magnesium and iron(II) sulfate solution, which pair of half equations is correct?

  • A. Mg → Mg²⁺ + 2e⁻ and Fe²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Fe
  • B. Mg²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Mg and Fe → Fe²⁺ + 2e⁻
  • C. Mg → Mg²⁺ + 2e⁻ and Fe²⁺ → Fe + 2e⁻
  • D. Mg + 2e⁻ → Mg²⁺ and Fe²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Fe
1 mark · standard

Magnesium is oxidised (loses 2 electrons): Mg → Mg²⁺ + 2e⁻. Iron(II) ions are reduced (gain 2 electrons): Fe²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Fe. The electrons lost by Mg are the same electrons gained by Fe²⁺, so the equation balances. This is a simultaneous redox reaction.

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Exothermic Reactions

20
1.

A student investigates the combustion of ethanol (C₂H₅OH). Explain what is meant by an exothermic reaction, describe the energy changes during combustion in terms of bond breaking and bond making, and explain how an energy profile diagram represents these changes including the role of a catalyst. Your answer should also include reference to an everyday application of an exothermic reaction.

6 marks · challenge

An exothermic reaction is one in which energy is released to the surroundings, causing the temperature of the surroundings to rise. The overall enthalpy change (ΔH) is negative for an exothermic reaction. During combustion of ethanol, bonds in the ethanol and oxygen molecules must first be broken. Bond breaking is endothermic - it requires energy input to overcome the forces holding atoms together. New bonds then form in the products (carbon dioxide and water). Bond making is exothermic - it releases energy. Because more energy is released making new bonds in CO2 and H2O than is required to break bonds in ethanol and O2, the overall reaction is exothermic and energy is released to the surroundings. On an energy profile diagram for exothermic combustion, the reactants are drawn at a higher energy level than the products. The curve rises to a peak above the reactant level - this peak represents the activation energy, the minimum energy that particles must have to react. After the peak, the curve falls to the product energy level. The difference in height between reactants and products represents the energy released (ΔH, which is negative). Adding a catalyst provides an alternative reaction pathway with a lower activation energy, shown as a lower peak on the diagram. The overall energy released is unchanged because the catalyst does not affect the reactant or product energy levels. An everyday application is hand warmers, which use the slow exothermic oxidation of iron powder. Energy released by this reaction warms the surrounding air and the user's hand.

  • Definition: exothermic reaction releases energy to surroundings / temperature of surroundings rises / negative ΔH (1m)
  • Bond breaking requires energy (endothermic) / energy is put in to break bonds in reactants (1m)
  • Bond making releases energy (exothermic) / more energy released making bonds than absorbed breaking bonds, so overall reaction is exothermic (1m)
  • Energy profile: reactants at higher energy than products / negative ΔH shown as the drop from reactant to product level / activation energy shown as the peak above reactant level (1m)
  • Catalyst lowers activation energy / provides alternative lower-energy pathway / does not change overall ΔH / the peak on the profile is lower with a catalyst (1m)
  • Valid everyday application described correctly (e.g., hand warmers use exothermic iron oxidation / combustion of fuels releases heat energy / neutralisation warms solution) (1m)

An exothermic reaction releases energy to the surroundings (negative ΔH), raising the temperature. During combustion of ethanol, bonds in the reactants (ethanol and O₂) must first be broken — bond breaking is endothermic (requires energy). New bonds then form in the products (CO₂ and H₂O) — bond making is exothermic (releases energy). Because more energy is released in bond making than is absorbed in bond breaking, the overall reaction is exothermic. On an energy profile diagram, reactants are at a higher energy level than products; the peak above the reactants represents the activation energy. A catalyst lowers this peak by providing an alternative pathway with lower activation energy, but does not change the energy levels of reactants or products, so ΔH is unchanged. Everyday applications include hand warmers (iron oxidation) and combustion of fuels.

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2.

Explain, at the ionic level, why neutralisation reactions are exothermic. Include reference to bond making and the energy change observed.

4 marks · higher

In neutralisation, hydrogen ions (H+) from the acid combine with hydroxide ions (OH-) from the alkali to form water molecules. This involves bond making: new O-H bonds form in the water molecule. Bond making releases energy. More energy is released forming new O-H bonds than is absorbed breaking the H-OH bond in water. The energy released to the surroundings causes the temperature of the solution to rise. For all neutralisation reactions, the ionic equation is H+(aq) + OH-(aq) → H₂O(l), and the same amount of energy is always released per mole of water formed.

  • H+(aq) ions and OH-(aq) ions combine to form water / the ionic equation H+ + OH- → H2O (1m)
  • Bond making / new bonds form in water / O-H bonds form, releasing energy (1m)
  • Energy is released to the surroundings, causing temperature of the solution to rise (1m)
  • The same amount of energy is released per mole of water formed for all strong acid-alkali neutralisations / the ionic equation is always the same (1m)

In neutralisation, H+ ions from the acid and OH- ions from the alkali combine to form water: H+(aq) + OH-(aq) → H₂O(l). This process involves bond making — new O-H bonds form in the water molecule. Bond making always releases energy to the surroundings, causing the temperature of the solution to rise, which is why neutralisation is exothermic. Because the same ionic equation applies to all strong acid-alkali neutralisations, the same quantity of energy is released per mole of water formed regardless of which acid and alkali are used.

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3.

A student adds 0.5 g of sodium hydroxide pellets to 25 cm³ of water in a polystyrene cup. The temperature rises from 20.0°C to 28.4°C. Explain how this data shows the reaction is exothermic and describe how you would use it to calculate the energy transferred. (Specific heat capacity of water = 4.2 J/g/°C)

4 marks · higher

The temperature of the water rises from 20.0°C to 28.4°C, a change of 8.4°C. A temperature rise in the surroundings indicates that energy has been transferred to the surroundings from the reaction - this is the definition of an exothermic reaction. To calculate the energy transferred, use the formula Q = mcΔT, where m is the mass of water (25 g), c is the specific heat capacity (4.2 J/g/°C), and ΔT is the temperature change (8.4°C). Q = 25 × 4.2 × 8.4 = 882 J. This value is positive because energy is released by the exothermic dissolving process.

  • Temperature rises by 8.4°C, which indicates energy is transferred to the surroundings, confirming the reaction is exothermic (1m)
  • States the formula Q = mcΔT (accept: energy = mass × specific heat capacity × temperature change) (1m)
  • Correct substitution: Q = 25 × 4.2 × 8.4 (accept mass of solution as 25 g) (1m)
  • Correct answer: Q = 882 J (accept 880 J if rounded differently) (1m)

The temperature rises from 20.0°C to 28.4°C, a change of +8.4°C. A temperature increase shows energy has been transferred from the reaction to the surroundings, which is the definition of an exothermic process. To calculate the energy transferred, use Q = mcΔT: mass of water = 25 g (since 25 cm³ of water has density 1 g/cm³), c = 4.2 J/g/°C, ΔT = 8.4°C. So Q = 25 × 4.2 × 8.4 = 882 J. A common mistake is forgetting to calculate ΔT first or using the wrong mass.

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4.

Explain how a hand warmer works, referring to energy transfer and the type of reaction involved.

3 marks · standard

A hand warmer works because it contains iron powder that undergoes slow oxidation when it is exposed to air. This oxidation reaction is exothermic, meaning energy is released to the surroundings. The energy released raises the temperature of the surroundings, including your hand, making it feel warm.

  • The reaction is exothermic (accept: an exothermic reaction takes place) (1m)
  • Energy is released to the surroundings (accept: heat is given out to surroundings) (1m)
  • The temperature of the surroundings / hand increases (accept: the surroundings get warmer) (1m)

A hand warmer works because it contains iron powder. When air (oxygen) is allowed in, the iron undergoes slow oxidation: 4Fe + 3O₂ → 2Fe₂O₃. This oxidation reaction is exothermic — it releases energy to the surroundings. The energy transferred raises the temperature of everything in contact with the hand warmer, including your hand. The three key points to include in an answer are: the type of reaction (exothermic), the direction of energy transfer (released to surroundings), and the observable effect (temperature of surroundings increases). A common error is saying it works because of an endothermic reaction — this is wrong; endothermic reactions absorb energy and cause cooling.

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5.

Describe the key features of an energy profile diagram for an exothermic reaction.

3 marks · standard

An energy profile diagram for an exothermic reaction shows the reactants at a higher energy level than the products. There is a peak in the curve representing the transition state, and the height of this peak above the reactant energy level shows the activation energy. The overall energy released (ΔH) is shown as the difference in energy between the reactants and the products, and this value is negative for an exothermic reaction.

  • Reactants shown at higher energy level than products (accept: products have lower energy than reactants) (1m)
  • A peak/hump above the reactant energy level representing the activation energy (1m)
  • The energy difference between reactants and products represents the energy released / ΔH is negative (1m)

An energy profile diagram (also called a reaction profile or energy level diagram) shows how the potential energy changes as reactants are converted to products. For an exothermic reaction, three features must be shown and described: (1) Reactants start at a higher energy level than the products — the products are drawn lower on the energy axis. (2) There is a curved peak between the reactants and products representing the transition state; the height of the peak above the reactant energy level is the activation energy. (3) The difference in energy between the reactant level and the product level represents the energy released to the surroundings (ΔH), and this is a negative value for exothermic reactions because energy is lost from the reaction system.

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6.

Explain, using the concept of activation energy, how a catalyst increases the rate of an exothermic reaction.

3 marks · higher

A catalyst provides an alternative reaction pathway that has a lower activation energy. This means that more reactant particles have enough energy to react successfully at a given temperature. As a result, a greater proportion of collisions lead to successful reactions, increasing the rate. The overall energy change of the reaction (ΔH) is not affected by the catalyst - the reactant and product energy levels remain the same.

  • Catalyst provides an alternative reaction pathway / lowers the activation energy (1m)
  • More particles have (enough) energy to react / more collisions are successful / greater proportion of particles exceed the activation energy (1m)
  • Overall energy change (ΔH) is not affected / product and reactant energy levels remain the same (1m)

A catalyst increases the rate of a reaction by providing an alternative reaction pathway — one with a lower activation energy. On an energy profile diagram, the catalysed reaction shows a lower peak than the uncatalysed reaction. Because the activation energy is lower, a greater proportion of the reactant particles have enough kinetic energy to overcome the energy barrier and react successfully. This increases the frequency of successful collisions per unit time, hence the rate increases. Importantly, a catalyst does not change the energy levels of the reactants or the products, so the overall enthalpy change (ΔH) is unaffected. Also, a catalyst is not consumed in the reaction — it is regenerated and can be used repeatedly.

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7.

The combustion of methane is: CH₄(g) + 2O₂(g) → CO₂(g) + 2H₂O(g). Using the bond energies C-H = 413 kJ/mol, O=O = 498 kJ/mol, C=O = 805 kJ/mol and O-H = 463 kJ/mol, calculate the overall energy change for this reaction and state whether it is exothermic or endothermic.

3 marks · higher

Energy to break bonds: 4(C-H) + 2(O=O) = 4 × 413 + 2 × 498 = 1652 + 996 = 2648 kJ/mol. Energy released forming bonds: 2(C=O) + 4(O-H) = 2 × 805 + 4 × 463 = 1610 + 1852 = 3462 kJ/mol. Overall energy change = 2648 − 3462 = −814 kJ/mol. The reaction is exothermic because the overall energy change is negative.

  • Correctly calculates energy to break bonds: 4 × 413 + 2 × 498 = 2648 kJ/mol (1m)
  • Correctly calculates energy released forming bonds: 2 × 805 + 4 × 463 = 3462 kJ/mol (1m)
  • Overall energy change = 2648 − 3462 = −814 kJ/mol, identifies reaction as exothermic (negative value) (1m)

Bond energy calculations follow a 3-step process. Step 1: identify and count all bonds broken in the reactants. CH₄ has 4 C-H bonds and each O₂ has one O=O double bond — 2O₂ gives 2 O=O bonds. Energy to break = (4 × 413) + (2 × 498) = 1652 + 996 = 2648 kJ/mol. Step 2: identify and count all bonds formed in the products. CO₂ has 2 C=O double bonds and each H₂O has 2 O-H bonds — 2H₂O gives 4 O-H bonds. Energy released = (2 × 805) + (4 × 463) = 1610 + 1852 = 3462 kJ/mol. Step 3: overall ΔH = energy in − energy out = 2648 − 3462 = √8814 kJ/mol. The negative sign confirms the reaction is exothermic (more energy is released forming bonds than is needed to break them).

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8.

Self-heating food cans contain calcium oxide and a small reservoir of water separated by a membrane. When the user presses a button, the membrane breaks and the water mixes with the calcium oxide. Explain why the food heats up, using knowledge of exothermic reactions and energy transfer.

3 marks · higher

When the membrane breaks, calcium oxide reacts with water in an exothermic reaction. Energy is released to the surroundings during this reaction. The surroundings include the food in the can, so the energy released transfers to the food, raising its temperature and heating it up.

  • Calcium oxide reacts with water in an exothermic reaction (accept: the reaction releases energy) (1m)
  • Energy is released to the surroundings from the exothermic reaction (1m)
  • The food (surroundings) absorbs this energy, causing its temperature to rise / the food heats up (1m)

Calcium oxide reacting with water is an exothermic reaction, meaning it releases energy to the surroundings. In this system, the food is the surroundings. The energy released by the CaO + H₂O reaction transfers to the food, raising its temperature and heating it up. This is a useful application of exothermic reactions — no external power source is needed. A common mistake is not identifying what counts as 'the surroundings' in context.

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9.

Give two examples of exothermic reactions.

2 marks · foundation

Two examples of exothermic reactions are combustion (for example burning methane in air) and neutralisation (for example adding sodium hydroxide solution to hydrochloric acid).

  • First example: combustion / burning a fuel / burning methane / burning wood (accept any valid exothermic reaction) (1m)
  • Second example: neutralisation / oxidation / respiration / hand warmer reaction (any second valid different example) (1m)

Exothermic reactions release energy to the surroundings, causing a temperature rise. The most common examples students need to know are: combustion (burning fuels like methane, ethanol, or wood), neutralisation (acid + alkali reactions), oxidation (including slow oxidation like iron rusting and fast oxidation like burning), and respiration. Everyday applications include hand warmers (slow iron oxidation), self-heating cans (calcium oxide + water), and fireworks (rapid combustion). Students commonly confuse exothermic reactions with endothermic ones — remember: exothermic feels hot (temperature rises), endothermic feels cold (temperature falls).

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10.

Explain, in terms of bond breaking and bond making, why combustion is an exothermic reaction.

2 marks · standard

In combustion, energy is first needed to break the bonds in the fuel and oxygen molecules. Energy is then released when new bonds form in the products (carbon dioxide and water). Because more energy is released making new bonds than is needed to break the original bonds, the overall reaction releases energy to the surroundings, making it exothermic.

  • Bond breaking requires energy (endothermic process) / energy is taken in when bonds break (1m)
  • More energy is released in bond making than is required for bond breaking / net energy is released to surroundings (1m)

All chemical reactions involve breaking bonds in the reactants and forming new bonds in the products. Bond breaking always requires energy — it is an endothermic process. Bond making always releases energy — it is an exothermic process. Whether the overall reaction is exothermic or endothermic depends on the balance between these two. In combustion, the energy released when new bonds form in CO₂ and H₂O is greater than the energy required to break the bonds in the fuel and O₂. This means there is a net release of energy to the surroundings, making the reaction exothermic. The most common exam mistake is reversing this: saying bond breaking releases energy or bond making requires energy — both are wrong.

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11.

What is the activation energy of a reaction? Explain what it represents on an energy profile diagram.

2 marks · standard

The activation energy is the minimum amount of energy that colliding particles must have in order for a reaction to take place. On an energy profile diagram, it is shown as the difference in energy between the reactants and the top of the energy peak (the transition state). It represents the energy barrier that must be overcome to break bonds in the reactants.

  • Minimum energy that particles/reactants must have for a reaction to occur (accept: minimum energy for collisions to be successful) (1m)
  • Shown on the energy profile as the difference between the reactant energy level and the top of the energy peak / the height of the energy barrier (1m)

Activation energy is the minimum energy that colliding particles must possess in order for a reaction to occur. Not every collision between reactant particles results in a reaction — only those collisions where the particles have at least the activation energy will break existing bonds and allow new ones to form. On an energy profile diagram, the activation energy is represented as the vertical distance between the energy level of the reactants and the highest point of the curve (the transition state or energy barrier). A reaction with a high activation energy is slow because fewer particles have sufficient energy to react. A catalyst works by providing an alternative reaction pathway with a lower activation energy.

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12.

In an exothermic reaction, energy is transferred:

  • A. From the surroundings to the reaction mixture
  • B. From the reaction mixture to the surroundings
  • C. Neither absorbed nor released
  • D. Only as light, not heat
1 mark · foundation

In an exothermic reaction, energy is released to the surroundings. This causes the temperature of the surroundings to rise. The prefix 'exo' means 'out of', indicating energy flows out of the reaction system.

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13.

Which observation confirms that a reaction is exothermic?

  • A. The temperature of the reaction mixture decreases
  • B. The temperature of the reaction mixture increases
  • C. The temperature of the surroundings increases
  • D. The temperature of the surroundings decreases
1 mark · foundation

An exothermic reaction is confirmed by the temperature of the surroundings increasing. The energy released by the reaction is transferred to the surroundings. In a simple test-tube reaction, the surroundings (including the test tube and the solution) warm up.

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14.

Which of the following is an example of an exothermic reaction?

  • A. Dissolving ammonium nitrate in water
  • B. Thermal decomposition of calcium carbonate
  • C. Photosynthesis
  • D. Combustion of natural gas
1 mark · foundation

Combustion of natural gas (methane) is exothermic - it releases energy as heat and light. Dissolving ammonium nitrate is endothermic (used in cold packs). Thermal decomposition and photosynthesis both require energy input and are endothermic.

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15.

Define the term 'exothermic reaction'.

1 mark · foundation

An exothermic reaction is one in which energy is released to the surroundings, causing the temperature of the surroundings to rise.

  • Energy is released to the surroundings (accept: temperature of surroundings rises / reaction gives out heat) (1m)

An exothermic reaction releases energy to the surroundings. The surroundings include everything outside the reaction — the container, the air, and anything the container touches. Because energy is transferred out, the temperature of the surroundings increases. Common examples include combustion, neutralisation, oxidation, and respiration. The term 'exothermic' comes from Greek: 'exo' means outside and 'thermic' means heat. The opposite is endothermic, where energy is taken in from the surroundings and the temperature falls.

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16.

On an energy profile diagram for an exothermic reaction, which statement is correct?

  • A. Products have a higher energy than reactants
  • B. Activation energy is shown as a trough below reactant energy level
  • C. The overall energy change (ΔH) is negative
  • D. The activation energy equals the energy released
1 mark · standard

For an exothermic reaction, the products are at a lower energy level than the reactants, so the overall energy change (ΔH) is negative. The reaction releases energy to the surroundings. The activation energy is a peak above the reactant energy level, not a trough.

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17.

Which statement correctly describes bond breaking and bond making in terms of energy?

  • A. Bond breaking requires energy; bond making releases energy
  • B. Bond breaking releases energy; bond making requires energy
  • C. Both bond breaking and bond making require energy
  • D. Both bond breaking and bond making release energy
1 mark · standard

Bond breaking is always endothermic (requires energy input to overcome the attraction between atoms). Bond making is always exothermic (releases energy as new bonds form). In an overall exothermic reaction, more energy is released making bonds than is required to break bonds.

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18.

In a reaction, 860 kJ/mol of energy is needed to break bonds and 1120 kJ/mol is released when new bonds form. What is the overall energy change and reaction type?

  • A. −260 kJ/mol, endothermic
  • B. +260 kJ/mol, endothermic
  • C. +260 kJ/mol, exothermic
  • D. −260 kJ/mol, exothermic
1 mark · standard

Energy change = energy absorbed (breaking) − energy released (making) = 860 − 1120 = −260 kJ/mol. The negative value means energy is released overall, so the reaction is exothermic. More energy is released making bonds than is needed to break bonds.

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19.

A student uses a hand warmer that contains iron powder and sodium chloride solution. The hand warmer works because iron undergoes slow oxidation. Which row correctly identifies both the type of reaction and the energy change?

  • A. Exothermic; temperature of surroundings increases
  • B. Exothermic; temperature of surroundings decreases
  • C. Endothermic; temperature of surroundings increases
  • D. Endothermic; temperature of surroundings decreases
1 mark · standard

Oxidation of iron is an exothermic reaction. Energy is released to the surroundings, which is why the hand warmer feels warm. The temperature of the surroundings (your hand) increases because energy is transferred to them from the reaction.

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20.

On an energy profile diagram for an exothermic reaction, adding a catalyst would change the diagram by:

  • A. Raising the energy level of the products
  • B. Lowering the activation energy peak but not changing the overall energy released
  • C. Increasing the overall energy released by the reaction
  • D. Lowering both the activation energy and the overall energy released
1 mark · standard

A catalyst lowers the activation energy by providing an alternative reaction pathway, so the energy peak on the profile is lower. However, the overall energy change (ΔH) is not affected - the reactant and product energy levels remain the same, so the total energy released stays the same.

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Endothermic Reactions

20
1.

Evaluate the differences and similarities between endothermic and exothermic reactions. In your answer, refer to: energy transfers to and from the surroundings; bond breaking and bond forming; energy profile diagrams; and one example of each type of reaction. [6 marks]

6 marks · challenge

Exothermic and endothermic reactions both involve energy transfers between the reaction system and the surroundings. In an exothermic reaction, energy is transferred to the surroundings, causing the temperature of the surroundings to increase. Examples include combustion and neutralisation. In an endothermic reaction, energy is absorbed from the surroundings, causing the temperature of the surroundings to decrease. Examples include thermal decomposition and photosynthesis. Both reaction types involve breaking bonds in the reactants and forming new bonds in the products. Bond breaking always requires an input of energy; bond forming always releases energy. In exothermic reactions, the energy released when forming bonds exceeds the energy needed to break bonds, producing a net energy release. In endothermic reactions, the energy required to break bonds exceeds the energy released when forming new bonds, producing a net energy input. On energy profile diagrams, both types show an activation energy peak (the minimum energy needed to start the reaction). The key difference is in the relative positions of reactants and products: in exothermic reactions, the products are at a lower energy level than the reactants (reflecting energy release); in endothermic reactions, the products are at a higher energy level than the reactants (reflecting energy absorption).

  • Exothermic: energy is released to the surroundings; temperature of surroundings increases (1m)
  • Endothermic: energy is absorbed from the surroundings; temperature of surroundings decreases (1m)
  • Bond breaking always requires energy; bond forming always releases energy (for both reaction types) (1m)
  • Exothermic: energy released forming bonds > energy required breaking bonds (net energy out). Endothermic: energy required breaking bonds > energy released forming bonds (net energy in) (1m)
  • Energy profiles: exothermic - products lower than reactants; endothermic - products higher than reactants. Both show activation energy peak. (1 mark for each type described correctly, max 1) (1m)
  • Correct named example for each type: e.g., combustion / neutralisation (exothermic); thermal decomposition / photosynthesis / citric acid + NaHCO₃ (endothermic). (1 mark for both examples given) (1m)

This 6-mark question requires a structured response covering all four specified areas. Award marks for clear, accurate statements covering energy transfers, bond energetics, energy profiles, and examples. A good answer will explicitly contrast the two reaction types throughout rather than describing each in isolation.

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2.

Explain why photosynthesis is classified as an endothermic process. Include the reactants, products, and energy changes in your answer.

4 marks · higher

Photosynthesis is endothermic because it absorbs light energy from the surroundings (the Sun) to drive the reaction. The reactants are carbon dioxide and water. The products are glucose and oxygen. The light energy absorbed is used to convert the low-energy reactants into the higher-energy product glucose. The energy is stored in the chemical bonds of the glucose molecule. Because energy is absorbed (not released) overall, photosynthesis is classified as endothermic.

  • Reactants are carbon dioxide and water (CO₂ and H₂O) (1m)
  • Products are glucose and oxygen (C₆H₁₂O₆ and O₂) (1m)
  • Light energy is absorbed from the surroundings (the Sun) to drive the reaction (1m)
  • Energy is stored in the chemical bonds of glucose / products have more energy than reactants (1m)

Photosynthesis uses light energy from the Sun to convert CO₂ + H₂O into glucose + O₂. Because energy is absorbed from the surroundings (not released), it is endothermic. The energy becomes stored in the chemical bonds of glucose. A 4-mark answer must cover: reactants (CO₂ and H₂O), products (glucose and O₂), energy absorbed from surroundings (light from Sun), and energy stored in glucose bonds.

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3.

Explain why the thermal decomposition of calcium carbonate is classified as an endothermic reaction.

3 marks · standard

Thermal decomposition of calcium carbonate (CaCO₃) requires continuous heating from an external flame. Energy must be continuously supplied to break the bonds holding calcium carbonate together. The products (calcium oxide and carbon dioxide) are at a higher energy level than the reactants. The reaction is endothermic because more energy is absorbed to break bonds than is released when new bonds form in the products.

  • Continuous heat / energy must be supplied for the reaction to proceed (1m)
  • Energy is absorbed from the surroundings (the heat source / flame) (1m)
  • The products (CaO and CO₂) have more energy / are at a higher energy level than the reactants (CaCO₃) (1m)

This question tests understanding of endothermic reactions in context. Thermal decomposition of CaCO₃ → CaO + CO₂ requires continuous heating: if the heat source is removed, the reaction stops. This tells us the reaction is absorbing energy from the surroundings throughout. The key mark points are: continuous energy input required, energy absorbed from surroundings, and products having higher energy than reactants. A common mistake is saying the reaction 'produces heat' (it is the opposite — it requires heat).

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4.

Explain, in terms of bond breaking and bond forming, why an endothermic reaction requires a net input of energy.

3 marks · higher

During a chemical reaction, bonds in the reactants must be broken first, which requires energy. New bonds then form in the products, which releases energy. In an endothermic reaction, the energy needed to break bonds in the reactants is greater than the energy released when new bonds form in the products. Therefore, more energy is absorbed from the surroundings than is released, resulting in a net energy input.

  • Breaking bonds in the reactants requires energy input (1m)
  • Forming bonds in the products releases energy (1m)
  • The energy required to break bonds is greater than the energy released when bonds form, so there is a net energy input from the surroundings (1m)

Bond breaking always requires energy (endothermic step); bond forming always releases energy (exothermic step). For the overall reaction to be endothermic, the energy needed to break bonds must exceed the energy released when new bonds form. The 'net input' means the difference between these two amounts is positive — more energy in than out. A common error is to confuse which process (breaking or forming) absorbs versus releases energy.

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5.

Compare the energy profile diagrams for an exothermic reaction and an endothermic reaction. State two similarities and one difference.

3 marks · higher

Both diagrams show reactants on the left and products on the right, connected by a curve with an activation energy peak. Both show that an input of activation energy is needed to start the reaction. The difference is in the relative energy levels of products and reactants: in an exothermic reaction, the products are lower in energy than the reactants (energy is released), whereas in an endothermic reaction the products are higher in energy than the reactants (energy is absorbed).

  • Similarity 1: Both show reactants connected to products via a curve with an activation energy peak (1m)
  • Similarity 2: Both require an input of activation energy / both show the transition state as the highest point on the curve (1m)
  • Difference: In exothermic, products are lower in energy than reactants; in endothermic, products are higher in energy than reactants (1m)

Both exothermic and endothermic energy profiles share two key features: both show an activation energy peak (the hump in the curve), and both have reactants and products on opposite sides. The critical difference is which side is higher: for exothermic reactions products are lower (energy released), while for endothermic reactions products are higher (energy absorbed). Students often draw the activation energy peak incorrectly or forget that both types still have a peak.

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6.

In a reaction, the total energy required to break all bonds in the reactants is 850 kJ/mol. The total energy released when all bonds form in the products is 620 kJ/mol. State and explain whether this reaction is endothermic or exothermic, and calculate the overall energy change.

3 marks · higher

The reaction is endothermic. The energy to break bonds (850 kJ/mol) is greater than the energy released in forming bonds (620 kJ/mol). The overall energy change = 850 - 620 = +230 kJ/mol. The positive value confirms the reaction is endothermic, meaning 230 kJ/mol of energy is absorbed from the surroundings.

  • Correctly identifies reaction as endothermic (1m)
  • Correct reasoning: energy to break bonds (850) is greater than energy released forming bonds (620) (1m)
  • Correct overall energy change: 850 - 620 = +230 kJ/mol (positive sign or 'absorbed' stated) (1m)

When bond breaking energy (850 kJ/mol) exceeds bond forming energy (620 kJ/mol), the reaction is endothermic. Energy change = breaking - forming = 850 - 620 = +230 kJ/mol. The positive sign indicates energy is absorbed. If the bond forming value were larger, the sign would be negative (exothermic). Remember the rule: endothermic = more energy to break than is released making.

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7.

A student adds citric acid to sodium hydrogen carbonate in a beaker and measures the temperature. The temperature falls from 22 °C to 14 °C. The student also observes fizzing. Evaluate whether the observations support the conclusion that this reaction is endothermic.

3 marks · higher

The temperature fall from 22 °C to 14 °C (a decrease of 8 °C) is strong evidence that the reaction is endothermic. Endothermic reactions absorb energy from the surroundings, causing the temperature to decrease. The fizzing indicates a gas is being produced (carbon dioxide from the reaction of citric acid with the carbonate group), which is consistent with the known chemistry. The observations do support the conclusion that the reaction is endothermic because there is a clear temperature decrease of 8 °C.

  • Temperature decrease (falls by 8 °C) is evidence for an endothermic reaction because energy is absorbed from the surroundings (1m)
  • Fizzing indicates CO₂ gas production, consistent with an acid reacting with a carbonate (1m)
  • Conclusion: observations do support the endothermic classification because there is a clear temperature decrease (1m)

This is an evaluate question requiring evidence-based reasoning. The temperature fall (22 °C to 14 °C = 8 °C decrease) directly supports the endothermic classification, since endothermic reactions absorb energy from the surroundings, lowering temperature. The fizzing is evidence of CO₂ production from the acid-carbonate reaction. The conclusion is supported by both observations. Students must explain WHY the temperature decrease supports the conclusion, not just state it.

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8.

State two observations that suggest a reaction is endothermic.

2 marks · foundation

The temperature of the reaction mixture decreases during the reaction. The surroundings feel cold to the touch.

  • Temperature of the reaction mixture / surroundings decreases (drops / falls) (1m)
  • The container / mixture feels cold to the touch OR the surroundings cool down (1m)

Endothermic reactions absorb energy from the surroundings, so two key observations are: (1) the temperature of the mixture falls, and (2) the container or surroundings feel cold to the touch. These are the observable signs that energy is being taken in.

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9.

Give two examples of endothermic reactions.

2 marks · foundation

Thermal decomposition of calcium carbonate (or metal carbonates). Photosynthesis. (Also accepted: citric acid reacting with sodium hydrogen carbonate.)

  • Any one correct endothermic reaction: thermal decomposition / photosynthesis / citric acid + sodium hydrogen carbonate / dissolving ammonium nitrate (1m)
  • Any second correct endothermic reaction (different from first) (1m)

Common GCSE examples of endothermic reactions include: thermal decomposition (e.g. heating calcium carbonate requires continuous energy input), photosynthesis (plants absorb light energy to build glucose), and citric acid reacting with sodium hydrogen carbonate. A key indicator is that these reactions require energy input or cause temperature to fall.

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10.

Explain why a sports cold pack becomes cold when activated.

2 marks · standard

The cold pack contains ammonium nitrate and water separated by a thin membrane. When squeezed, the membrane breaks and the ammonium nitrate dissolves. This dissolving process is endothermic, so it absorbs thermal energy from the surroundings (including the injured body part), causing the temperature to decrease.

  • The reaction / process inside the pack is endothermic (1m)
  • Energy is absorbed from the surroundings, so the temperature of the surroundings (and the pack) decreases (1m)

The key word here is 'endothermic'. When the cold pack is activated, an endothermic reaction or dissolving process occurs that absorbs thermal energy from the surroundings. This energy transfer from the surroundings into the pack causes the surroundings (including the injured body part) to cool down. Students often confuse cause and effect here: the pack does not produce cold, it absorbs heat.

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11.

Describe the key features of an energy profile diagram for an endothermic reaction.

2 marks · standard

On an energy profile diagram for an endothermic reaction, the products are at a higher energy level than the reactants. The curve shows an initial rise to an activation energy peak, then drops but not as far as the starting level, leaving the products higher than the reactants.

  • Products are at a higher energy level than the reactants (1m)
  • There is a peak (activation energy) followed by a decrease to a level still above the reactants OR the overall energy change is positive (energy in) (1m)

For an endothermic energy profile: the reactants start at a lower energy level than the products (opposite to exothermic). The curve rises to a peak (activation energy), then falls to the products level which is still higher than the starting point. The energy difference between reactants and products represents the overall energy absorbed from the surroundings (positive delta H).

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12.

In an endothermic reaction, energy is:

  • A. Released to the surroundings
  • B. Absorbed from the surroundings
  • C. Created inside the reaction vessel
  • D. Neither gained nor lost
1 mark · foundation

In an endothermic reaction, energy is taken in (absorbed) from the surroundings. The prefix 'endo' means 'within' or 'into', so energy goes into the reaction system from the surroundings.

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13.

What happens to the temperature of the surroundings during an endothermic reaction?

  • A. It increases
  • B. It stays the same
  • C. It decreases
  • D. It first increases then decreases
1 mark · foundation

Endothermic reactions absorb energy from the surroundings, so the surroundings lose thermal energy and the temperature of the surroundings decreases. This is why endothermic mixtures feel cold.

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14.

Which of the following is an example of an endothermic reaction?

  • A. Combustion of methane
  • B. Neutralisation of an acid by an alkali
  • C. Thermal decomposition of calcium carbonate
  • D. Respiration
1 mark · foundation

Thermal decomposition of calcium carbonate (CaCO₃ → CaO + CO₂) is endothermic because it requires continuous heating from a flame. Energy must be continuously supplied to break apart the calcium carbonate. If you remove the heat source, the reaction stops.

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15.

State what is meant by the term 'endothermic reaction'.

1 mark · foundation

An endothermic reaction is one in which energy is absorbed from the surroundings.

  • Energy is absorbed (taken in / transferred from) the surroundings (1m)

An endothermic reaction absorbs energy from the surroundings. This causes the surroundings to cool down. The opposite is an exothermic reaction, which releases energy to the surroundings and causes warming.

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16.

On an energy profile diagram for an endothermic reaction, which is higher in energy?

  • A. The products
  • B. The reactants
  • C. Both are at the same level
  • D. The activation energy peak
1 mark · standard

In an endothermic reaction, the products have more energy than the reactants. This is because the reaction absorbs energy from the surroundings and stores it in the chemical bonds of the products. On an energy profile diagram, the product energy level is drawn higher than the reactant energy level.

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17.

A sports cold pack is squeezed to activate it and becomes cold immediately. This is because the reaction inside the pack is:

  • A. Exothermic, releasing energy to the pack
  • B. Endothermic, absorbing energy from the pack and surroundings
  • C. Exothermic, absorbing energy from the pack
  • D. Endothermic, releasing energy to the pack
1 mark · standard

The cold pack becomes cold because the reaction inside it is endothermic. It absorbs thermal energy from its surroundings (including the pack itself and the injured body part), causing both to cool down. Ammonium nitrate dissolving in water is the typical endothermic reaction used in cold packs.

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18.

A reaction is endothermic overall. This means that the energy required to break bonds in the reactants is:

  • A. Greater than the energy released when bonds form in the products
  • B. Less than the energy released when bonds form in the products
  • C. Equal to the energy released when bonds form in the products
  • D. Unrelated to the energy of bonds in the products
1 mark · standard

In an endothermic reaction, more energy is needed to break the bonds in the reactants than is released when new bonds form in the products. The difference between the two is the amount of energy absorbed from the surroundings. Bond breaking requires energy input; bond forming releases energy.

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19.

Photosynthesis is classified as endothermic. Which statement best explains why?

  • A. Carbon dioxide is a product and CO₂ has high energy bonds
  • B. Oxygen is released as a by-product during the reaction
  • C. Water is used as a reactant and breaking water bonds releases energy
  • D. Light energy is absorbed from the surroundings to drive the reaction
1 mark · standard

Photosynthesis is endothermic because it requires a continuous input of light energy from the surroundings (the Sun) to convert carbon dioxide and water into glucose and oxygen. Without light energy, the reaction cannot proceed. The energy is stored in the chemical bonds of glucose.

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20.

A student mixes citric acid with sodium hydrogen carbonate powder in a beaker. The temperature of the mixture drops by 8°C. The student also notices fizzing. Which conclusion is best supported by these observations?

  • A. The reaction is exothermic and produces carbon dioxide gas
  • B. No chemical reaction has occurred because carbonates usually do not react with acids
  • C. The reaction is endothermic and the fizzing is due to water vapour evaporating
  • D. The reaction is endothermic and produces a gas, most likely carbon dioxide
1 mark · standard

The temperature drop shows the reaction is endothermic (absorbing energy from the surroundings, so the mixture cools). The fizzing indicates gas production. When sodium hydrogen carbonate reacts with citric acid, carbon dioxide gas is produced: the carbonate reacts with the acid to form CO₂, water, and a citrate salt. This reaction is a well-known endothermic example.

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Bond Energies (HT)

25
1.

Describe how bond energies can be used to calculate whether a reaction is exothermic or endothermic. In your answer you should: explain why bond breaking and bond making have opposite energy changes; describe the method for calculating ΔH using bond energy data; interpret what the sign of ΔH tells you; and evaluate the limitations of this method.

6 marks · challenge

Bond energies can be used to calculate the enthalpy change (ΔH) of a reaction. Bond breaking is always endothermic because energy must be supplied to overcome the electrostatic forces holding atoms together — this is why the bond energy values are always positive. Bond making is always exothermic because atoms achieve a more stable, lower energy state when they bond together, releasing energy to the surroundings. To calculate ΔH, use the formula: ΔH = energy absorbed breaking bonds − energy released making bonds. First, identify and count all the bonds that are broken in the reactant molecules, then multiply each bond count by the bond energy value from the data table. Do the same for all the bonds formed in the product molecules. Subtracting the total bonds made from the total bonds broken gives ΔH. If ΔH is negative, the reaction is exothermic — more energy was released making bonds in the products than was absorbed breaking bonds in the reactants, so energy is transferred to the surroundings. If ΔH is positive, the reaction is endothermic — more energy was absorbed breaking bonds than was released making new ones. The main limitation of this method is that bond energy values in data tables are averages calculated from many different molecules. The actual bond energy of, for example, a C-H bond varies slightly depending on the other atoms in the molecule. This means the calculated ΔH value is always approximate and may differ from the experimental value. Calculations also assume all species are in the gaseous state, which is an additional source of inaccuracy.

  • Bond breaking is endothermic — energy must be absorbed from surroundings to overcome the attractive forces between bonded atoms (1m)
  • Bond making is exothermic — energy is released to the surroundings as atoms form stable bonds with lower potential energy (1m)
  • ΔH is calculated using: ΔH = Σ(bond energies of bonds broken) − Σ(bond energies of bonds made) (1m)
  • Count all bonds broken in reactant molecules and all bonds formed in product molecules using bond energy values from a data table (1m)
  • A negative ΔH indicates an exothermic reaction (more energy released making bonds); a positive ΔH indicates an endothermic reaction (more energy absorbed breaking bonds) (1m)
  • Limitation: bond energy values in tables are average values and actual bond energies vary depending on the molecular environment; calculations also assume gaseous state for all species (1m)

This 6-mark question covers the full bond energy topic. A full-marks answer must address all four bullet points: (1) bond breaking is endothermic because energy must be put in to separate atoms; bond making is exothermic because energy is released as atoms form a stable arrangement. (2) Method: list all bonds broken in reactants and multiply by their bond energies; list all bonds made in products and multiply; delta H = total breaking - total making. (3) Negative delta H = exothermic; positive delta H = endothermic. (4) Limitations: values are averages (vary with molecular environment); assumes gaseous state. Partial credit is awarded for each correctly addressed bullet point.

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2.

Methane burns in oxygen: CH₄ + 2O₂ → CO₂ + 2H₂O. Bond energies: C-H = 413 kJ/mol, O=O = 498 kJ/mol, C=O = 805 kJ/mol, O-H = 463 kJ/mol. (a) Use bond energies to calculate ΔH for the combustion of methane. Show all your working. (b) Sketch a reaction profile for this reaction and label the activation energy and overall energy change.

6 marks · challenge

Bonds broken: 4 C-H = 4 × 413 = 1652 kJ/mol. 2 O=O = 2 × 498 = 996 kJ/mol. Total broken = 2648 kJ/mol. Bonds made: CO₂ contains 2 C=O bonds = 2 × 805 = 1610 kJ/mol. 2H₂O contains 4 O-H bonds = 4 × 463 = 1852 kJ/mol. Total made = 3462 kJ/mol. ΔH = 2648 − 3462 = −814 kJ/mol. The reaction is exothermic. The reaction profile shows reactants at a higher energy level than products. The peak is above both. Activation energy is labelled from reactants level to the peak. Overall energy change (ΔH, negative) is labelled from reactants level down to products level.

  • Bonds broken: 4 × C-H = 4 × 413 = 1652 kJ/mol AND 2 × O=O = 2 × 498 = 996 kJ/mol. Total broken = 2648 kJ/mol (1m)
  • Bonds made: CO₂ has 2 C=O bonds = 2 × 805 = 1610 kJ/mol AND 2H₂O has 4 O-H bonds = 4 × 463 = 1852 kJ/mol. Total made = 3462 kJ/mol (1m)
  • ΔH = 2648 − 3462 = −814 kJ/mol (accept −812 to −816 for rounding) (1m)
  • Reaction profile correctly drawn as exothermic: reactants at higher energy than products, peak above reactants (1m)
  • Activation energy correctly labelled: arrow/bracket from reactants energy level to peak (1m)
  • Overall energy change (ΔH) correctly labelled: arrow/bracket from reactants level down to products level, with negative sign or downward arrow indicating exothermic (1m)

This question combines two topics: bond energy calculation (topic 32) and reaction profiles (topic 31). For part (a): bonds broken in CH₄ + 2O₂: 4 C-H bonds (4 × 413 = 1652) + 2 O=O bonds (2 × 498 = 996) = 2648 kJ/mol total. Bonds made in CO₂ + 2H₂O: 2 C=O bonds in CO₂ (2 × 805 = 1610) + 4 O-H bonds in 2H₂O (4 × 463 = 1852) = 3462 kJ/mol total. ΔH = 2648 − 3462 = −814 kJ/mol. Negative = exothermic. For part (b): the reaction profile should show reactants at a higher energy than products (since ΔH is negative/exothermic), a peak representing the transition state, the activation energy as the energy gap from reactants to the peak, and the overall energy change (ΔH) as the gap from reactants down to products. A common mistake is drawing an endothermic profile (products higher than reactants) when the ΔH is clearly negative.

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3.

A chemist uses bond energy data to calculate ΔH for a reaction and obtains a value of −320 kJ/mol. The true experimentally measured value is −347 kJ/mol. Evaluate the use of bond energy calculations to predict whether a reaction will be exothermic or endothermic, discussing the limitations that explain the difference between the calculated and experimental values.

6 marks · challenge

The calculation and the experimental value are both negative (−320 and −347 kJ/mol), so bond energy calculations correctly predict the reaction is exothermic. This shows bond energy calculations are useful for determining the direction of energy change. However, the calculated value differs from the experimental value because of limitations in the method. First, the bond energy values used are average values taken from measurements across many different molecules. The actual energy of any specific bond depends on its molecular environment — the atoms surrounding it — so average values are only an approximation. Second, bond energy calculations assume all species are in the gaseous state throughout the reaction. If any reactant or product is a liquid or solid, the energy involved in overcoming intermolecular forces during phase changes is not accounted for. These factors together mean the calculated value is only an estimate, explaining the 27 kJ/mol difference.

  • The calculation correctly predicts the sign of ΔH (both values are negative, confirming the reaction is exothermic) — bond energy calculations are useful for identifying direction of energy change (1m)
  • Tabulated bond energies are average values obtained from measurements across many different molecules and reaction environments (1m)
  • The actual bond energy of a given bond type varies depending on the surrounding atoms (molecular environment), so using average values introduces inaccuracy (1m)
  • Bond energy calculations assume all reactants and products are in the gaseous state (1m)
  • If reactants or products are liquids or solids in reality, the energy associated with changing state (intermolecular forces) is not included in the calculation (1m)
  • Therefore the calculated value is only an estimate/approximation of the true enthalpy change, which accounts for the −27 kJ/mol discrepancy (1m)

This question demands two layers of analysis: (1) what bond energy calculations CAN do well and (2) what their inherent limitations are. On the positive side, bond energy calculations reliably predict the DIRECTION of energy change (exothermic vs endothermic) — a negative ΔH from the calculation correctly predicts an exothermic reaction. The calculation is also quick and requires only a data table. However, three key limitations explain why −320 ≠ −347: First, tabulated bond energies are AVERAGE values measured across many molecules. The actual energy of a C-H bond in methane is not identical to a C-H bond in ethanol because the surrounding atoms affect the electron density. Second, bond energy calculations assume ALL species are in the gaseous state. If reactants or products are liquids or solids, the energy cost of phase change is not accounted for. Third, the calculation treats the reaction as if it proceeds purely through bond breaking then bond making, ignoring intermolecular interactions in condensed phases. For full marks, students must identify at least the averages limitation and the gaseous state assumption, and explain WHY they cause a discrepancy.

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4.

Compare an exothermic and an endothermic reaction in terms of: the direction of energy transfer with the surroundings; the relative energy levels of reactants and products; the shape of the reaction profile. Then explain how a catalyst affects the reaction profile and activation energy of both types of reaction.

6 marks · challenge

In an exothermic reaction, energy is transferred to the surroundings and the temperature of the surroundings rises. In an endothermic reaction, energy is absorbed from the surroundings and the temperature of the surroundings falls. On a reaction profile, an exothermic reaction shows reactants at a higher energy than products (ΔH is negative). An endothermic reaction shows products at a higher energy than reactants (ΔH is positive). Both profiles show a peak above the reactant energy level representing the transition state. The activation energy is the energy difference from reactants to this peak. Adding a catalyst provides an alternative pathway with a lower activation energy — the peak on the profile is lowered. However, the catalyst does not change the energy levels of reactants or products, so the overall energy change (ΔH) stays the same. This is true for both exothermic and endothermic reactions.

  • Exothermic: energy transferred TO the surroundings; temperature of surroundings increases. Endothermic: energy transferred FROM the surroundings; temperature of surroundings decreases (1m)
  • Exothermic: reactants are at a higher energy level than products (ΔH negative). Endothermic: products are at a higher energy level than reactants (ΔH positive) (1m)
  • Both profiles have a peak (transition state) above the reactant energy level. In an exothermic profile the products end lower than reactants; in an endothermic profile the products end higher than reactants (1m)
  • A catalyst provides an alternative reaction pathway with a lower activation energy — the peak on the profile is lower with a catalyst than without (1m)
  • A catalyst does NOT change the energy levels of reactants or products, and does NOT change ΔH (1m)
  • This applies equally to both exothermic and endothermic reactions — a catalyst lowers the activation energy for both, making the reaction faster without altering the overall energy change (1m)

This question is a direct cross-topic synthesis drawing on topics 29 (exothermic), 30 (endothermic), and 31 (reaction profiles), with the catalyst element from rates of reaction. For energy transfer: exothermic reactions transfer energy TO the surroundings (temperature rises); endothermic reactions transfer energy FROM the surroundings (temperature falls). For energy levels on profiles: exothermic shows reactants higher, products lower (ΔH negative); endothermic shows products higher, reactants lower (ΔH positive). For profile shape: both have a peak (transition state) above the reactant level — but in endothermic reactions the products are above the reactant starting level, while in exothermic they are below. For catalysts: a catalyst provides an alternative reaction pathway with a lower activation energy. On the reaction profile, adding a catalyst lowers the peak — the hill is shorter. Crucially, a catalyst does NOT change the energy levels of reactants or products, and does NOT change ΔH. The overall energy change remains the same; only the activation energy decreases. For 6 marks, students must address all three comparison areas AND the catalyst effect, explaining both what changes and what stays the same.

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5.

Explain why breaking bonds is endothermic and forming bonds is exothermic. Use this to explain why the overall energy change for neutralisation between a strong acid and a strong alkali is exothermic.

5 marks · challenge

Bond breaking is endothermic because energy must be absorbed from the surroundings to overcome the electrostatic attraction holding atoms together. Bond forming is exothermic because energy is released to the surroundings as atoms come together in a stable, lower-energy arrangement. In neutralisation, bonds are broken in the acid and alkali — this requires energy. New bonds then form in the water molecules and salt produced. Because the energy released making these new bonds is greater than the energy absorbed breaking the original bonds, the overall energy change is negative. The reaction is exothermic — more energy is released to the surroundings than was taken in.

  • Bond breaking is endothermic because energy must be absorbed/input to overcome the attractive forces (electrostatic attraction) between bonded atoms (1m)
  • Bond forming is exothermic because energy is released to the surroundings as atoms form a more stable, lower-energy arrangement (1m)
  • In neutralisation, bonds are broken in the acid and alkali (e.g. O-H bonds) (1m)
  • New bonds form in the products (water molecules and salt) — more energy is released making bonds than was absorbed breaking them (1m)
  • Because the energy released (bond making) exceeds the energy absorbed (bond breaking), the overall energy change is negative/exothermic — energy is transferred to the surroundings (1m)

This question links bond energy principles (topic 32) to exothermic reactions (topic 29) and asks students to apply them to a specific context. Breaking bonds is endothermic because energy must be supplied to overcome the electrostatic attraction between atoms — separating atoms from a stable arrangement requires an energy input. Forming bonds is exothermic because when atoms come together, they move to a lower energy, more stable arrangement, releasing energy to the surroundings. For neutralisation: the bonds broken (O-H in acid, N-H or O-H in alkali) require less energy than the energy released when new bonds form (O-H in water and ionic bonds in the salt). Because bond making releases more energy than bond breaking requires, the overall reaction is exothermic — energy is released to the surroundings. A common misconception is that exothermic means energy is created. Remind students that energy is transferred, not made.

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6.

A reaction has a total bond-breaking energy of 1648 kJ/mol and a total bond-forming energy of 1856 kJ/mol. (a) Calculate ΔH for this reaction. (b) State whether the reaction is exothermic or endothermic. (c) Describe the key features of the reaction profile you would draw for this reaction, including the relative positions of reactants and products and the labels for activation energy and overall energy change.

5 marks · challenge

ΔH = 1648 − 1856 = −208 kJ/mol. The negative value shows the reaction is exothermic — the energy released making bonds (1856 kJ/mol) is greater than the energy absorbed breaking bonds (1648 kJ/mol). On the reaction profile, reactants are drawn at a higher energy level than products. The curve rises from reactants to a peak (transition state) then falls down to the products level. Activation energy is labelled as the upward arrow from reactants to the peak. The overall energy change (ΔH = −208 kJ/mol) is the downward arrow from reactants to products.

  • ΔH = bonds broken − bonds made = 1648 − 1856 = −208 kJ/mol (1m)
  • The reaction is exothermic (ΔH is negative, so more energy released making bonds than absorbed breaking bonds) (1m)
  • Reactants drawn at a higher energy level than products on the profile (exothermic = products lower) (1m)
  • A peak (transition state) shown above the reactants energy level, representing the activation energy barrier (1m)
  • Activation energy labelled as the energy difference from reactants to the peak; overall energy change (ΔH, −208 kJ/mol) labelled from reactants level down to products level (1m)

This question tests three linked skills: bond energy arithmetic, classifying a reaction, and translating a numerical result into a reaction profile description. ΔH = bonds broken − bonds made = 1648 − 1856 = −208 kJ/mol. The negative sign tells us the reaction is exothermic — more energy was released making bonds than was absorbed breaking them. For the reaction profile: since the reaction is exothermic (energy released), the products are at a LOWER energy level than the reactants. The curve rises from reactants to a peak (transition state) then falls to products below the reactant level. The activation energy is the energy difference from the reactant level to the peak. The overall energy change (ΔH = −208 kJ/mol) is the downward arrow from reactants to products. Students commonly mix up which way ΔH points on the profile, or draw products higher than reactants for an exothermic reaction.

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7.

Hydrogen burns in oxygen according to: 2H₂ + O₂ → 2H₂O. Bond energies: H-H = 436 kJ/mol, O=O = 498 kJ/mol, O-H = 463 kJ/mol. Calculate ΔH for this reaction, showing all your working.

4 marks · higher

Bonds broken: 2 × H-H = 2 × 436 = 872 kJ/mol. 1 × O=O = 498 kJ/mol. Total broken = 1370 kJ/mol. Bonds made: 2H₂O has 4 O-H bonds. 4 × O-H = 4 × 463 = 1852 kJ/mol. ΔH = 1370 − 1852 = −482 kJ/mol. The negative value shows the reaction is exothermic.

  • Bonds broken: 2 × H-H = 2 × 436 = 872 kJ/mol (1m)
  • Bonds broken: 1 × O=O = 498 kJ/mol. Total bonds broken = 872 + 498 = 1370 kJ/mol (1m)
  • Bonds made: 4 × O-H = 4 × 463 = 1852 kJ/mol (2H₂O gives 4 O-H bonds) (1m)
  • ΔH = 1370 − 1852 = −482 kJ/mol (exothermic) (1m)

Bonds broken: 2H₂ gives 2 H-H bonds (2 × 436 = 872) + 1 O₂ gives 1 O=O bond (498). Total broken = 1370 kJ/mol. Bonds made: 2H₂O gives 4 O-H bonds (4 × 463 = 1852). Delta H = 1370 - 1852 = -482 kJ/mol. Exothermic because negative. Note that 2H₂O contains 4 O-H bonds (2 per molecule × 2 molecules) — forgetting the coefficient is a very common error.

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8.

Ammonia is made by the Haber process: N₂ + 3H₂ → 2NH₃. Bond energies: N≡N = 945 kJ/mol, H-H = 436 kJ/mol, N-H = 391 kJ/mol. Calculate ΔH and state whether this reaction is exothermic or endothermic.

4 marks · higher

Bonds broken: 1 × N≡N (945) + 3 × H-H (3 × 436 = 1308) = 2253 kJ/mol. Bonds made: 2NH₃ has 6 N-H bonds total. 6 × N-H = 6 × 391 = 2346 kJ/mol. ΔH = 2253 − 2346 = −93 kJ/mol. The negative value shows the reaction is exothermic.

  • Bonds broken: 1 × N≡N = 945 kJ/mol, 3 × H-H = 3 × 436 = 1308 kJ/mol. Total = 2253 kJ/mol (1m)
  • Bonds made: 2 × NH₃ = 6 N-H bonds. 6 × N-H = 6 × 391 = 2346 kJ/mol (1m)
  • ΔH = 2253 − 2346 = −93 kJ/mol (1m)
  • The reaction is exothermic (negative ΔH) (1m)

Bonds broken: N₂ has 1 N≡N (945) + 3H₂ have 3 H-H (3 × 436 = 1308). Total = 2253 kJ/mol. Bonds made: 2NH₃ contain 6 N-H bonds (6 × 391 = 2346). Delta H = 2253 - 2346 = -93 kJ/mol. Negative value = exothermic. A key detail: 2NH₃ has 6 N-H bonds in total (3 per molecule), not just 3. Failing to account for the coefficient of 2 is a common error.

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9.

Methane burns in oxygen: CH₄ + 2O₂ → CO₂ + 2H₂O. Bond energies: C-H = 413 kJ/mol, O=O = 498 kJ/mol, C=O = 805 kJ/mol, O-H = 463 kJ/mol. Show how to calculate ΔH for this reaction.

3 marks · standard

Bonds broken: 4 × C-H = 4 × 413 = 1652 kJ/mol and 2 × O=O = 2 × 498 = 996 kJ/mol. Total bonds broken = 2648 kJ/mol. Bonds made: 2 × C=O = 2 × 805 = 1610 kJ/mol and 4 × O-H = 4 × 463 = 1852 kJ/mol. Total bonds made = 3462 kJ/mol. ΔH = 2648 − 3462 = −814 kJ/mol. The reaction is exothermic.

  • Energy to break bonds in reactants: 4 × C-H (4 × 413 = 1652) + 2 × O=O (2 × 498 = 996) = 2648 kJ/mol (1m)
  • Energy released making bonds in products: 2 × C=O (2 × 805 = 1610) + 4 × O-H (4 × 463 = 1852) = 3462 kJ/mol (1m)
  • ΔH = 2648 − 3462 = −814 kJ/mol (exothermic) (1m)

Step 1 — count bonds broken in reactants: CH₄ has 4 C-H bonds (4 × 413 = 1652); 2O₂ has 2 O=O bonds (2 × 498 = 996). Total broken = 2648 kJ/mol. Step 2 — count bonds made in products: CO₂ has 2 C=O bonds (2 × 805 = 1610); 2H₂O has 4 O-H bonds (4 × 463 = 1852). Total made = 3462 kJ/mol. Step 3: delta H = 2648 - 3462 = -814 kJ/mol. Negative sign confirms exothermic. Counting bonds carefully (especially the coefficients) is the most common source of error.

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10.

Explain, in terms of bond energies, why combustion reactions are always exothermic.

3 marks · higher

In combustion, bonds are broken in the fuel and in oxygen molecules. New bonds are then formed in the products, carbon dioxide and water. More energy is released when the strong C=O and O-H bonds in the products form than is absorbed when the weaker bonds in the fuel and O=O bonds are broken. Because more energy is released than absorbed, the overall reaction is exothermic.

  • Bonds are broken in the fuel molecules and in oxygen (O=O bonds) (1m)
  • New bonds are formed in the products (C=O in CO₂ and O-H in H₂O) (1m)
  • More energy is released making the new bonds in the products than is absorbed breaking bonds in the reactants (1m)

Combustion breaks bonds in the fuel and O₂ (absorbs energy), then forms very strong C=O bonds in CO₂ and O-H bonds in H₂O (releases energy). The C=O and O-H bonds in the products are very strong, so the energy released making them always exceeds the energy required to break the weaker bonds in the fuel. Therefore, the overall energy change is always negative (exothermic).

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11.

A student calculates ΔH = +180 kJ/mol for a reaction. Explain what this value tells us about bond breaking and bond making in this reaction.

3 marks · higher

A ΔH of +180 kJ/mol means the reaction is endothermic. More energy was absorbed breaking the bonds in the reactants than was released when new bonds formed in the products. The energy needed to break bonds exceeded the energy released making bonds by 180 kJ/mol.

  • The positive ΔH indicates the reaction is endothermic (1m)
  • More energy was absorbed breaking bonds in the reactants than was released making bonds in the products (1m)
  • The energy absorbed breaking bonds exceeds the energy released making bonds by 180 kJ/mol (1m)

A positive delta H (+180 kJ/mol) indicates an endothermic reaction. This means the energy required to break bonds in the reactants (absorbed) was greater than the energy released when new bonds formed in the products. The difference between these two energy values is 180 kJ/mol, which was absorbed from the surroundings. A common error is interpreting a positive delta H as exothermic.

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12.

A student calculates ΔH for a reaction as −750 kJ/mol using bond energy data. The experimentally measured value is −803 kJ/mol. Evaluate the limitations of using bond energy data to calculate ΔH.

3 marks · higher

Bond energy values used in calculations are average values obtained from measurements across many different molecules and bonds. The actual energy of a specific bond varies depending on the atoms surrounding it in the molecule. Additionally, bond energy calculations assume all reactants and products are in the gaseous state, but reactions often involve liquids or solids, meaning the calculated value will differ from the true experimental value.

  • Bond energy values used in calculations are average values taken from many different molecules (1m)
  • The actual bond energy of a specific bond varies depending on its molecular environment (neighbouring atoms) (1m)
  • Bond energy calculations assume all species are in the gaseous state, which may not reflect the actual reaction conditions (1m)

The discrepancy (-750 vs -803 kJ/mol) arises because of the limitations of bond energy data. Limitation 1: tabulated values are averages across many molecules; the actual bond energy depends on the specific molecular environment. Limitation 2: bond energy calculations assume all species are gases, but real reactions may involve liquids or solutions. For 3 marks, cover: averages, environment-dependent variation, and gas-phase assumption. This is a higher-tier evaluate question requiring critical analysis.

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13.

State whether bond breaking and bond making are endothermic or exothermic processes. Give a reason for each.

2 marks · foundation

Bond breaking is endothermic because energy must be absorbed to overcome the forces holding the atoms together. Bond making is exothermic because energy is released to the surroundings when atoms form a more stable bonded arrangement.

  • Bond breaking is endothermic — energy must be absorbed/input to overcome the attraction between atoms (1m)
  • Bond making is exothermic — energy is released to the surroundings as atoms form a more stable arrangement (1m)

This is a foundational fact: bond BREAKING is endothermic (energy must be absorbed to pull atoms apart), while bond MAKING is exothermic (energy is released as atoms come together in a more stable arrangement). Confusing these two is one of the most common errors in energy change questions.

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14.

Explain how you would determine, from a bond energy calculation, whether a reaction is exothermic or endothermic.

2 marks · standard

If the energy released when making bonds in the products is greater than the energy absorbed when breaking bonds in the reactants, the reaction is exothermic and ΔH is negative. If the energy absorbed breaking bonds is greater, the reaction is endothermic and ΔH is positive.

  • If energy released making bonds is greater than energy absorbed breaking bonds, the reaction is exothermic (ΔH is negative) (1m)
  • If energy absorbed breaking bonds is greater than energy released making bonds, the reaction is endothermic (ΔH is positive) (1m)

Calculate delta H = (energy to break bonds in reactants) minus (energy released making bonds in products). If the result is negative, forming bonds released more energy than breaking bonds absorbed — the reaction is exothermic. If positive, more energy was absorbed than released — the reaction is endothermic. A helpful memory rule: positive delta H = endothermic (energy 'put in'); negative delta H = exothermic (energy 'given out').

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15.

In a reaction, the total energy needed to break bonds is 840 kJ/mol and the total energy released when bonds form is 1050 kJ/mol. Calculate ΔH for this reaction. Give the sign and units in your answer.

2 marks · standard
  • ΔH = 840 − 1050 (correct method shown) (1m)
  • ΔH = −210 kJ/mol (correct answer with negative sign) (1m)

ΔH = energy absorbed breaking bonds − energy released making bonds = 840 − 1050 = −210 kJ/mol. The negative sign shows this is an exothermic reaction.

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16.

Explain why bond energy calculations give approximate values rather than exact values for the enthalpy change of a reaction.

2 marks · standard

Bond energy values used in calculations are average values taken from measurements across many different molecules. The actual energy of a specific C-H bond, for example, varies slightly depending on the other atoms in the molecule, so the calculation gives an approximate rather than exact answer.

  • Bond energies in data tables are average values measured across many different molecules (1m)
  • The actual bond energy for a specific bond varies depending on the surrounding atoms/rest of the molecule (1m)

Bond energies listed in data tables are AVERAGE values calculated from measurements across many different molecules. However, the actual energy of, say, a C-H bond in methane is slightly different from a C-H bond in ethanol because the surrounding atoms influence the bond. Since the tabulated values are averages, calculations give an approximate delta H rather than an exact value. This is a key limitation of the method.

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17.

Which statement correctly describes the energy change when chemical bonds are broken?

  • A. Energy is released to the surroundings
  • B. Energy is absorbed from the surroundings
  • C. No energy change occurs
  • D. Energy may be released or absorbed depending on the bond
1 mark · foundation

Breaking bonds always requires energy input from the surroundings. This is an endothermic process because energy must be supplied to overcome the attraction holding atoms together.

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18.

When new chemical bonds are formed during a reaction, energy is:

  • A. Always absorbed from the surroundings
  • B. Never changed
  • C. Always released to the surroundings
  • D. Sometimes released, sometimes absorbed
1 mark · foundation

Bond making always releases energy to the surroundings. New bonds are more stable than separated atoms, so the system loses energy (exothermic) when they form.

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19.

In a reaction, the energy needed to break bonds is 500 kJ/mol and the energy released when bonds form is 700 kJ/mol. The overall reaction is:

  • A. Exothermic, because more energy is released making bonds than is absorbed breaking bonds
  • B. Endothermic, because more energy is needed to break bonds
  • C. Neither exothermic nor endothermic
  • D. Endothermic, because energy is always needed to start a reaction
1 mark · foundation

Energy released making bonds (700 kJ) > energy absorbed breaking bonds (500 kJ). The extra 200 kJ is released to surroundings, making the reaction exothermic. ΔH = 500 − 700 = −200 kJ/mol.

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20.

State what is meant by the term 'bond energy'.

1 mark · foundation

Bond energy is the energy required to break one mole of a particular covalent bond in gaseous molecules.

  • The energy required to break one mole of a specific bond (in gaseous molecules) (1m)

Bond energy is the energy needed to break one mole of a specific covalent bond. It is always a positive value because bond breaking always requires energy (it is endothermic). Bond energies are measured in kJ/mol and are used to calculate overall energy changes in reactions.

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21.

What is the correct definition of bond energy?

  • A. The energy released when one mole of a substance burns completely
  • B. The energy needed to break one mole of a particular bond in gaseous molecules
  • C. The total energy stored in all bonds of one mole of a compound
  • D. The energy released when atoms form one mole of ionic bonds
1 mark · standard

Bond energy (units: kJ/mol) is the energy required to break one mole of a specific covalent bond in gaseous molecules under standard conditions. It is always positive because bond breaking requires energy.

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22.

Which formula is used to calculate the overall energy change (ΔH) of a reaction using bond energies?

  • A. ΔH = energy released making bonds − energy absorbed breaking bonds
  • B. ΔH = energy absorbed breaking bonds × energy released making bonds
  • C. ΔH = energy released making bonds + energy absorbed breaking bonds
  • D. ΔH = energy absorbed breaking bonds − energy released making bonds
1 mark · standard

ΔH = energy in (bonds broken) − energy out (bonds made). A negative result means exothermic (more energy released than absorbed); a positive result means endothermic.

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23.

A student uses bond energies from a data table to calculate ΔH for a reaction. The student notices their answer differs from the experimentally measured value. Which statement best explains this?

  • A. Bond energy values in tables are average values and may not match the exact bond in the molecule
  • B. The student used the wrong formula
  • C. Bond energies are only valid for ionic compounds
  • D. Bond energy calculations always give the exact experimental value
1 mark · standard

Tabulated bond energies are average values measured across many different molecules. The actual bond energy for a specific C-H bond, for example, varies slightly depending on the rest of the molecule. This is why bond energy calculations give approximate, not exact, results.

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24.

For the reaction H₂ + ½O₂ → H₂O, using bond energies H-H = 436 kJ/mol, O=O = 498 kJ/mol, O-H = 463 kJ/mol, what is ΔH?

  • A. +241 kJ/mol
  • B. +685 kJ/mol
  • C. −241 kJ/mol
  • D. −926 kJ/mol
1 mark · standard

Bonds broken: 1×H-H (436) + ½×O=O (249) = 685 kJ. Bonds made: 2×O-H (926) = 926 kJ. ΔH = 685 − 926 = −241 kJ/mol. Negative = exothermic.

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25.

A reaction has ΔH = +320 kJ/mol. Which conclusion can be drawn about the bond energies involved?

  • A. More energy was released making bonds than was absorbed breaking bonds
  • B. Equal energy was absorbed and released
  • C. No bonds were broken in this reaction
  • D. More energy was absorbed breaking bonds than was released making bonds
1 mark · standard

A positive ΔH indicates an endothermic reaction. Using ΔH = energy in (breaking) − energy out (making): a positive result means energy in > energy out, so more energy was absorbed breaking bonds than was released making bonds.

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Topic Fuel Cells

5
1.

Evaluate the use of hydrogen fuel cells in vehicles. In your answer, include advantages and limitations of this technology.

4 marks · higher

Hydrogen fuel cells offer several advantages for vehicle use. The only product at the point of use is water, so there is no direct air pollution or carbon dioxide emissions from the vehicle itself. Fuel cells have no moving parts and are highly efficient compared to combustion engines. They can operate continuously as long as hydrogen is supplied, with no long recharging time needed. However, there are significant limitations. Hydrogen gas is difficult and potentially dangerous to store safely in compressed tanks. A further limitation is that the process of producing hydrogen gas currently relies largely on fossil fuels (e.g. steam reforming of methane), which releases carbon dioxide. This undermines the environmental benefit unless the hydrogen is produced using renewable energy.

  • Advantage: only water (or no carbon dioxide / no polluting gases) produced at point of use / no direct air pollution from the vehicle (1m)
  • Advantage: no moving parts (OR highly efficient OR continuous operation / no waiting to recharge) (1m)
  • Limitation: hydrogen is difficult (or dangerous) to store / compressed hydrogen is a safety hazard (1m)
  • Limitation: producing hydrogen requires energy, currently often from fossil fuels / CO₂ is released in making hydrogen / overall process may not be carbon-neutral (1m)

This is an evaluate question, so you must give both advantages and limitations — a one-sided answer cannot reach full marks. The two key advantages are: (1) only water is produced at the point of use — no CO₂, no particulates, no nitrogen oxides; (2) no moving parts, high efficiency, and continuous operation. The two key limitations are: (1) hydrogen is difficult to store safely as a compressed flammable gas; (2) making hydrogen currently involves fossil fuels (steam reforming of methane produces CO₂), so the real-world environmental benefit depends entirely on how the hydrogen was generated. If exam questions ask you to 'evaluate', always write at least two distinct advantages AND two distinct limitations for a 4-mark question.

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2.

Compare a non-rechargeable alkaline battery with a rechargeable lithium-ion battery. Give one advantage and one disadvantage of the rechargeable battery.

3 marks · standard

A rechargeable lithium-ion battery can be recharged by reversing the electrode reactions using an external electrical current. An alkaline battery cannot be recharged because the electrode reactions are irreversible, so once the chemicals are used up the battery must be discarded. One advantage of the rechargeable battery is that it can be used many times, reducing waste and long-term cost. One disadvantage is the higher initial purchase cost compared to a non-rechargeable battery.

  • Rechargeable battery: electrode reactions can be reversed (by external electrical current / by applying a current) so it can be recharged / used many times (1m)
  • Non-rechargeable: reactions are irreversible / chemicals are used up / must be discarded / single use (1m)
  • One named advantage of rechargeable (e.g. lower long-term cost OR less waste/more environmentally friendly OR can be used many times) OR one named disadvantage (e.g. higher initial cost OR requires charging time/charger OR degrades over many cycles) (1m)

The key difference is reversibility. In a rechargeable lithium-ion battery, the electrode reactions can be reversed by passing an external electric current through the battery — this restores the chemicals to their original state. In a non-rechargeable alkaline battery, the reactions are irreversible, so the battery is single-use. For the third mark, examiners award any sensible named advantage (lower long-term cost, less waste) or disadvantage (higher purchase price, needs a charger). 'Cheaper' alone is not enough — specify whether you mean purchase cost or long-term running cost.

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3.

In a hydrogen–oxygen fuel cell, describe what happens at the anode and at the cathode. Include the names of the processes occurring at each electrode.

3 marks · higher

At the anode, hydrogen gas is oxidised: H₂ → 2H⁺ + 2e⁻. Hydrogen loses electrons — this is oxidation. The electrons travel through the external circuit to the cathode. At the cathode, oxygen gas is reduced: ½O₂ + 2H⁺ + 2e⁻ → H₂O. Oxygen gains electrons and combines with hydrogen ions to form water — this is reduction.

  • At the anode: hydrogen is oxidised / loses electrons (H₂ → 2H⁺ + 2e⁻ or equivalent correct half-equation) (1m)
  • At the cathode: oxygen is reduced / gains electrons (½O₂ + 2H⁺ + 2e⁻ → H₂O or equivalent) (1m)
  • Correct identification of process: oxidation at anode AND reduction at cathode (both required for this mark) (1m)

In a hydrogen–oxygen fuel cell, the two electrode reactions are mirror images of each other. At the anode, hydrogen (H₂) loses electrons — OIL: Oxidation Is Loss — producing H⁺ ions and electrons (H₂ → 2H⁺ + 2e⁻). At the cathode, oxygen gains those electrons — RIG: Reduction Is Gain — and reacts with H⁺ ions to form water (½O₂ + 2H⁺ + 2e⁻ → H₂O). The third mark requires you to name BOTH processes correctly: oxidation at anode and reduction at cathode. A common mistake is to swap them — remember that in any electrochemical cell (not just electrolysis), the anode is where oxidation occurs.

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4.

A simple electrochemical cell is made by placing two different metal electrodes into an electrolyte. Which statement correctly describes what affects the voltage produced?

  • A. The larger the size of the electrodes, the greater the voltage
  • B. The greater the difference in reactivity between the two metals, the greater the voltage
  • C. Two identical metal electrodes always produce a small voltage
  • D. Using a more concentrated electrolyte always increases the voltage
1 mark · foundation

In an electrochemical cell, voltage is produced because the more reactive metal loses electrons more readily. The greater the reactivity difference between the two metals, the greater the driving force for electron transfer — so the larger the voltage. Two identical metal electrodes produce zero voltage (no reactivity difference). Electrode size and electrolyte concentration do not directly determine voltage in the way reactivity difference does.

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5.

Which equation correctly shows the overall reaction in a hydrogen–oxygen fuel cell?

  • A. H₂ + O → H₂O
  • B. H₂ + O₂ → H₂O
  • C. 2H₂ + O₂ → 2H₂O
  • D. 2H₂ + 2O₂ → 2H₂O
1 mark · standard

The overall reaction in a hydrogen–oxygen fuel cell is 2H₂ + O₂ → 2H₂O. This is a balanced equation: 4 hydrogen atoms and 2 oxygen atoms on each side. Option B (H₂ + O₂ → H₂O) is unbalanced — 2 oxygen atoms on the left but only 1 on the right. Option A uses O (an oxygen atom) instead of O₂ (oxygen molecule). Option D has too many oxygen molecules. The only product is water — this is a key advantage of the fuel cell.

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Atomic Structure

27
1.

Compare the plum pudding model and the nuclear model of the atom. Explain how the alpha particle scattering experiment provided evidence that led scientists to abandon the plum pudding model and adopt the nuclear model.

5 marks · challenge

The plum pudding model proposed by Thomson described the atom as a sphere of diffuse positive charge with electrons embedded throughout it, like plums in a pudding. The nuclear model, developed by Rutherford after the alpha scattering experiment, describes the atom as having a tiny, dense, positively charged nucleus at the centre, surrounded by electrons in mostly empty space. In the alpha scattering experiment, a thin gold foil was bombarded with positively charged alpha particles. If the plum pudding model were correct, the diffuse positive charge would have caused only small deflections of the alpha particles. However, the results showed that most alpha particles passed straight through the foil (evidence that the atom is mostly empty space), a small proportion were deflected at large angles (evidence that there is a concentrated region of positive charge), and very few — about 1 in 8000 — bounced directly back (evidence that the nucleus is very small relative to the atom). This evidence was inconsistent with the plum pudding model and led to the nuclear model: a tiny, dense, positively charged nucleus containing protons, with electrons orbiting at a distance in mostly empty space.

  • Plum pudding model: diffuse/spread-out positive charge with electrons embedded throughout — compared to nuclear model which has a tiny, dense, positive nucleus with electrons in empty space around it (1m)
  • Most alpha particles passed straight through — evidence that the atom is mostly empty space (1m)
  • Some alpha particles deflected at large angles — evidence for a concentrated region of positive charge (the nucleus) (1m)
  • A very small number bounced straight back — evidence that the nucleus is very small relative to the size of the atom (1m)
  • The plum pudding model could not explain large-angle deflections / bouncing back — the results were inconsistent with diffuse positive charge, so the nuclear model was adopted (1m)

The plum pudding model had positive charge spread evenly through the atom, predicting only small deflections for any incoming particle. The nuclear model instead places all the positive charge in a tiny dense nucleus surrounded by mostly empty space. Rutherford's alpha scattering experiment was decisive: the three types of result (straight through, large deflections, bounce-back) mapped directly onto three features of the nuclear model (empty space, concentrated nucleus, tiny nucleus). A common error is to describe only one observation — the full mark scheme requires all three alpha particle outcomes and their interpretations. Another error is to confuse the models: it is the plum pudding model that was disproved, not the nuclear model.

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2.

Neon has three isotopes: Ne-20 (90.48% abundance), Ne-21 (0.27% abundance) and Ne-22 (9.25% abundance). Explain why the relative atomic mass of neon is closer to 20 than to 21 or 22, and calculate its relative atomic mass to two decimal places. [4 marks]

4 marks · higher

Neon-20 has the highest abundance at 90.48%, so it contributes most to the weighted average. The relative atomic mass is close to 20 because the vast majority of neon atoms are neon-20. Calculation: Ar = (20 x 0.9048) + (21 x 0.0027) + (22 x 0.0925) = 18.096 + 0.057 + 2.035 = 20.19.

  • Ne-20 has by far the highest abundance (90.48%), so it contributes most to the weighted average (1m)
  • Because most atoms are Ne-20, the Ar is close to (but slightly above) 20 (1m)
  • Correct calculation method: multiply each isotope mass by fractional abundance and sum (1m)
  • Correct answer: Ar = 20.19 (accept 20.18-20.20 for rounding) (1m)

The relative atomic mass of neon is close to 20 because Ne-20 is by far the most abundant isotope (90.48%). In a weighted average, the most abundant isotope contributes most to the result. Ne-21 (0.27%) and Ne-22 (9.25%) shift the value slightly above 20. Calculation: Ar = (20 x 0.9048) + (21 x 0.0027) + (22 x 0.0925) = 18.096 + 0.057 + 2.035 = 20.19. This demonstrates why relative atomic mass is a weighted mean, not a simple average.

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3.

Describe the Rutherford alpha-particle scattering experiment and explain what the results revealed about the structure of the atom. [4 marks]

4 marks · higher

In the Rutherford scattering experiment, alpha particles were fired at a thin gold foil. Most passed straight through, a small number were deflected at small angles, and a very small number bounced straight back. Most particles passing through showed the atom is mostly empty space. The small, dense, positively charged nucleus was deduced from the few large-angle deflections: these particles must have passed close to a concentrated positive charge that repelled them.

  • Alpha particles fired at thin gold foil; most passed straight through (1m)
  • A small number deflected at large angles or bounced back (1m)
  • Most particles passing through shows the atom is mostly empty space (1m)
  • Large deflections show a small, dense, positively charged nucleus at the centre (1m)

In the Rutherford gold foil experiment, positively charged alpha particles were fired at thin gold foil. Three observations were made: (1) Most passed straight through — showing atoms are mostly empty space. (2) A small number were deflected at small angles — showing some positive charge in the atom. (3) A very small number bounced almost straight back — showing there is a tiny, dense, positively charged nucleus at the centre. The nucleus repels the positive alpha particles when they pass close to it.

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4.

Chlorine has two naturally occurring isotopes: chlorine-35 and chlorine-37. A chlorine atom can also form a chloride ion (Cl⁻). Evaluate how the atomic structure of chlorine-35, chlorine-37, and the chloride ion differ, and explain why isotopes of the same element have identical chemical properties but different relative atomic masses.

4 marks · challenge

Chlorine-35 has 17 protons, 18 neutrons, and 17 electrons. Chlorine-37 has 17 protons, 20 neutrons, and 17 electrons. The chloride ion (Cl⁻) has 17 protons, 18 neutrons, and 18 electrons (one more electron than neutral chlorine-35). Isotopes of chlorine have the same number of protons and therefore the same number of electrons in the same electron configuration. Since chemical properties depend on electron configuration — particularly the arrangement of outer shell electrons — isotopes react identically. Both chlorine-35 and chlorine-37 have 7 outer shell electrons, giving them the same reactivity. However, because they have different numbers of neutrons, the two isotopes have different masses. The relative atomic mass of chlorine (approximately 35.5) is a weighted average of the masses of its isotopes based on their abundances: chlorine-35 is more abundant (~75%) and chlorine-37 less abundant (~25%), giving a weighted average between 35 and 37.

  • Correct subatomic particles for two of the three species: Cl-35 (17p, 18n, 17e), Cl-37 (17p, 20n, 17e), Cl⁻ (17p, 18n, 18e) (1m)
  • Isotopes have the same number of protons and therefore the same electron configuration (1m)
  • Chemical properties depend on electron configuration (especially outer shell electrons) — so isotopes have identical chemical properties (1m)
  • Different numbers of neutrons give different masses; relative atomic mass is the weighted mean of isotope masses based on their abundances (1m)

This question links three related concepts: isotopes, ions, and the link between electron configuration and chemical properties. Key points: (1) isotopes differ only in neutron number — same protons, same electrons; (2) the chloride ion forms when chlorine gains one electron, so it has 18 electrons; (3) chemical properties are governed by electron configuration, so isotopes react identically; (4) different neutron counts mean different masses, and the relative atomic mass is a weighted mean. A common error is saying isotopes have different chemical properties — they do not, because their electron configurations are identical. Another error is confusing the chloride ion with an isotope.

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5.

Explain what is meant by the relative atomic mass of an element and how it is calculated from isotopic data. [3 marks]

3 marks · standard

The relative atomic mass (Ar) is the weighted mean mass of an atom of an element compared to one-twelfth of the mass of a carbon-12 atom. It is calculated by multiplying each isotope's mass by its percentage abundance, summing the results, and dividing by 100. For example, if an element has two isotopes, the more abundant one contributes more to the Ar value.

  • Relative atomic mass is a weighted mean/average mass of an atom relative to 1/12 of carbon-12 (or compared to carbon-12 scale) (1m)
  • Each isotope mass is multiplied by its percentage abundance (or fractional abundance) (1m)
  • The sum of these products is divided by 100 (if using percentages) to give the weighted average (1m)

The relative atomic mass (Ar) is the weighted mean mass of an atom of an element compared to one-twelfth of the mass of a carbon-12 atom. To calculate it: multiply each isotope's mass number by its percentage abundance, sum the results, then divide by 100. The more abundant an isotope, the more it contributes to the Ar value. A simple average of mass numbers would be wrong because it ignores the different proportions of each isotope.

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6.

Describe the rules for filling electron shells in an atom and write the electron configuration for chlorine (atomic number 17). [3 marks]

3 marks · standard

Electrons fill the lowest available energy level (shell) first. The first shell holds a maximum of 2 electrons; the second and third shells each hold a maximum of 8 electrons. Chlorine has 17 electrons, so its configuration is 2, 8, 7.

  • Electrons fill lowest energy shell first; first shell holds maximum 2 electrons (1m)
  • Second and third shells each hold a maximum of 8 electrons (1m)
  • Chlorine configuration: 2, 8, 7 (1m)

Electrons fill the lowest energy shell (closest to the nucleus) first. The first shell holds a maximum of 2 electrons; the second and third shells each hold a maximum of 8 electrons. Chlorine has atomic number 17, so it has 17 electrons. The configuration is: first shell 2, second shell 8, third shell 7 — written as 2,8,7. The outer shell with 7 electrons explains why chlorine needs one more electron to react.

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7.

Using the diagram, describe the structure of an atom. [3 marks]

3 marks · standard

An atom has a small, dense, positively charged nucleus at its centre. The nucleus contains protons (positive charge) and neutrons (no charge). Electrons, which have a negative charge, are arranged in shells (energy levels) that surround the nucleus at various distances. Most of the atom is empty space.

  • The nucleus is at the centre / the nucleus contains protons and neutrons (1m)
  • Electrons are arranged in shells / energy levels around the nucleus (1m)
  • Most of the atom is empty space / the nucleus is very small / dense compared to the size of the atom (1m)

An atom has a tiny, dense, positively charged nucleus at its centre, containing protons (+1) and neutrons (0 charge). Electrons (-1) occupy shells (energy levels) at increasing distances around the nucleus. The nucleus is approximately 100,000 times smaller than the atom itself — so most of the volume of an atom is empty space.

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8.

Describe the Bohr model of the atom, including how it improved on the earlier nuclear model. [3 marks]

3 marks · higher

The Bohr model proposed that electrons orbit the nucleus in fixed shells (energy levels) at specific distances. Electrons in lower shells have less energy than those in outer shells. This improved on the earlier nuclear model by explaining why electrons do not spiral into the nucleus and by introducing the concept of quantised energy levels.

  • Electrons orbit the nucleus in fixed shells or energy levels at specific distances/energies (1m)
  • Electrons in inner shells have lower energy than those in outer shells (1m)
  • The model improved on the nuclear model by explaining atomic stability or by introducing quantised energy levels (1m)

The Bohr model (1913) proposed that electrons orbit the nucleus in fixed shells (energy levels) at specific distances and energies. Electrons in inner shells have less energy than those in outer shells. This improved on the earlier nuclear model (Rutherford, 1911) by explaining why electrons do not spiral into the nucleus: they can only occupy fixed energy levels. The Bohr model also introduced the concept of quantised (discrete) energy levels for electrons.

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9.

A magnesium atom (atomic number 12) loses two electrons to form an ion. Describe the magnesium ion formed, including its charge and the number of each subatomic particle it contains. [3 marks]

3 marks · higher

When a magnesium atom loses two electrons it forms an Mg2+ ion with a 2+ charge. The ion contains 12 protons, 12 neutrons (for Mg-24), and 10 electrons. It has a positive charge because there are more protons than electrons.

  • Ion has a 2+ charge (Mg2+) (1m)
  • 12 protons and 10 electrons in the ion (1m)
  • The ion has a positive charge because the number of protons exceeds the number of electrons (1m)

A neutral magnesium atom (atomic number 12) has 12 protons and 12 electrons. When it loses 2 electrons to form an ion, it has 12 protons but only 10 electrons. The ion is written Mg2+ because there are 2 more protons (+) than electrons (-), giving a net charge of 2+. The proton number does not change during ion formation — only electron count changes. A common misconception is that protons are lost, but it is always electrons that are lost or gained.

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10.

Explain how the emission of light by atoms provides evidence for the existence of electron energy levels. [3 marks]

3 marks · higher

When atoms are excited, electrons absorb energy and move to higher energy levels. When electrons return to lower energy levels they release this energy as light of specific wavelengths. Because only specific wavelengths are emitted, this shows electrons can only exist at fixed (quantised) energy levels.

  • Electrons absorb energy and move to higher energy levels when atoms are excited (1m)
  • Electrons release energy as light (photons) of specific wavelengths when they fall to lower energy levels (1m)
  • Only specific wavelengths emitted proves electrons occupy fixed/quantised energy levels (1m)

When atoms absorb energy (e.g. from heat or light), electrons jump from lower to higher energy levels. When these excited electrons fall back to lower energy levels, they release energy as light of specific wavelengths. Because only specific (discrete) wavelengths are emitted — seen as a line spectrum — this proves that electrons can only exist at fixed, quantised energy levels. A continuous spectrum would suggest electrons could have any energy, but the observed line spectra prove this is not the case.

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11.

Describe the structure of an atom, including the location of subatomic particles. [2 marks]

2 marks · foundation

The nucleus is at the centre of the atom and contains protons and neutrons. Electrons are arranged in shells (energy levels) around the nucleus.

  • Nucleus at centre containing protons and neutrons (1m)
  • Electrons arranged in shells/energy levels around the nucleus (1m)

An atom has a small, dense nucleus at its centre containing protons (charge +1) and neutrons (charge 0). Electrons (charge -1) are arranged in shells (energy levels) that surround the nucleus. The nucleus makes up almost all of the atom's mass, while electrons have negligible mass. Most of the volume of an atom is empty space between the nucleus and the electron shells.

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12.

Define the term isotope and give one example of a pair of isotopes. [2 marks]

2 marks · foundation

Isotopes are atoms of the same element that have the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons. An example is carbon-12 and carbon-14.

  • Same number of protons (same element) but different number of neutrons (different mass numbers) (1m)
  • A named correct example of a pair of isotopes (1m)

Isotopes are atoms of the same element (same number of protons) but with different numbers of neutrons, giving different mass numbers. Because the proton number is identical, the electron configuration is the same, so isotopes have identical chemical properties. Physical properties (such as density and melting point) can differ slightly. Common examples include carbon-12 and carbon-14, or chlorine-35 and chlorine-37.

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13.

State the relative charge and mass of each sub-atomic particle shown in the diagram. [2 marks]

2 marks · foundation

Protons have a relative charge of +1 and a relative mass of 1. Neutrons have a relative charge of 0 and a relative mass of 1. Electrons have a relative charge of -1 and a relative mass of approximately 1/1836 (effectively negligible or 0).

  • Proton: charge +1, mass 1 AND Neutron: charge 0, mass 1 (1m)
  • Electron: charge -1, mass negligible / 1/1836 / effectively zero (1m)

Sub-atomic particle data: Proton — relative charge +1, relative mass 1. Neutron — relative charge 0, relative mass 1. Electron — relative charge -1, relative mass 1/1836 (negligible). Protons and neutrons are located in the nucleus; electrons orbit in shells outside the nucleus. Because the electron mass is so tiny compared to protons and neutrons, the mass of an atom is concentrated almost entirely in the nucleus.

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14.

Explain what information can be obtained from the mass number and atomic number of an atom. [2 marks]

2 marks · standard

The atomic number gives the number of protons in the nucleus (and the number of electrons in a neutral atom). The mass number gives the total number of protons plus neutrons, so the number of neutrons can be calculated as mass number minus atomic number.

  • Atomic number = number of protons (= electrons in a neutral atom) (1m)
  • Mass number = protons + neutrons, so neutrons = mass number - atomic number (1m)

The atomic number gives the number of protons in the nucleus (and also the number of electrons in a neutral atom, since atoms have no overall charge). The mass number is the total count of protons plus neutrons in the nucleus. Subtracting the atomic number from the mass number therefore gives the number of neutrons. A common mistake is confusing these two numbers — remember: atomic number = protons; mass number = protons + neutrons.

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15.

Explain why isotopes of the same element have identical chemical properties. [2 marks]

2 marks · standard

Isotopes have the same number of protons and therefore the same number of electrons in a neutral atom. Chemical properties depend on the electron configuration, so isotopes behave identically in chemical reactions.

  • Isotopes have the same number of protons and therefore the same number of electrons (in a neutral atom) (1m)
  • Chemical properties depend on electron configuration, so isotopes react identically (1m)

Isotopes of the same element have identical numbers of protons and therefore the same number of electrons in the neutral atom. Chemical properties depend entirely on electron configuration — how many electrons an atom has and how they are arranged. Since isotopes have the same electron arrangement, they participate in chemical reactions in exactly the same way. Their only differences are physical (related to their different masses and neutron numbers).

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16.

Copper exists as two isotopes: copper-63 (69% abundance) and copper-65 (31% abundance). Calculate the relative atomic mass of copper. Give your answer to one decimal place. [2 marks]

2 marks · standard
  • Correct method: (63 x 69/100) + (65 x 31/100) or (63 x 0.69) + (65 x 0.31) (1m)
  • Correct answer: 63.62 (accept 63.6) (1m)

Ar = (63 x 0.69) + (65 x 0.31) = 43.47 + 20.15 = 63.62, which rounds to 63.6.

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17.

Explain why atoms are electrically neutral using the diagram. [2 marks]

2 marks · standard

Atoms are electrically neutral because the number of protons (positive charge) in the nucleus is equal to the number of electrons (negative charge) in the shells. Each proton has a charge of +1 and each electron has a charge of -1. Because the positive and negative charges are equal in number, they cancel out, giving the atom an overall charge of zero.

  • Number of protons equals the number of electrons in a neutral atom (1m)
  • Positive and negative charges cancel / balance out, giving an overall charge of zero (1m)

A neutral atom always has the same number of protons as electrons. Protons carry a charge of +1 and electrons carry -1. With equal numbers of each, the total positive charge exactly cancels the total negative charge, resulting in an overall charge of zero. If an atom loses or gains electrons it becomes an ion with a net positive or negative charge.

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18.

What does the atomic number of an element tell you?

  • A. The number of neutrons in the nucleus
  • B. The total mass of the atom
  • C. The number of protons in the nucleus
  • D. The number of electrons in the outer shell
1 mark · foundation

The atomic number (also called proton number) gives the number of protons in the nucleus. Since atoms are neutral, this also equals the number of electrons. It defines which element the atom belongs to.

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19.

A sodium atom has an atomic number of 11 and a mass number of 23. How many neutrons does it contain?

  • A. 11
  • B. 23
  • C. 34
  • D. 12
1 mark · foundation

Number of neutrons = mass number - atomic number = 23 - 11 = 12. The mass number includes both protons and neutrons, so subtracting the proton count gives neutrons.

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20.

In a neutral atom of lithium (atomic number 3), how are the electrons arranged?

  • A. 2 electrons in the first shell and 1 in the second shell
  • B. 3 electrons all in the first shell
  • C. 1 electron in the first shell and 2 in the second shell
  • D. 3 electrons all in the second shell
1 mark · foundation

The first electron shell holds a maximum of 2 electrons. Lithium has 3 electrons, so 2 fill the first shell and the third goes into the second shell. Electron configuration: 2,1.

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21.

Which row in the table correctly shows the charges of the three subatomic particles?

  • A. Proton: +1, Neutron: 0, Electron: -1
  • B. Proton: 0, Neutron: +1, Electron: -1
  • C. Proton: +1, Neutron: -1, Electron: 0
  • D. Proton: -1, Neutron: 0, Electron: +1
1 mark · foundation

Proton has a charge of +1, neutron is neutral (0), and electron has a charge of -1. In a neutral atom the number of protons equals the number of electrons, so the charges cancel.

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22.

Which part of the atom shown in the diagram has a positive charge?

  • A. The electrons in the outer shell
  • B. The nucleus
  • C. The electron shells
  • D. The whole atom
1 mark · foundation

The nucleus contains protons, which each carry a charge of +1. Neutrons in the nucleus are neutral. Electrons carry a charge of -1 and orbit in shells around the nucleus. In a neutral atom the number of protons equals the number of electrons, so the atom as a whole is neutral — only the nucleus itself is positively charged.

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23.

Where is most of the mass of an atom concentrated according to the diagram?

  • A. In the outer electron shells
  • B. Spread evenly throughout the atom
  • C. In the first electron shell only
  • D. In the nucleus
1 mark · foundation

The nucleus contains protons and neutrons, each with a relative mass of 1. Electrons have a negligible mass (approximately 1/1836 of a proton). Because the nucleus contains all the protons and neutrons, almost all the mass of the atom is concentrated in the tiny nucleus.

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24.

Chlorine has two isotopes: chlorine-35 and chlorine-37. Which statement correctly describes these isotopes?

  • A. They have the same number of neutrons but different numbers of protons
  • B. They have the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons
  • C. They have different numbers of protons and different chemical properties
  • D. They have the same mass number but different atomic numbers
1 mark · standard

Isotopes are atoms of the same element with the same number of protons (atomic number = 17 for chlorine) but different numbers of neutrons. Cl-35 has 18 neutrons; Cl-37 has 20 neutrons. Their chemical properties are identical because chemical behaviour depends on electron configuration, which depends on proton number.

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25.

Boron exists as two isotopes: boron-10 (20% abundance) and boron-11 (80% abundance). What is the relative atomic mass of boron?

  • A. 10.2
  • B. 10.8
  • C. 10.5
  • D. 11.0
1 mark · standard

Relative atomic mass = (mass x abundance / 100) for each isotope, summed. Ar = (10 x 20/100) + (11 x 80/100) = 2.0 + 8.8 = 10.8.

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26.

An atom has the electron configuration 2, 8, 6. In which period and group of the periodic table is this element?

  • A. Period 2, Group 6
  • B. Period 6, Group 3
  • C. Period 3, Group 6
  • D. Period 3, Group 16
1 mark · standard

The number of occupied electron shells gives the period (3 shells = Period 3). The number of electrons in the outermost shell gives the group (6 outer electrons = Group 6). This element is sulfur (atomic number 16).

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27.

Why is the mass of an atom approximately equal to its mass number, even though atoms also contain electrons?

  • A. Electrons are located outside the nucleus so their mass is not counted
  • B. Electrons have a relative mass of approximately 1/1836 compared to protons, so their contribution to total mass is negligible
  • C. The mass number only counts protons, and neutrons have zero mass
  • D. Each electron has a relative mass of approximately 1/1836, making the total electron mass negligible compared to the nuclear mass
1 mark · standard

Each electron has a relative mass of approximately 1/1836 of a proton. Even in an atom with many electrons, their combined mass is a tiny fraction of the nuclear mass. The mass number (protons + neutrons, each relative mass ~1) therefore closely approximates the total atomic mass.

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Electronic Configuration

24
1.

A student claims that two elements must be in the same period if they have the same number of electrons in their outer shell. Evaluate this claim.

4 marks · challenge

The student's claim is incorrect. Elements with the same number of outer shell electrons are in the same GROUP, not the same period. For example, lithium (2,1) and sodium (2,8,1) both have 1 outer electron but are in different periods (period 2 and period 3 respectively). The period number tells you the number of occupied shells, not the outer electrons. Two elements are in the same period if they have the same number of occupied shells.

  • Claim is incorrect — same outer electrons means same GROUP (not same period) (1m)
  • Period number equals number of occupied shells (not outer electrons) (1m)
  • Correct example: two elements with same outer electrons but in different periods (e.g. Li 2,1 and Na 2,8,1 are both group 1 but period 2 and 3 respectively) (1m)
  • Correct definition of what places elements in the same period: same number of occupied shells (1m)

The claim is incorrect. Same outer electrons = same GROUP. Period = number of occupied shells. Li (2,1) and Na (2,8,1) are both group 1 (1 outer electron) but different periods (2 and 3). A student claiming they are in the same period is confusing group with period.

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2.

An element has atomic number 16. Write its electronic configuration, identify the element, and state its group and period.

3 marks · standard

The electronic configuration is 2, 8, 6. The element is sulfur. It is in period 3 (three occupied shells) and group 6 (six outer electrons).

  • Correct electronic configuration: 2, 8, 6 (1m)
  • Period 3 (three occupied shells) (1m)
  • Group 6 (six electrons in outer shell) (1m)

16 electrons: shell 1 = 2, shell 2 = 8, shell 3 = 16 - 2 - 8 = 6. Configuration: 2, 8, 6 (sulfur). Three shells — period 3. Six outer electrons — group 6.

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3.

Explain the link between an element's electronic configuration and its position in the periodic table.

3 marks · higher

The period number equals the number of occupied electron shells. The group number equals the number of electrons in the outer shell. For example, sodium with configuration 2, 8, 1 is in period 3 (three shells) and group 1 (one outer electron).

  • Period number = number of occupied/used electron shells (1m)
  • Group number = number of electrons in the outer shell (1m)
  • Correct example linking configuration to period and group (e.g. sodium 2,8,1 is period 3, group 1) (1m)

Period number = number of occupied shells. Group number = outer electrons. These two rules mean you can work out any element's position from its electronic configuration, or write its configuration from its position.

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4.

An element has atomic number 20. Write its electronic configuration and state its period and group.

3 marks · higher

The electronic configuration is 2, 8, 8, 2. It is in period 4 because it has 4 occupied shells, and in group 2 because it has 2 electrons in the outer shell. This element is calcium.

  • Correct electronic configuration: 2, 8, 8, 2 (1m)
  • Period 4 (because 4 shells are occupied) (1m)
  • Group 2 (because 2 electrons in outer shell) (1m)

20 electrons fill as 2, 8, 8, 2 (calcium). Four shells are occupied — period 4. The outer shell has 2 electrons — group 2.

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5.

Using electronic configurations, explain why lithium and sodium are placed in the same group of the periodic table.

3 marks · higher

Lithium has electronic configuration 2, 1 and sodium has electronic configuration 2, 8, 1. Both have 1 electron in the outer shell, so both are in group 1. Elements in the same group have the same number of outer electrons and therefore similar chemical properties.

  • Lithium configuration: 2, 1 (or correct electronic configuration stated) (1m)
  • Sodium configuration: 2, 8, 1 (or correct electronic configuration stated) (1m)
  • Both have 1 outer electron so both are in group 1 / same number of outer electrons means same group (1m)

Lithium (2,1) and sodium (2,8,1) both have 1 outer electron, placing them both in group 1. Different period (different shells), but same group (same outer electrons).

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6.

Explain why elements in the same group of the periodic table have similar chemical properties, using the electron shell diagram. [3 marks]

3 marks · higher

Elements in the same group have the same number of electrons in their outer shell (outermost energy level), as shown by the electron shell diagrams. It is the outer electrons that are involved in chemical reactions — they are the electrons that can be lost, gained, or shared when atoms bond. Because elements in the same group all have the same number of outer electrons, they react in similar ways and form similar types of bonds and compounds.

  • Elements in the same group have the same number of electrons in the outer shell / same number of outer electrons (1m)
  • Chemical reactions involve / are determined by the outer electrons (electrons that can be transferred or shared) (1m)
  • Same number of outer electrons therefore similar chemical reactions / form similar compounds / react in similar ways (1m)

Elements in the same periodic table group have the same number of electrons in their outer shell. Chemical reactions involve the outer electrons — they are transferred (ionic bonding) or shared (covalent bonding). Because all elements in a group have the same outer electron count, they react in the same way and form compounds with the same formulae and structures. For example, all Group 1 elements (Li, Na, K) have 1 outer electron, so they all form +1 ions and react vigorously with water.

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7.

State the maximum number of electrons each of the first three shells can hold.

2 marks · foundation

The first shell can hold a maximum of 2 electrons. The second and third shells can each hold a maximum of 8 electrons.

  • First shell: maximum 2 electrons (1m)
  • Second and third shells: maximum 8 electrons each (1m)

The GCSE shell pattern is 2, 8, 8. Shell 1: max 2, Shell 2: max 8, Shell 3: max 8. This gives the filling pattern seen in elements of periods 1-3.

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8.

Explain why noble gases are unreactive.

2 marks · standard

Noble gases have a full outer shell of electrons. This is a very stable arrangement, so they do not need to gain or lose electrons, making them unreactive.

  • Noble gases have a full/complete outer shell of electrons (1m)
  • This arrangement is stable, so no need to gain, lose or share electrons (unreactive) (1m)

Noble gases are unreactive because they have a full outer shell of electrons, which is the most stable arrangement. They have no tendency to gain, lose, or share electrons.

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9.

An element has electronic configuration 2, 8, 8. What is its atomic number, and why is this element particularly stable?

2 marks · standard

The atomic number is 18 (2 + 8 + 8 = 18 electrons, so 18 protons). This element is argon and it is stable because it has a full outer shell of 8 electrons.

  • Atomic number = 18 (total electrons = 2 + 8 + 8 = 18) (1m)
  • Stable because it has a full outer shell / 8 electrons in the outer shell (1m)

2 + 8 + 8 = 18 total electrons, so atomic number = 18 (argon). Argon is stable because its outer shell holds its maximum of 8 electrons — the noble gas configuration.

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10.

Using the electron shell diagram, write the electronic configuration of sodium (atomic number 11). [2 marks]

2 marks · standard

Sodium has 11 electrons. The first shell holds 2 electrons, the second shell holds 8 electrons, and the remaining 1 electron goes into the third shell. The electronic configuration of sodium is 2,8,1.

  • Correctly identifies sodium has 11 electrons / states 2 in first shell and 8 in second shell (1m)
  • States 1 electron in the third shell / gives correct final configuration as 2,8,1 (1m)

Sodium has atomic number 11, so it has 11 electrons. Filling from the innermost shell outwards using the diagram: shell 1 = 2 (full), shell 2 = 8 (full), shell 3 = 11 - 2 - 8 = 1. Electronic configuration: 2, 8, 1. This single outer electron is why sodium is in Group 1 of the periodic table.

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11.

Explain why elements in the same group of the periodic table have similar chemical properties.

2 marks · higher

Elements in the same group have the same number of electrons in their outer shell. Because chemical reactions involve outer electrons, elements with the same number of outer electrons react in similar ways.

  • Elements in the same group have the same number of outer shell electrons (1m)
  • Chemical reactions involve outer electrons, so same outer electrons means similar reactions / chemical properties (1m)

Group members share the same number of outer electrons. Since outer electrons are what participate in chemical reactions and bonding, elements in the same group undergo similar reactions.

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12.

What is the maximum number of electrons the first electron shell can hold?

  • A. 2
  • B. 8
  • C. 18
  • D. 1
1 mark · foundation

The first electron shell can hold a maximum of 2 electrons. This is why helium, with 2 electrons, has a full first shell and is in period 1. The GCSE pattern for shells is 2, 8, 8.

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13.

The period number of an element tells you:

  • A. The number of outer shell electrons
  • B. The number of protons in the nucleus
  • C. The number of neutrons
  • D. The number of occupied electron shells
1 mark · foundation

The period number equals the number of occupied electron shells. For example, sodium (period 3) has electrons in 3 shells: configuration 2, 8, 1.

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14.

The group number of an element in the periodic table tells you:

  • A. The number of electrons in the outer shell
  • B. The number of occupied electron shells
  • C. The total number of electrons
  • D. The number of protons and neutrons
1 mark · foundation

Group number = number of electrons in the outer shell. For example, Group 1 elements (like lithium, sodium) all have 1 outer electron, which explains their similar chemistry.

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15.

Write the electronic configuration of sodium (atomic number 11).

1 mark · foundation

2, 8, 1

  • Correct configuration: 2, 8, 1 (accept 2.8.1 or 2 8 1) (1m)

Sodium has 11 electrons: shell 1 fills with 2, shell 2 fills with 8, leaving 11 - 2 - 8 = 1 in the third shell. Configuration: 2, 8, 1.

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16.

Write the electronic configuration of carbon (atomic number 6).

1 mark · foundation

2, 4

  • Correct configuration: 2, 4 (accept 2.4 or 2 4) (1m)

Carbon has 6 electrons: 2 fill the first shell, leaving 4 for the second shell. Configuration: 2, 4. Carbon is in Group 4, period 2.

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17.

How many electrons can the first shell hold according to the diagram?

  • A. 8
  • B. 2
  • C. 4
  • D. 18
1 mark · foundation

The first electron shell (closest to the nucleus) can hold a maximum of 2 electrons. The second shell can hold up to 8 electrons, and so can the third shell (for GCSE purposes). This is why helium (atomic number 2) has a full first shell with configuration 2, and hydrogen (atomic number 1) has just one electron in the first shell.

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18.

Which of the following is the correct electronic configuration of chlorine (atomic number 17)?

  • A. 2, 8, 8
  • B. 2, 7, 8
  • C. 2, 8, 7
  • D. 8, 8, 1
1 mark · standard

Chlorine has 17 electrons. The first shell takes 2, the second takes 8, leaving 17 - 2 - 8 = 7 for the third shell. Configuration: 2, 8, 7. This places chlorine in Group 7.

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19.

An element has the electronic configuration 2, 8, 3. In which period and group of the periodic table is it found?

  • A. Period 2, Group 3
  • B. Period 3, Group 8
  • C. Period 3, Group 3
  • D. Period 8, Group 3
1 mark · standard

Electronic configuration 2, 8, 3 has 3 occupied shells (period 3) and 3 outer electrons (group 3). This element is aluminium (atomic number 13).

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20.

Why are noble gases particularly stable and unreactive?

  • A. They have no electrons at all
  • B. They have an odd number of electrons
  • C. They are located in period 8
  • D. They have a full outer shell of electrons
1 mark · standard

Noble gases are stable because they already have a full outer electron shell (8 electrons, or 2 for helium). They have no need to gain or lose electrons, so they do not react with other elements.

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21.

Which of the following correctly describes how electrons fill shells in an atom?

  • A. Electrons fill the outermost shell first
  • B. Electrons fill the lowest energy (innermost) shell first
  • C. Electrons fill all shells equally at the same time
  • D. Electrons are placed randomly across shells
1 mark · standard

Electrons always occupy the lowest available energy shell first, which is the innermost shell closest to the nucleus. Each shell must be filled before electrons start filling the next one outward.

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22.

An element is in period 2 and Group 6 of the periodic table. What is its electronic configuration?

  • A. 2, 4
  • B. 2, 6
  • C. 6, 2
  • D. 2, 8, 6
1 mark · standard

Period 2 means 2 occupied shells. Group 6 means 6 outer electrons. So shell 1 has 2 electrons and shell 2 has 6 electrons: configuration 2, 6. This is oxygen (atomic number 8).

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23.

State the rule that determines the order in which electrons fill electron shells.

1 mark · standard

Electrons fill the lowest energy shell first, starting with the innermost shell closest to the nucleus.

  • Electrons fill the lowest energy / innermost shell first (before moving to the next shell) (1m)

Electrons fill shells from the inside outward, always occupying the lowest available energy level first. Shell 1 fills before shell 2, which fills before shell 3.

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24.

Which electron shell diagram shows an element in Group 1?

  • A. An atom with electronic configuration 2,8,8
  • B. An atom with electronic configuration 2,8
  • C. An atom with electronic configuration 2,8,1
  • D. An atom with electronic configuration 2,4
1 mark · standard

Group 1 elements have one electron in their outer shell. The configuration 2,8,1 (sodium) has 1 electron in the third (outer) shell — making it a Group 1 element. Configuration 2,8,8 (argon) has 8 outer electrons (Group 0/noble gas). Configuration 2,8 (magnesium or neon) either has 8 outer electrons (Group 0) or 2 outer electrons (Group 2). Configuration 2,4 has 4 outer electrons (Group 4).

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The Periodic Table

22
1.

Evaluate the significance of Mendeleev's decision to leave gaps in his periodic table. In your answer, compare his original table with the modern periodic table and explain why his approach was scientifically important.

5 marks · challenge

Mendeleev arranged elements by increasing relative atomic mass and noticed that elements with similar chemical properties appeared at regular intervals. However, to maintain these property patterns (periodicity), he left gaps for elements he believed existed but had not yet been discovered. He used these gaps to predict the properties of undiscovered elements — for example, he predicted the existence of eka-silicon (later discovered as germanium), correctly forecasting its atomic mass, density, and chemical behaviour. When germanium was discovered in 1886 with properties closely matching Mendeleev's predictions, this provided powerful evidence that his periodic table was a scientifically valid model and not just a coincidental arrangement. The modern periodic table differs from Mendeleev's in two key ways. First, it is ordered by atomic number (proton number) rather than atomic mass, which resolved anomalies such as the tellurium-iodine pair. Second, it includes Group 0 (noble gases) which were unknown in Mendeleev's time. Despite these differences, Mendeleev's original pattern of periodicity and his use of predictive gaps showed exceptional scientific thinking — proposing a model that could be tested and potentially falsified by future discoveries.

  • Mendeleev left gaps for undiscovered elements to preserve the pattern of chemical properties (periodicity) (1m)
  • He used the gaps to make specific predictions about undiscovered elements (e.g. eka-silicon / germanium) — naming at least one predicted property (atomic mass, density, behaviour) (1m)
  • When predicted elements were discovered with matching properties, this validated (provided evidence for) his model (1m)
  • Comparison with modern table: modern table ordered by atomic number (not atomic mass), resolving anomalies like Te/I or Ar/K (1m)
  • The scientific significance: his table made testable predictions — the hallmark of a good scientific model — and the predictions were confirmed (1m)

This is a 5-mark evaluate question requiring both comparison and judgement about scientific significance. Key points: (1) gaps preserved periodicity; (2) gaps allowed specific predictions — this is scientifically vital; (3) confirmed predictions validated the model; (4) modern table differs by using atomic number and including noble gases; (5) the scientific importance is that Mendeleev made a model that could be falsified. A common weakness is describing what Mendeleev did without evaluating WHY it was significant. Students should explain that making verifiable predictions is a core hallmark of good scientific models — when germanium matched the predictions, it gave the strongest possible evidence for the periodic table's validity.

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2.

Evaluate how the development of the modern periodic table represents an improvement over Mendeleev's original table. Include reference to the evidence that led scientists to accept the modern arrangement.

4 marks · higher

Mendeleev arranged elements by relative atomic mass, which worked well for most elements but caused anomalies where pairs like tellurium and iodine, or argon and potassium, had to be placed in an order that contradicted their atomic masses to preserve the pattern of chemical properties. The discovery of subatomic particles — specifically the proton — showed that each element has a unique atomic number (proton number). Moseley's work with X-ray spectroscopy in 1913 confirmed the atomic number sequence. Ordering by atomic number resolved all the anomalies in Mendeleev's table, as atomic number always increases without exception. The development of quantum theory and electron shell models provided a scientific explanation for why elements in the same group have similar properties — they all have the same number of outer shell electrons. This theoretical underpinning, combined with the resolution of anomalies, led scientists to accept the modern periodic table as a more accurate and explanatory model.

  • Mendeleev used atomic mass and this caused anomalies — naming a specific pair (Te/I or Ar/K) that had to be swapped (1m)
  • The modern table uses atomic number (proton number); this resolved the anomalies as proton number always increases in sequence (1m)
  • Evidence that supported the modern table: discovery of the proton / Moseley's X-ray work / confirmed atomic number as the organising principle (1m)
  • Electron shell configuration explains group properties — elements in the same group have the same outer electrons, providing a theoretical basis lacking in Mendeleev's table (1m)

Mendeleev's table ordered elements by atomic mass, causing anomalies for pairs like tellurium/iodine and argon/potassium. The discovery of the proton and Moseley's 1913 X-ray work established atomic number as the correct ordering principle, resolving all anomalies. Electron shell theory provided a theoretical explanation: elements in the same group have the same number of outer electrons, explaining similar chemical properties.

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3.

Compare metals and non-metals in terms of their structure, bonding, and position in the periodic table. Explain how the differences in structure and bonding account for their contrasting physical properties.

4 marks · challenge

Metals are found on the left and centre of the periodic table, while non-metals are found on the right side (with the exception of hydrogen). Metals have a giant metallic structure: a regular lattice of positive metal ions surrounded by a sea of delocalised electrons. Non-metals typically have either simple molecular structures (e.g. Cl₂, H₂O) or giant covalent structures (e.g. diamond, silicon dioxide), held together by covalent bonds. Because metals have delocalised electrons, they conduct electricity and heat. The strong electrostatic attraction between positive ions and the electron sea gives metals high melting points. Layers of ions can slide over each other, making metals malleable and ductile. Simple molecular non-metals have weak intermolecular forces between molecules, giving them low melting and boiling points. They do not conduct electricity because there are no delocalised electrons or free ions. Giant covalent non-metals (like diamond) have very high melting points due to the many strong covalent bonds throughout the structure, but still do not conduct electricity in most cases.

  • Position: metals on left/centre; non-metals on right of periodic table (hydrogen exception acceptable) (1m)
  • Metals: giant metallic structure with delocalised electrons — conduct electricity; malleable; high melting points due to strong electrostatic attraction (1m)
  • Simple molecular non-metals: weak intermolecular forces — low melting/boiling points; do not conduct electricity (1m)
  • Giant covalent non-metals: many strong covalent bonds — very high melting points; generally do not conduct (except graphite) (1m)

This compare question requires students to address three dimensions (structure, bonding, position) and link them to properties for both metals and non-metals. The key contrasts are: metallic bonding with delocalised electrons (conductors, malleable) vs. covalent bonding in molecular or giant structures (non-conductors, low or very high melting points depending on type). Students often forget to distinguish simple molecular from giant covalent non-metals — both are non-metals but have very different melting points. Position in the periodic table is a simple mark often dropped: metals left and centre, non-metals right.

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4.

Mendeleev's periodic table was eventually accepted by other scientists. Explain why scientists were convinced that his table was correct.

3 marks · standard

Mendeleev left gaps in his periodic table for elements he predicted had not yet been discovered. He was able to predict the properties of these missing elements from their position in the table, such as their relative atomic mass, density and type of compounds they would form. When these elements were later discovered — for example gallium and germanium — their actual properties closely matched Mendeleev's predictions, which convinced scientists that his arrangement was fundamentally correct.

  • Mendeleev left gaps / predicted undiscovered elements (1m)
  • He predicted the properties (e.g. atomic mass, density, formula of oxide) of the missing elements from their position in the table (1m)
  • The discovered elements (e.g. gallium, germanium) had properties that matched / were close to his predictions, so the table was validated / accepted (1m)

Mendeleev left gaps in his table where he predicted undiscovered elements would fit, and he used patterns in the table to predict their properties. When gallium (1875) and germanium (1886) were later discovered, their properties closely matched his predictions, which convinced scientists his arrangement was fundamentally correct.

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5.

Describe how the properties of elements change across Period 3, from sodium to argon.

3 marks · standard

Across Period 3, elements change from metals (sodium, magnesium, aluminium) through a metalloid (silicon) to non-metals (phosphorus, sulfur, chlorine) and finally to a noble gas (argon). As you move across the period, metallic character decreases and non-metallic character increases. The elements also change from solids with high melting points (metals) to solids, liquids and gases with lower melting points on the right side.

  • Left side elements (Na, Mg, Al) are metals; right side elements (P, S, Cl) are non-metals (1m)
  • Metallic character decreases across the period / non-metallic character increases across the period (1m)
  • Any correct specific property trend: e.g. melting point trend, change in state, reactivity changes, or silicon is a metalloid on the boundary (1m)

Across Period 3, elements transition from metals on the left (sodium, magnesium, aluminium) through the metalloid silicon to non-metals on the right (phosphorus, sulfur, chlorine), ending with the noble gas argon. Metallic character decreases and non-metallic character increases from left to right. Melting points and states also change across the period.

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6.

Explain why the reactivity of Group 1 metals increases going down the group.

3 marks · higher

Going down Group 1, each successive element has one more electron shell. The outer electron is therefore further from the nucleus and more shielded by inner shell electrons. This means the electrostatic attraction between the nucleus and the outer electron is weaker. As a result, the outer electron is lost more easily during reactions, making the element more reactive.

  • Down the group each element has more electron shells / the outer electron is in a higher energy level / the outer electron is further from the nucleus (1m)
  • There is more electron shielding from inner shells / greater shielding effect reduces nuclear attraction on the outer electron (1m)
  • The outer electron is lost more easily / the electrostatic attraction is weaker / reactivity increases because electron loss is easier (1m)

Going down Group 1, each element has one more electron shell, placing the outer electron further from the nucleus. Greater shielding by inner shells also reduces the effective nuclear attraction on the outer electron. This weaker attraction means the outer electron is lost more easily, so reactivity increases down Group 1. A common misconception is that a bigger nucleus causes greater reactivity — it is the increased distance and shielding that lowers the force holding the outer electron.

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7.

Explain why the reactivity of the halogens (Group 7) decreases going down the group.

3 marks · higher

Going down Group 7, each element has one more electron shell so the outer shell is further from the nucleus. There is also greater electron shielding by inner shells. Both factors reduce the force of attraction between the nucleus and an incoming electron. As a result, halogens are less able to attract an electron into the outer shell during reactions, so they become less reactive going down the group.

  • Down the group each element has more electron shells / outer shell is further from the nucleus (1m)
  • Greater electron shielding from inner shells reduces the effective nuclear attraction on the outer shell (1m)
  • Halogens react by gaining an electron; down the group the attraction for an incoming electron is weaker / so they are less reactive (1m)

Going down Group 7, each halogen has one more electron shell, so the outer shell is further from the nucleus and more shielded. Halogens react by gaining one electron into the outer shell. The nuclear attraction for an incoming electron decreases down the group, so gaining an electron becomes increasingly difficult. Therefore reactivity decreases going down Group 7 — the opposite trend to Group 1.

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8.

State three properties of transition metals that differ from Group 1 metals.

3 marks · higher

Transition metals are much harder and denser than Group 1 metals, with much higher melting and boiling points. They form coloured compounds, unlike Group 1 metals which form white or colourless compounds. Transition metals can act as catalysts in chemical reactions, for example iron in the Haber process. They also have variable oxidation states, meaning they can form ions with different charges (e.g. Fe2+ and Fe3+).

  • Higher melting / boiling points OR harder OR denser OR stronger — any one physical property comparison with Group 1 (1m)
  • Form coloured compounds (Group 1 compounds are white / colourless) (1m)
  • Can act as catalysts OR have variable oxidation states / can form ions with different charges (1m)

Transition metals differ from Group 1 metals in several ways: they have much higher melting points, are harder and denser, and are much less reactive. Their compounds are characteristically coloured (e.g. copper compounds are blue, iron(III) is orange-brown), whereas Group 1 metal compounds are usually white or colourless. Transition metals can also act as catalysts and display variable oxidation states, forming ions with different charges (e.g. Fe2+ and Fe3+).

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9.

Tellurium (Te) has a higher relative atomic mass than iodine (I), yet it appears before iodine in the modern periodic table. Explain why this is correct and why Mendeleev's arrangement would have caused a problem here.

3 marks · higher

Tellurium (atomic number 52) has a lower atomic number than iodine (atomic number 53), so in the modern periodic table — ordered by atomic number — tellurium correctly precedes iodine. However, tellurium has a higher relative atomic mass (127.6) than iodine (126.9). If Mendeleev had kept strict mass order, iodine would have appeared before tellurium. This would have placed iodine in Group 6 alongside oxygen and sulfur instead of Group 7 alongside fluorine and chlorine, which does not match its chemical properties. Mendeleev solved this by swapping their positions, correctly prioritising properties over mass, but this anomaly was only fully explained by the modern concept of atomic number.

  • The modern table is ordered by atomic number; tellurium (52) has a lower atomic number than iodine (53) so the order is correct despite the mass anomaly (1m)
  • Mendeleev's mass-based arrangement would have placed iodine before tellurium (1m)
  • This would have put iodine in the wrong group (Group 6) and its properties would not match its group neighbours / iodine belongs in Group 7 with fluorine and chlorine (1m)

The modern periodic table is ordered by atomic number (proton number). Tellurium has atomic number 52 and iodine has atomic number 53, so tellurium correctly precedes iodine despite having a higher relative atomic mass. Mendeleev's mass-based ordering would have placed iodine before tellurium, incorrectly putting it in Group 6 instead of Group 7. The anomaly was fully resolved only when atomic numbers were discovered.

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10.

State two ways in which Mendeleev's arrangement of elements was different from the modern periodic table.

2 marks · foundation

Mendeleev arranged elements in order of increasing relative atomic mass, whereas the modern table uses atomic number. Mendeleev also left gaps in his table where he predicted undiscovered elements would fit, and in some places he swapped the order of elements to preserve the pattern of chemical properties.

  • Mendeleev ordered elements by relative atomic mass; modern table orders by atomic number / proton number (1m)
  • Mendeleev left gaps / spaces for undiscovered elements OR Mendeleev swapped the order of some elements to preserve patterns in properties (1m)

Mendeleev arranged elements by increasing relative atomic mass, whereas the modern table uses atomic number (proton number). Mendeleev also left deliberate gaps where he believed undiscovered elements should fit, and in some places swapped the order of elements to preserve patterns of chemical properties.

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11.

Explain why elements in the same group of the periodic table have similar chemical properties.

2 marks · foundation

Elements in the same group have the same number of electrons in their outer shell. Because chemical reactions involve the outer shell electrons, elements with the same number of outer electrons react in similar ways and form compounds with similar formulae.

  • Same number of electrons in the outer shell / same number of outer electrons / same outer electron configuration (1m)
  • Chemical properties depend on / are determined by the outer shell electrons; so same outer electrons means similar reactions / similar bonding / similar formulae (1m)

Elements in the same group all have the same number of electrons in their outermost shell. Chemical reactions involve gaining, losing, or sharing outer electrons, so elements with the same number of outer electrons react in similar ways and form compounds with similar formulae.

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12.

State two differences in properties between metals and non-metals.

2 marks · foundation

Metals are good conductors of electricity and heat, whereas non-metals are generally poor conductors or insulators. Metals are also shiny solids (at room temperature, except mercury) with high melting points, whereas many non-metals are gases or solids with low melting points at room temperature.

  • Metals conduct electricity / heat; non-metals do not (accept: non-metals are insulators) — any one valid conductivity distinction (1m)
  • Metals are shiny / have high melting points / are hard / are solid at room temperature; non-metals are often gases / dull / have low melting points — any one valid physical property distinction (1m)

Metals are good conductors of electricity and heat because they have delocalised electrons that move freely. Non-metals generally do not conduct (except graphite). Metals are also typically shiny solids with high melting points, while non-metals are often gases or brittle solids with low melting points.

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13.

The noble gases are placed in Group 0 (or Group 8) of the periodic table. Explain why they are unreactive.

2 marks · standard

Noble gases have a full outer electron shell, meaning they do not need to gain, lose or share electrons to become stable. Because chemical reactions involve the transfer or sharing of outer electrons, noble gases do not participate in reactions under normal conditions.

  • Noble gases have a full / complete outer shell of electrons (1m)
  • They do not need to gain, lose or share electrons / they are already stable / no tendency to react (1m)

Noble gases have a completely full outer electron shell — helium has 2 electrons filling its only shell, all other noble gases have 8 outer electrons. Because atoms react to achieve a full outer shell, and noble gases are already complete, they have no tendency to gain, lose, or share electrons, making them chemically unreactive.

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14.

A student is told that element X is in Group 2, Period 3 of the periodic table. Predict two properties of element X.

2 marks · standard

Element X is in Group 2 so it has 2 outer shell electrons and will form 2+ ions / is a metal that reacts to form compounds with formula XO or XCl2. It is in Period 3 so it has 3 electron shells and 12 protons. It is a metal with relatively high melting point and will react with water, though less vigorously than Group 1 metals.

  • Has 2 outer shell electrons / forms 2+ ions / is a metal / reacts to form XO or XCl2 type compounds — any one valid Group 2 property (1m)
  • Has 3 electron shells / 3 occupied energy levels / atomic number 12 — any one valid Period 3 property (1m)

In the periodic table, the group number gives the number of outer shell electrons and the period number gives the number of occupied electron shells. Element X in Group 2 has 2 outer electrons and will form 2+ ions. Being in Period 3 means it has 3 occupied electron shells and 12 protons — the element is magnesium.

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15.

How are elements arranged in the modern periodic table?

  • A. In order of increasing atomic number
  • B. In order of increasing relative atomic mass
  • C. Alphabetically by element name
  • D. In order of decreasing density
1 mark · foundation

The modern periodic table arranges elements in order of increasing atomic number (number of protons). Mendeleev originally used atomic mass, but this caused anomalies with pairs like argon/potassium and tellurium/iodine. Ordering by atomic number resolved these problems.

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16.

Elements in the same group of the periodic table have similar chemical properties because they have the same number of:

  • A. Protons in the nucleus
  • B. Neutrons in the nucleus
  • C. Electron shells
  • D. Electrons in the outer shell
1 mark · foundation

The number of electrons in the outer (highest energy) shell determines how an element reacts chemically. Elements in the same group all have the same number of outer shell electrons, which is why they show similar reactivity and form compounds with similar formulae.

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17.

What does the period number of an element tell you?

  • A. The number of occupied electron shells
  • B. The number of neutrons in the nucleus
  • C. The number of protons in the nucleus
  • D. The number of outer shell electrons
1 mark · foundation

The period number tells you how many electron shells are occupied in an atom of that element. Period 1 elements have electrons only in shell 1; period 2 elements have electrons in shells 1 and 2; period 3 elements have electrons in shells 1, 2 and 3, and so on.

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18.

Mendeleev left gaps in his periodic table. What was his reason for doing this?

  • A. He had not yet discovered all the elements himself
  • B. He predicted that undiscovered elements would fill the gaps and have specific properties
  • C. He left gaps where he was unsure about the atomic mass
  • D. The gaps represented elements that were radioactive and dangerous
1 mark · standard

Mendeleev noticed that when he arranged elements by atomic mass, some did not fit the pattern of properties he expected. Rather than disrupting the pattern, he left gaps and boldly predicted that new elements would be discovered to fill them, with properties he could predict from their position. The later discovery of gallium and germanium confirmed his predictions.

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19.

Which of the following correctly describes the position of metals in the periodic table?

  • A. Metals are found on the right-hand side of the periodic table
  • B. Metals are found at the bottom of every group
  • C. Metals are evenly distributed throughout the periodic table
  • D. Metals are found on the left and towards the centre of the periodic table
1 mark · standard

The majority of elements are metals, found on the left-hand side and in the central block (transition metals) of the periodic table. Non-metals are clustered in the top-right corner. A diagonal 'staircase' line separates metals from non-metals, with metalloids (e.g., silicon, germanium) on the boundary.

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20.

Argon (Ar = 39.9) comes before potassium (Ar = 39.1) in the modern periodic table, even though argon has a higher atomic mass. Why is this ordering correct?

  • A. Argon was discovered before potassium
  • B. Argon has a lower atomic number (18) than potassium (19)
  • C. Argon is a gas so it comes before solid potassium
  • D. Argon has more neutrons, which is the deciding factor
1 mark · standard

The modern periodic table is ordered by atomic number (proton number), not atomic mass. Argon has 18 protons and potassium has 19 protons, so argon correctly precedes potassium. This is one of the key improvements of the modern table over Mendeleev's mass-based arrangement — ordering by proton number eliminates such anomalies.

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21.

An element has the electronic configuration 2, 8, 3. Which of the following correctly identifies its group and period?

  • A. Group 3, Period 2
  • B. Group 8, Period 3
  • C. Group 3, Period 3
  • D. Group 2, Period 8
1 mark · standard

The electronic configuration 2, 8, 3 means the atom has 3 occupied electron shells (period 3) with 3 electrons in the outermost shell (group 3). The element is aluminium (atomic number 13). The period equals the number of shells; the group equals the number of outer electrons (for main group elements).

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22.

Which statement correctly describes the trend in metallic character across Period 3 (Na to Ar)?

  • A. Metallic character increases across Period 3 from Na to Ar
  • B. Metallic character stays the same across Period 3
  • C. Metallic character decreases across Period 3 from Na to Cl
  • D. Metallic character increases then decreases across Period 3
1 mark · standard

Across a period, the nuclear charge increases while electrons are added to the same shell. This makes it progressively harder to lose outer electrons, so metallic character (tendency to lose electrons) decreases across a period. Sodium (Na) and magnesium (Mg) are typical metals; aluminium (Al) is a metal but shows some non-metal character; silicon (Si) is a metalloid; phosphorus, sulfur, chlorine and argon are non-metals.

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Development of Periodic Table

20
1.

Describe how scientists' models of atomic structure developed from simple atomic theory (Dalton) through to the nuclear model with electrons in shells. Include the discovery of protons and neutrons.

4 marks · challenge

Dalton (1803) proposed atoms as solid indivisible spheres. Thomson (1897) discovered electrons and proposed the plum pudding model — a positive sphere with electrons embedded in it. Rutherford (1911) discovered the small dense positive nucleus using alpha particle scattering and developed the nuclear model. Chadwick (1932) later discovered the neutron, and Bohr proposed electrons orbit in fixed shells.

  • Dalton (1803): solid indivisible sphere model (1m)
  • Thomson (1897): discovered electrons; plum pudding model — positive sphere with negative electrons embedded (1m)
  • Rutherford (1911): alpha particle scattering experiment showed a small, dense, positive nucleus; nuclear model (1m)
  • Chadwick (1932) discovered neutrons / Bohr proposed electrons occupy fixed shells around the nucleus (1m)

Timeline: Dalton (1803, solid sphere) → Thomson (1897, plum pudding, electron) → Rutherford (1911, nuclear model, alpha scattering) → Chadwick (1932, neutron) → Bohr (shells). Each model was revised when new experimental evidence emerged.

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2.

Explain the full significance of the discovery of protons and neutrons (subatomic particles) for the development of the modern periodic table, including how they resolved problems with Mendeleev's original table.

4 marks · challenge

The discovery of protons established atomic number. Moseley (1913) showed atomic number determines chemical properties, providing a scientific basis for ordering. This resolved anomalies: tellurium has atomic number 52 and iodine 53, so atomic number ordering correctly places them while weight ordering appeared anomalous. Chadwick's neutron discovery (1932) explained isotopes — same atomic number but different mass numbers due to different neutrons. Together these discoveries gave us the modern periodic table ordered by atomic number.

  • Protons give atomic number; Moseley (1913) showed atomic number determines chemical properties — providing a rigorous basis for ordering (1m)
  • Atomic number ordering resolved anomalies (e.g. tellurium and iodine) where atomic weight ordering placed elements in the wrong groups (1m)
  • Neutrons (Chadwick, 1932) explained differences in atomic weight between elements in the same group — isotopes have the same atomic number but different neutron numbers (1m)
  • The result is the modern periodic table ordered by atomic number, correctly grouping all elements by their chemical properties (1m)

Subatomic particles transformed the periodic table: protons gave atomic number (Moseley showed this determines properties), resolving anomalies like Te/I; neutrons (Chadwick) explained isotopes. The modern table is ordered by atomic number, making the chemical groupings fully justified.

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3.

Explain how the discovery of gallium in 1875 helped to confirm Mendeleev's periodic table.

3 marks · standard

Mendeleev had predicted the existence of an element he called eka-aluminium and stated its expected properties such as density and atomic weight. When gallium was discovered in 1875 its actual properties closely matched Mendeleev's predictions, confirming the validity of his periodic table.

  • Mendeleev had predicted a gap for an undiscovered element (eka-aluminium) below aluminium (1m)
  • He had predicted specific properties for this element (e.g. density, atomic weight) (1m)
  • Gallium's actual properties closely matched the predictions, confirming his table (1m)

Mendeleev's prediction of eka-aluminium (gallium) — including its density, atomic weight, and metallic character — was confirmed almost exactly when gallium was discovered in 1875. This predictive success was powerful evidence that his table captured a real pattern in nature.

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4.

Describe the development of the periodic table from Dobereiner's Triads to Mendeleev's 1869 table. Include two named scientists.

3 marks · standard

Dobereiner (1820s) grouped elements into triads of three with similar properties. Newlands (1866) proposed the Law of Octaves, noticing every eighth element repeated properties. Mendeleev (1869) arranged all known elements by atomic weight, grouped similar elements, and left gaps for undiscovered ones.

  • Dobereiner (1820s) identified triads — three elements with similar properties (1m)
  • Newlands (1866) proposed the Law of Octaves: every eighth element repeats properties (1m)
  • Mendeleev (1869) arranged elements by atomic weight and left gaps for undiscovered elements (1m)

Development timeline: Dobereiner (1820s, triads) → Newlands (1866, Law of Octaves) → Mendeleev (1869, atomic weight ordering with gaps for undiscovered elements).

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5.

Define the term 'periodic table' and explain what the rows (periods) and columns (groups) represent.

3 marks · standard

The periodic table is an arrangement of all known elements in order of increasing atomic number. Periods (rows) represent the number of electron shells in those elements. Groups (columns) contain elements with the same number of outer electrons, giving them similar chemical properties.

  • The periodic table is a systematic arrangement of elements in order of increasing atomic number (1m)
  • Periods (rows) represent the number of occupied electron shells (1m)
  • Groups (columns) contain elements with the same number of outer electrons and similar chemical properties (1m)

The periodic table: elements in atomic number order. Periods (rows) = number of occupied shells. Groups (columns) = number of outer electrons, giving similar chemical properties.

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6.

Explain why the discovery of protons and the measurement of atomic number led to a change in how the periodic table is arranged.

3 marks · higher

Moseley discovered in 1913 that atomic number (number of protons) determines chemical properties. Rearranging the table by atomic number resolved anomalies such as tellurium and iodine, where atomic weight ordering placed them in the wrong groups. Tellurium has atomic number 52 and iodine has 53, so they are now in the correct order.

  • Moseley (1913) showed atomic number is the number of protons and determines element properties (1m)
  • Arranging by atomic number resolved anomalies where elements appeared in the wrong group under atomic weight ordering (1m)
  • For example, tellurium (atomic number 52) correctly comes before iodine (atomic number 53), placing both in their correct groups (1m)

Moseley (1913) used X-ray spectra to show that each element has a unique atomic number (number of protons). Ordering by atomic number — not atomic weight — correctly placed all elements in groups matching their chemical properties.

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7.

Explain how the discovery of subatomic particles (protons and neutrons) changed scientists' understanding of why elements in the same group have similar properties.

3 marks · higher

The discovery of protons gave scientists the atomic number, which determines how electrons fill the shells. Elements in the same group have the same number of outer shell electrons. Same outer electrons means the same type of reactions, explaining similar chemical properties.

  • The number of protons gives the atomic number, which determines how electrons are arranged in shells (1m)
  • Elements in the same group have the same number of outer shell electrons (1m)
  • Same number of outer electrons causes similar chemical properties and reactivity (1m)

Proton count gives atomic number, which fixes how electrons fill shells. Same group = same outer electrons = same type of chemical reactions. Neutrons do not affect chemical properties.

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8.

A student claims: 'Mendeleev's periodic table was just a lucky guess — he had no scientific evidence.' Evaluate this claim.

3 marks · higher

The claim is incorrect. Mendeleev based his table on systematic analysis of all 63 known elements, identifying clear patterns in their properties and atomic weights. His predictions for eka-aluminium (gallium) and eka-silicon (germanium) included specific numerical values that were later confirmed experimentally, demonstrating this was rigorous science, not a guess.

  • The claim is incorrect — Mendeleev used systematic analysis of properties and atomic weights of known elements (1m)
  • He identified repeating patterns in properties and used these to make specific, testable predictions for undiscovered elements (1m)
  • Predictions were confirmed experimentally (gallium/eka-aluminium, germanium/eka-silicon), proving an evidence-based approach (1m)

Mendeleev's work was highly systematic: he analysed all 63 known elements, identified periodic patterns, and made precise numerical predictions. The confirmation of gallium and germanium is strong evidence that his approach was scientific, not lucky.

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9.

State what Dobereiner's Triads were and give one example of a triad.

2 marks · foundation

Dobereiner's Triads were groups of three elements that shared similar chemical properties. An example is lithium, sodium, and potassium which all react vigorously with water.

  • A group of three elements with similar chemical properties (1m)
  • Any correct named example: Li, Na, K or Cl, Br, I or Ca, Sr, Ba (1m)

Dobereiner (1820s) identified sets of three elements sharing similar properties, calling them triads. Known examples include Li/Na/K (Group 1), Cl/Br/I (Group 7), and Ca/Sr/Ba (Group 2).

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10.

Give two reasons why Newlands' Law of Octaves was not accepted by the scientific community at the time.

2 marks · standard

Newlands was forced to put two elements in the same position to keep the octave pattern. The pattern also broke down completely for elements heavier than calcium.

  • He was forced to place two elements in the same box / some positions had two elements (1m)
  • The pattern broke down for elements heavier than calcium / did not work for all elements (1m)

Newlands' Law of Octaves was rejected because: (1) he had to put two elements in single boxes, and (2) the octave pattern stopped working for elements heavier than calcium.

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11.

Explain why Mendeleev sometimes placed elements out of strict atomic weight order in his periodic table.

2 marks · standard

Mendeleev prioritised chemical properties over atomic weight. He reordered some elements so that those with similar properties appeared in the same group, even if this meant going slightly out of atomic weight order.

  • He prioritised chemical properties over atomic weight ordering (1m)
  • So that elements with similar properties were grouped together in the same column/group (1m)

Mendeleev placed properties above atomic weight when there was a conflict. This is why tellurium (atomic weight 128) was placed before iodine (127) — their properties placed them more correctly.

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12.

Evaluate Mendeleev's periodic table by describing one strength and one limitation of his original 1869 arrangement.

2 marks · higher

A strength of Mendeleev's table was that he predicted the properties of undiscovered elements such as gallium, which were later confirmed. A limitation was that using atomic weight caused some elements to be in the wrong order, creating anomalies in the table.

  • Strength: left gaps and predicted properties of undiscovered elements / predictions confirmed by later discoveries (1m)
  • Limitation: atomic weight ordering caused anomalies (e.g. tellurium before iodine seemed out of order) / noble gases not included (1m)

Strength: predictive power (eka-aluminium = gallium, eka-silicon = germanium). Limitation: atomic weight anomalies and no noble gas group (noble gases not yet discovered in 1869).

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13.

John Newlands proposed the Law of Octaves in 1866. What did he notice about the elements?

  • A. Every seventh element had similar properties to the first
  • B. Every eighth element had similar properties to the first
  • C. Elements repeated properties every tenth element
  • D. Elements only showed patterns when arranged by atomic number
1 mark · foundation

Newlands noticed that every eighth element had similar properties to the first, like the eight notes of a musical octave. He arranged 56 known elements in order of atomic weight and found this repeating pattern.

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14.

Mendeleev published his periodic table in 1869. How did he arrange the elements?

  • A. By atomic number (number of protons)
  • B. By melting point from lowest to highest
  • C. By number of electrons in the outer shell
  • D. By atomic weight (relative atomic mass)
1 mark · foundation

Mendeleev arranged elements in order of increasing atomic weight (relative atomic mass) and grouped elements with similar properties into vertical columns. Atomic number was not discovered until Moseley's work in 1913.

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15.

What key action did Mendeleev take that earlier scientists had not done when constructing his periodic table?

  • A. He included noble gases in their correct positions
  • B. He left gaps for elements that had not yet been discovered
  • C. He arranged elements alphabetically to make the table easy to use
  • D. He placed hydrogen in the middle of the table
1 mark · foundation

Mendeleev was willing to leave gaps in his table where an element with the right properties had not yet been found, and he even predicted the properties of these missing elements. This bold decision proved his table was correct when the missing elements were later discovered.

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16.

Johann Wolfgang Dobereiner identified groups of three elements with related properties in the 1820s. What were these called?

  • A. Dobereiner's Triads
  • B. Dobereiner's Triplets
  • C. Dobereiner's Triplicates
  • D. Dobereiner's Octaves
1 mark · foundation

Dobereiner's Triads were groups of three elements with similar properties, where the middle element's atomic weight was roughly the average of the other two. Examples include lithium, sodium, potassium (Group 1) and chlorine, bromine, iodine (Group 7).

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17.

Why did other scientists reject Newlands' Law of Octaves at the time?

  • A. He arranged elements alphabetically rather than by mass
  • B. He only included metallic elements and ignored non-metals
  • C. He placed two elements in the same box and the pattern broke down for heavier elements
  • D. He used atomic number instead of atomic weight
1 mark · standard

Newlands was forced to place two elements in some boxes to maintain the octave pattern, and the pattern broke down completely for elements heavier than calcium. The Chemical Society refused to publish his work.

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18.

Mendeleev called the element predicted to sit below aluminium 'eka-aluminium'. When it was discovered in 1875, what was it named?

  • A. Germanium
  • B. Scandium
  • C. Radium
  • D. Gallium
1 mark · standard

Gallium (Ga, atomic number 31), discovered by Paul Boisbaudran in 1875, almost perfectly matched Mendeleev's prediction for 'eka-aluminium'. Its density (5.91 g/cm³), atomic weight (69.7), and low melting point matched his predictions remarkably well, convincing scientists of his table's validity.

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19.

In the modern periodic table, elements are arranged in order of increasing atomic number. What change did Moseley's work (1913) make necessary?

  • A. Swapping iodine and tellurium so they appear in the correct group
  • B. Removing all noble gases as they did not fit the pattern
  • C. Placing all transition metals into Group 2
  • D. Splitting hydrogen into two separate elements
1 mark · standard

Tellurium has a higher atomic weight than iodine but a lower atomic number. Mendeleev had placed iodine after tellurium based on properties (correctly), but this appeared to violate atomic weight ordering. Moseley's atomic number ordering resolved this anomaly: tellurium (52) comes before iodine (53) correctly.

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20.

Which of the following best explains why Mendeleev's periodic table was more widely accepted than Newlands'?

  • A. Mendeleev used atomic number whilst Newlands used atomic weight
  • B. Mendeleev included noble gases but Newlands did not
  • C. Mendeleev's predicted properties for missing elements were confirmed when those elements were later discovered
  • D. Mendeleev's table was published in a more prestigious scientific journal
1 mark · standard

The strongest evidence for Mendeleev's table was predictive success. When gallium (1875), scandium (1879), and germanium (1886) were discovered, their properties closely matched Mendeleev's predictions, providing powerful experimental confirmation of his model.

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Group 0: Noble Gases

22
1.

Explain why noble gases are unreactive. Despite their lack of reactivity, noble gases have many valuable uses. Evaluate the usefulness of noble gases, using specific examples to justify why their lack of reactivity is an advantage in each application.

5 marks · challenge

Noble gases are unreactive (chemically inert) because they have a full outer electron shell — helium has 2 outer electrons, the others have 8. A full outer shell means the atom is in a stable electronic configuration and has no tendency to gain, lose, or share electrons with other atoms. Since all chemical reactions involve the movement of electrons between or within atoms, noble gases do not take part in chemical reactions under normal conditions. Despite this, their lack of reactivity makes noble gases extremely useful: - Helium is used to fill balloons and airships because it is much less dense than air and, unlike hydrogen, it will not ignite or explode — its inertness makes it safe. - Argon is used in light bulbs and as a shielding gas in welding. In light bulbs, argon prevents the filament from oxidising (reacting with oxygen) at the high operating temperature, extending bulb life. In welding, argon prevents the molten metal from oxidising in air. - Neon is used in electrical discharge tubes (neon signs) because it glows with a distinctive red light when electricity is passed through it, without reacting with the electrode materials. In each case, the inertness ensures reliability and safety — the noble gas does not react with materials it is in contact with.

  • Noble gases unreactive because of full outer electron shell (2 for He, 8 for others) — stable configuration, no tendency to gain/lose/share electrons (1m)
  • Helium use: filling balloons/airships — not flammable/explosive unlike hydrogen; density less than air (1m)
  • Argon use: light bulbs or welding — prevents oxidation of hot filament/molten metal; inertness essential at high temperatures (1m)
  • Neon use (or other named noble gas with correct application): discharge tubes/lighting — glows without reacting (1m)
  • Evaluation: in each application the inertness is specifically advantageous — safe, prevents unwanted reactions, extends product life (1m)

This 5-mark evaluate question links the atomic structure explanation for inertness to real-world applications. The inertness explanation must reference the full outer shell and stable configuration — saying only 'noble gases do not react' is not sufficient for the first mark. The evaluation requires specific named uses with a reason WHY inertness is the advantage in each case. Students who list uses without explaining why the gas being unreactive matters score partial credit. A common error is to say noble gases have 'no electrons' or a 'complete atom' — the correct explanation is a full outer shell of electrons.

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2.

Explain, using ideas about electronic configuration, why other elements react with each other but noble gases do not.

4 marks · higher

Atoms react in order to achieve a full outer electron shell, which gives them a stable electronic configuration similar to a noble gas. Noble gases already have a full outer shell — helium has 2 electrons filling its first shell, and all other noble gases have 8 electrons in their outer shell. Because noble gases already have this stable configuration, they have no need to gain, lose or share electrons. Other elements such as metals and non-metals react to achieve a full outer shell: metals lose electrons to form positive ions, non-metals gain or share electrons to fill their outer shell. The result is that noble gases are very unreactive, while other elements react readily.

  • Atoms react in order to achieve a full outer electron shell / stable electronic configuration (accept: to become like a noble gas) (1m)
  • Noble gases already have a full outer electron shell (helium: 2, all others: 8 electrons in outer shell) (1m)
  • Other elements have incomplete outer shells and react by gaining, losing or sharing electrons (1m)
  • Noble gases have no tendency to react because they are already stable (accept: no driving force to gain or lose electrons) (1m)

Electronic configuration is central to chemical reactivity. The drive to react comes from the tendency to achieve a full outer shell. Noble gases are already 'complete' and have nothing to gain from reacting. Every other element has an incomplete outer shell and reacts to remedy this.

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3.

The table below shows data for three noble gases. | Noble gas | Atomic number | Boiling point (°C) | Density (g/dm³ at room temp) | |-----------|---------------|---------------------|-------------------------------| | Neon | 10 | -246 | 0.90 | | Argon | 18 | -186 | 1.78 | | Krypton | 36 | -152 | 3.71 | Use the data and your knowledge to describe and explain the trends shown.

4 marks · higher

Both boiling point and density increase going down Group 0 from neon to krypton. Boiling point increases because the atoms get larger with more electron shells as atomic number increases. Larger atoms have more electrons, creating stronger intermolecular forces between atoms. More energy is needed to overcome these forces, so the boiling point is higher. Density also increases because the atoms are heavier — krypton has far more protons and neutrons than neon — so a given volume contains more mass.

  • Both boiling point and density increase going down Group 0 (from neon to krypton) — must describe both trends (1m)
  • Atoms get larger / have more electron shells going down the group (link to increasing atomic number) (1m)
  • More electrons lead to stronger intermolecular forces — more energy needed to boil, so higher boiling point (1m)
  • Greater atomic mass / heavier atoms means higher density (accept: more protons and neutrons) (1m)

This question tests whether students can both describe (read from a table) and explain trends. The boiling point and density trends both arise from increasing atomic size and mass as atomic number increases down the group. Students are expected to use data values when describing.

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4.

Noble gases exist as monatomic gases at room temperature and have very low boiling points. Explain why noble gases are monatomic and why their boiling points are all very low compared to most other substances. Explain also why the boiling point increases going down Group 0.

4 marks · challenge

Noble gases are monatomic (single atoms rather than molecules) because they have a full outer electron shell. They have no tendency to form bonds with other atoms, so they exist as individual free atoms rather than diatomic molecules or large structures. Noble gases have very low boiling points because the only forces between individual noble gas atoms are very weak intermolecular forces (London dispersion forces). These weak forces require very little energy to overcome, so the boiling point is very low and all noble gases are gases at room temperature. Going down Group 0, boiling point increases because the atoms become larger with more electrons as the atomic number increases. Larger atoms with more electrons have stronger intermolecular forces between them. More energy is needed to overcome these stronger forces, so more energy is required to boil them and the boiling point increases.

  • Monatomic because full outer electron shell means no tendency to form bonds with other atoms (1m)
  • Very low boiling points because only weak intermolecular forces (London/van der Waals) exist between the atoms — require little energy to overcome (1m)
  • Boiling point increases down Group 0 because atoms are larger with more electrons going down (1m)
  • Larger atoms have stronger intermolecular forces — more energy needed to overcome them — higher boiling point (1m)

This question links the electronic structure of noble gases to three related ideas: monatomic nature, very low boiling points, and the trend in boiling points down the group. The monatomic explanation must reference the full outer shell and no bond formation. The low boiling point explanation must name the weak intermolecular forces and link them to low energy needed to overcome them. The trend explanation links increasing atom size (more electrons) to stronger intermolecular forces and higher boiling points. Students often confuse intermolecular forces with bonds — noble gases have no bonds between atoms, only intermolecular forces, and these forces increase with atomic size.

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5.

Explain why the boiling point of noble gases increases going down Group 0.

3 marks · standard

Going down Group 0, the atoms get larger with more electron shells. Larger atoms have more electrons, which means stronger intermolecular forces (London dispersion forces) between atoms. More energy is needed to overcome these stronger forces, so the boiling point increases.

  • Atoms get larger going down the group / more electron shells (accept: atomic radius increases) (1m)
  • More electrons means stronger intermolecular forces between atoms (accept: London forces / van der Waals forces) (1m)
  • More energy is needed to overcome these forces, so the boiling point is higher (accept: higher boiling point) (1m)

Boiling point depends on the strength of the forces between atoms. Noble gas atoms are held together by weak instantaneous dipole-induced dipole forces (London forces). The strength of these forces increases with the number of electrons in the atom. Larger atoms with more electrons (found lower in the group) have stronger forces and higher boiling points.

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6.

Explain why argon is used to fill incandescent light bulbs instead of air.

3 marks · standard

Argon is used in light bulbs because it is unreactive. The tungsten filament inside the bulb gets extremely hot. If the bulb contained air, the hot tungsten would react with oxygen and oxidise, causing the filament to burn out quickly. Argon prevents this reaction because it does not react with the hot metal.

  • The filament gets very hot / reaches high temperatures (1m)
  • Air contains oxygen which would react with / oxidise the filament (accept: the tungsten would burn) (1m)
  • Argon is unreactive so it prevents oxidation / extends the life of the bulb (accept: argon does not react with the filament) (1m)

Tungsten has a very high melting point but at light bulb operating temperatures, it would react rapidly with oxygen. Argon — being a noble gas — does not react with anything, so it creates a safe, inert atmosphere inside the bulb that protects the filament.

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7.

Explain why helium is preferred over hydrogen to fill weather balloons used at high altitude, even though hydrogen is cheaper and also less dense than air.

3 marks · higher

Helium is preferred because it is non-flammable and unreactive. Hydrogen is highly flammable and forms explosive mixtures with air. At high altitude there is still enough oxygen for combustion to occur. A weather balloon carries expensive equipment, so the risk of fire or explosion from hydrogen makes it unsafe. Helium, despite being more expensive, eliminates this risk entirely because it has a full outer electron shell and does not react.

  • Hydrogen is flammable / explosive / reacts with oxygen (accept: hydrogen is a fire hazard) (1m)
  • Helium is non-flammable / unreactive because it has a full outer electron shell (1m)
  • Helium is safer despite being more expensive (accept: safety outweighs cost / risk of explosion is avoided) (1m)

Both helium and hydrogen are less dense than air. However, hydrogen is extremely flammable (it burns readily in oxygen and can explode). Helium has a complete outer electron shell so it is chemically inert and will never ignite. For applications where safety is paramount, helium is the correct choice regardless of cost.

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8.

Explain why argon is used as a shielding gas during arc welding.

3 marks · higher

During arc welding, the metal reaches extremely high temperatures. At these temperatures, the hot metal would react with oxygen and nitrogen in the air, causing oxidation and weakening the weld. Argon is pumped around the weld because it is unreactive — it has a full outer electron shell and does not react with hot metals. This shields the weld from the atmosphere and produces a strong, clean join.

  • The metal reaches very high temperatures during welding (1m)
  • Oxygen in air would react with / oxidise the hot metal, weakening the weld (1m)
  • Argon is unreactive so it shields the weld from oxygen / prevents oxidation (accept: argon does not react with hot metal) (1m)

Argon creates a physical and chemical barrier. Being slightly denser than air, it flows around the weld pool. Because it is a noble gas with a full outer electron shell, it will not react with the hot metal, preventing the oxidation that air would cause.

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9.

Name any four noble gases found in Group 0 of the periodic table.

2 marks · foundation

Helium, neon, argon and krypton are all noble gases in Group 0.

  • Any two correct noble gases named — helium, neon, argon, krypton, xenon or radon (1 mark) (1m)
  • Any two further correct noble gases named (total of four required) (1 mark) (1m)

Group 0 contains six naturally occurring noble gases in order: helium (He), neon (Ne), argon (Ar), krypton (Kr), xenon (Xe), and radon (Rn). Any four of these are acceptable.

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10.

Explain why noble gases are unreactive.

2 marks · foundation

Noble gases are unreactive because they have a full outer electron shell. They have no tendency to gain or lose electrons, so they do not need to form bonds with other atoms.

  • Noble gases have a full outer electron shell (accept: complete outer shell) (1m)
  • Therefore they have no tendency to gain or lose electrons / do not need to bond with other atoms (accept: they are stable) (1m)

Atoms react in order to achieve a full outer electron shell. Noble gases already have a full outer shell (helium: 2 electrons, all others: 8 electrons), so they have no reason to react. They are chemically stable.

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11.

Helium has only 2 electrons in its outer shell, yet it is still unreactive. Explain why.

2 marks · standard

Helium is unreactive because its first electron shell can hold a maximum of only 2 electrons. Helium has 2 electrons, which means its first (and only) shell is completely full. A full outer shell makes an atom stable and unreactive.

  • The first electron shell can hold a maximum of 2 electrons (1m)
  • Helium has 2 electrons so its shell is full / complete, making it stable and unreactive (1m)

Most noble gases have 8 electrons in their outer shell (a full second or third shell). Helium is different — it only has one shell, and the first shell can hold at most 2 electrons. With its 2 electrons, helium's shell is completely full, giving it the same stability as other noble gases.

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12.

Give two reasons why helium is used to fill party balloons rather than hydrogen.

2 marks · standard

Helium is used instead of hydrogen because helium is non-flammable and therefore safe to use. Also, helium is less dense than air so the balloon will rise.

  • Helium is non-flammable / will not burn / will not explode (accept: hydrogen is flammable and dangerous) (1m)
  • Helium is less dense than air so the balloon rises (accept: helium is a low-density gas) (1m)

Hydrogen is less dense than air and would also fill a balloon, but hydrogen is highly flammable and forms explosive mixtures with oxygen. Helium achieves the same buoyancy but is completely non-flammable because it is a noble gas with a full outer electron shell.

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13.

Explain why neon is used in advertising signs.

2 marks · standard

Neon produces a bright, coloured glow when electricity is passed through it. This makes neon signs visible from a distance, which is useful for advertising.

  • Neon produces a bright coloured glow / coloured light when electricity passes through it (1m)
  • This makes the sign bright / visible / eye-catching (accept: it can be seen from a distance / at night) (1m)

When electricity is passed through low-pressure neon gas, the electrons in neon atoms gain energy and then release it as light. The colour of light emitted depends on the gas used — neon gives the characteristic red-orange glow. Different noble gases (or mixtures) produce different colours.

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14.

Which group in the periodic table contains the noble gases?

  • A. Group 0
  • B. Group 7
  • C. Group 1
  • D. Group 4
1 mark · foundation

Noble gases are in Group 0 (sometimes called Group 18) on the far right of the periodic table. Their outer electron shells are completely full, making them very stable and unreactive.

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15.

How many electrons does helium have in its outer (and only) shell?

  • A. 2
  • B. 8
  • C. 1
  • D. 0
1 mark · foundation

Helium has atomic number 2, so it has 2 electrons. Both electrons are in the first shell (which can only hold a maximum of 2 electrons), so helium's single shell is completely full.

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16.

Noble gases exist as monatomic particles. What does 'monatomic' mean?

  • A. Existing as pairs of atoms bonded together
  • B. Existing as single, individual atoms
  • C. Forming very large molecules
  • D. Having only one type of atom in a compound
1 mark · foundation

Monatomic means existing as individual single atoms (mono = one). Noble gases do not bond with other atoms because their outer shells are already full, so they exist alone rather than forming molecules.

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17.

Name the noble gas that has atomic number 2.

1 mark · foundation

Helium

  • Helium (accept He) (1m)

The atomic number equals the number of protons. Atomic number 2 means 2 protons, which identifies the element as helium — the lightest noble gas, positioned at the top of Group 0.

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18.

What happens to the boiling point of noble gases as you move down Group 0?

  • A. It decreases because the atoms get smaller
  • B. It stays the same because all noble gases are unreactive
  • C. It increases then decreases
  • D. It increases because the atoms have more electrons and stronger intermolecular forces
1 mark · standard

Boiling point increases down Group 0. Larger atoms (further down the group) have more electrons, which means stronger instantaneous dipole-induced dipole (London dispersion) forces between atoms. More energy is needed to overcome these forces, so the boiling point is higher.

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19.

Helium is used to fill party balloons instead of hydrogen. Which of the following best explains why helium is the preferred choice?

  • A. Helium is cheaper than hydrogen
  • B. Helium produces a more colourful glow than hydrogen
  • C. Helium is unreactive and non-flammable, making it safe to use
  • D. Helium has a higher density than air so it rises more slowly
1 mark · standard

Helium is used in balloons because it is unreactive (it has a full outer electron shell) and non-flammable. Hydrogen is also less dense than air and would lift a balloon, but hydrogen is highly flammable and forms explosive mixtures with air — making it very dangerous. Helium is the safe alternative.

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20.

Argon is used as a shielding gas during welding. Which property makes argon suitable for this purpose?

  • A. Argon is very dense, so it sinks and covers the weld
  • B. Argon is unreactive, so it prevents the hot metal from reacting with oxygen in the air
  • C. Argon is highly reactive, so it reacts before oxygen can reach the metal
  • D. Argon conducts heat away from the weld efficiently
1 mark · standard

Argon is unreactive because it has a full outer electron shell. During welding, the metal is extremely hot and would react with oxygen in the air (oxidation), weakening the weld. A blanket of argon gas displaces oxygen and prevents this reaction from occurring.

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21.

The boiling points of three noble gases are: neon -246 °C, argon -186 °C, krypton -152 °C. Which statement correctly explains this trend?

  • A. Larger atoms have fewer electrons, producing weaker forces between atoms
  • B. Larger atoms are more reactive, so they interact with each other more strongly
  • C. Larger atoms have more electrons, producing stronger intermolecular forces requiring more energy to overcome
  • D. Atoms further down the group form covalent bonds, so more energy is needed to separate them
1 mark · standard

Going down Group 0, atoms have more electron shells and more electrons. This increases the strength of instantaneous dipole-induced dipole forces (London forces) between atoms. More energy is required to overcome these stronger forces, so the boiling point increases. The pattern shown — neon lowest, krypton highest — matches exactly with increasing atomic size.

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22.

Noble gases were originally called 'inert gases'. Scientists later changed this name to 'noble gases'. Which statement best explains why the name was changed?

  • A. Scientists discovered that all noble gases can react with fluorine at room temperature
  • B. The term 'noble' sounds more impressive than 'inert' for naming purposes
  • C. Compounds of krypton and xenon with fluorine and oxygen were eventually produced, showing they are not completely inert
  • D. Xenon and krypton were found to form compounds under extreme conditions, showing they are not completely inert
1 mark · standard

The name was changed from 'inert gases' to 'noble gases' because scientists discovered that some of the heavier noble gases (particularly xenon and krypton) can form compounds under extreme conditions. For example, xenon difluoride (XeF2) can be made. This showed that the gases are not completely inert — they are simply very unreactive, like noble metals such as gold. The term 'noble' conveys 'very reluctant to react' rather than 'never reacts'.

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Group 1: Alkali Metals

22
1.

Explain the trend in reactivity of the Group 1 metals going down the group. In your answer, use ideas about atomic structure, electron configuration, and nuclear attraction to explain why each successive element reacts more vigorously with water.

5 marks · challenge

Reactivity increases going down Group 1 from lithium to caesium. All Group 1 metals react by losing their single outer electron to form a +1 ion. Going down the group, each element has one more electron shell than the element above it, so the outer electron is progressively further from the nucleus. Additionally, as more inner electron shells are added, there is increased shielding of the outer electron from the attractive force of the positive nucleus. These two effects — greater distance from the nucleus and increased shielding — mean the nuclear attraction acting on the outer electron is progressively weaker going down the group. As a result, the outer electron is more easily lost. Because the outer electron is more easily lost, each Group 1 metal down the group is more reactive, reacting more vigorously with water: lithium reacts steadily, sodium reacts more vigorously and may catch fire with a yellow flame, while potassium reacts violently with a lilac flame, melts, and can explode.

  • Reactivity increases going down Group 1 (1m)
  • All Group 1 metals react by losing their outer electron (to form +1 ions) (1m)
  • Going down the group, atoms have more electron shells so the outer electron is further from the nucleus (1m)
  • More inner shells provide more shielding — the outer electron is less strongly attracted to the nucleus (1m)
  • Weaker nuclear attraction means the outer electron is more easily lost, so reactivity increases — with specific comparison of vigour for at least two elements (1m)

This 5-mark question is the classic Group 1 explain-the-trend. The full explanation requires four interlinked ideas: (1) Group 1 metals react by losing one electron; (2) more shells going down places the outer electron further from the nucleus; (3) more inner shells provide more shielding; (4) both effects weaken nuclear attraction, making the electron easier to lose. Students earning only 2-3 marks typically describe the trend and mention more shells but omit shielding or the mechanism of weaker nuclear attraction. Top responses also compare observed reactivity in water experiments: lithium steady, sodium vigorous (may ignite), potassium violent (lilac flame, often melts and explodes).

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2.

Explain the trend in reactivity of the alkali metals going down Group 1. Your answer should refer to atomic structure.

4 marks · higher

Reactivity increases going down Group 1. As you go down the group, each element has one more electron shell than the element above. This means the outer electron is progressively further from the nucleus. There is also more shielding from inner electron shells. Both effects reduce the nuclear attraction on the outer electron, making it easier to lose the electron during a reaction. Because reactivity of Group 1 metals depends on how easily the outer electron is lost, reactivity increases down the group.

  • Reactivity increases going down the group (1 mark) (1m)
  • More electron shells / outer electron is further from the nucleus (1 mark) (1m)
  • More shielding by inner electrons (1 mark) (1m)
  • Weaker nuclear attraction on outer electron so it is more easily lost (1 mark) (1m)

Reactivity increases down Group 1 because each successive element has one more electron shell. The outer electron is progressively further from the nucleus and is shielded by more inner shell electrons. This weakens the effective nuclear attraction on the outer electron, making it easier to lose. Since alkali metals react by losing their outer electron, easier loss means greater reactivity.

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3.

Rubidium (Rb) is in Group 1, Period 5. Predict how rubidium will behave when added to water. Justify your predictions by comparing rubidium to sodium and potassium.

4 marks · higher

Rubidium will react more vigorously than both sodium and potassium when added to water. It will float on the surface, fizz very vigorously, and catch fire producing a lilac/red-violet flame. The piece of rubidium will get smaller and disappear. Rubidium reacts more vigorously because it has more electron shells than potassium or sodium, so its outer electron is further from the nucleus. There is greater shielding by inner electrons, so the nuclear attraction is weaker and the outer electron is more easily lost. Because rubidium loses its outer electron more easily, it reacts more vigorously.

  • Rubidium will react more vigorously than sodium and potassium (1 mark) (1m)
  • More electron shells than sodium and potassium / outer electron further from nucleus (1 mark) (1m)
  • More shielding / weaker nuclear attraction on the outer electron (1 mark) (1m)
  • Outer electron is more easily lost so rubidium is more reactive (1 mark) (1m)

Rubidium is below potassium in Group 1, so it is more reactive. It would react very vigorously with water, floating on the surface, fizzing rapidly, igniting the hydrogen produced (with a red-violet flame), and quickly disappearing as it dissolves. The increased reactivity is due to rubidium's outer electron being further from the nucleus and more shielded by inner shells than potassium's.

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4.

Lithium, sodium, and potassium are all placed in separate beakers of water. Compare the reactions of these three Group 1 metals with water. Describe what you would observe in each reaction and explain the pattern in terms of atomic structure.

4 marks · challenge

Lithium reacts with water in a steady manner: it floats on the surface, moves around, fizzes (hydrogen gas is produced), and dissolves as it reacts. Sodium reacts more vigorously: it fizzes rapidly and melts into a ball, moving quickly across the surface. It may ignite briefly with a yellow flame. Potassium reacts very vigorously: it ignites immediately with a lilac or purple flame, fizzes very rapidly, and may disappear in an explosion if a large piece is used. In all three reactions, the metal reacts with water to produce a metal hydroxide solution and hydrogen gas: 2M(s) + 2H₂O(l) → 2MOH(aq) + H₂(g) The pattern in reactivity is explained by atomic structure. Going from lithium to sodium to potassium, each element has one more electron shell. The outer electron is therefore further from the nucleus and more shielded by inner electron shells. This means the nuclear attraction on the outer electron decreases and the outer electron is more easily lost. Since reactivity depends on how easily the outer electron is lost, reactivity increases from lithium to potassium.

  • Correct observation trend: lithium least vigorous, sodium more vigorous, potassium most vigorous — with at least two specific observations (e.g. fizzing, flame colour, melting, movement) (1m)
  • Products stated for any one reaction: metal hydroxide solution and hydrogen gas (1m)
  • More electron shells / outer electron further from nucleus going from Li to K (1m)
  • More shielding / weaker nuclear attraction / outer electron more easily lost — links to increasing reactivity (1m)

This is a describe-and-explain question that combines practical observations with atomic structure reasoning. The four mark points are: (1) the trend in vigour with specific observations; (2) products — metal hydroxide and hydrogen; (3) structural reason — more shells, outer electron further from nucleus; (4) shielding and weaker attraction link to easier electron loss. Common errors include: describing all three reactions as identical or forgetting specific observations (flame colours are often missed). Students also often describe more shells without explaining shielding — both are needed for the mechanism.

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5.

Explain why potassium is more reactive than sodium when it reacts with water.

3 marks · standard

Potassium has more electron shells than sodium, so its outer electron is further from the nucleus. The nuclear attraction on the outer electron is weaker, so the outer electron is more easily lost. This means potassium reacts more vigorously with water.

  • Potassium has more electron shells / is a larger atom (1 mark) (1m)
  • The outer electron is further from the nucleus / weaker nuclear attraction (1 mark) (1m)
  • Outer electron is more easily lost / lower ionisation energy (1 mark) (1m)

Alkali metals are soft and have low melting points because each atom contributes only one electron to the delocalised electron sea in metallic bonding. With just one electron per atom, the electrostatic attraction between positive ions and the electron sea is weak. This weak metallic bonding makes them soft enough to cut with a knife and gives them low melting points that decrease down the group.

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6.

Describe THREE observations you would make when a small piece of potassium is added to a trough of water.

3 marks · standard

The potassium floats on the water and moves around vigorously while fizzing. It catches fire and burns with a lilac flame. The piece of potassium gets smaller and eventually disappears.

  • Floats and fizzes / moves vigorously on the surface (1 mark) (1m)
  • Catches fire / burns with a lilac or purple flame (1 mark) (1m)
  • Gets smaller and disappears / the solid is used up (1 mark) (1m)

The balanced equation for potassium reacting with water is: 2K(s) + 2H2O(l) → 2KOH(aq) + H2(g). Potassium reacts more vigorously than sodium because its outer electron is in the 4th shell — further from the nucleus and more shielded, so lost more easily. Observations include rapid fizzing, the metal moving quickly across the surface, and a purple-pink flame as the hydrogen ignites.

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7.

Describe THREE observations you would make when a small piece of sodium is added to water.

3 marks · standard

Sodium floats on the water and fizzes vigorously, producing hydrogen gas. It melts into a silvery ball and darts around the surface. The piece of sodium gets smaller and eventually disappears.

  • Floats and fizzes / hydrogen gas produced causing bubbling (1 mark) (1m)
  • Melts into a ball / darts around the surface (1 mark) (1m)
  • Gets smaller and disappears / solid is used up (1 mark) (1m)

Lithium, sodium, and potassium all react with water to produce a metal hydroxide and hydrogen gas. Reactivity increases down Group 1 because each element has more electron shells, so the outer electron is further from the nucleus and experiences more shielding. This weakens the nuclear hold on the outer electron. Lithium reacts gently, sodium reacts vigorously, and potassium reacts so vigorously the hydrogen ignites with a purple flame.

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8.

Explain why alkali metals must be stored under oil.

3 marks · standard

Alkali metals are very reactive. They react rapidly with oxygen and water vapour in the air, quickly forming a dull oxide layer and releasing heat. Oil acts as a physical barrier that prevents the metal from coming into contact with the air, stopping these reactions from occurring.

  • Alkali metals are very reactive (1 mark) (1m)
  • They would react with oxygen and/or water vapour in the air (1 mark) (1m)
  • Oil acts as a barrier / prevents contact with air / prevents reaction (1 mark) (1m)

Going down Group 1, melting points decrease: lithium (180°C) > sodium (98°C) > potassium (63°C). As atoms get larger, the positive ions in the lattice are further from the delocalised electrons. The metallic bonds (electrostatic attraction between ions and electron sea) become weaker, requiring less energy to break, so melting points fall.

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9.

A student adds a small piece of lithium to water containing universal indicator solution. Describe and explain the colour change the student would observe.

3 marks · higher

The universal indicator would change from green to purple or blue, showing the solution has become alkaline. This is because lithium reacts with water to form lithium hydroxide, which dissolves in the water and releases hydroxide ions that raise the pH above 7.

  • Indicator turns blue or purple (1 mark) (1m)
  • Lithium hydroxide is produced, making the solution alkaline / raises the pH above 7 (1 mark) (1m)
  • Hydroxide ions (OH⁻) are released into the solution (1 mark) (1m)

When lithium reacts with water, lithium hydroxide (LiOH) is formed in solution. LiOH is an alkali and releases hydroxide ions (OH-) into the solution. The high concentration of OH- ions raises the pH above 7, making the solution alkaline. An indicator such as litmus or universal indicator will turn blue/purple to show the alkaline solution.

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10.

Give TWO physical properties that make alkali metals unusual compared to most other metals.

2 marks · foundation

Alkali metals are soft and can be cut with a knife. They also have low melting points compared to most metals, and their density is lower than water.

  • Soft / can be cut with a knife (1 mark) (1m)
  • Low melting point OR low density (lower than water) / float on water (1 mark) (1m)

When alkali metals react with water, they produce the metal hydroxide dissolved in solution and hydrogen gas. Potassium reacts more vigorously than sodium because its outer electron is further from the nucleus and more shielded, so it is lost more readily. The hydrogen produced can be detected with a burning splint (squeaky pop).

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11.

State the TWO products formed when lithium reacts with water.

2 marks · foundation

When lithium reacts with water, the two products are lithium hydroxide and hydrogen gas.

  • Lithium hydroxide (LiOH) / metal hydroxide (1 mark) (1m)
  • Hydrogen / hydrogen gas / H₂ (1 mark) (1m)

Alkali metals are stored under oil because they react rapidly with both oxygen and water vapour in the air. The oil forms a physical barrier preventing contact with air and moisture, stopping oxidation and reaction with water. Without oil, a freshly cut surface would tarnish and react almost immediately.

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12.

When sodium is added to water, fizzing is observed. Explain what causes the fizzing.

2 marks · standard

Hydrogen gas is produced when sodium reacts with water. The bubbles of hydrogen gas escaping through the liquid surface cause the fizzing.

  • Hydrogen gas is produced in the reaction (1 mark) (1m)
  • Bubbles of gas escaping through the liquid cause the fizzing (1 mark) (1m)

All Group 1 metals react with oxygen to form metal oxides (4M + O2 → 2M2O) and with water to form metal hydroxides and hydrogen (2M + 2H2O → 2MOH + H2). The 2:1 ratio of metal to oxygen in M2O reflects the +1 charge of Group 1 ions: two M+ ions balance one O2- ion.

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13.

Explain, in terms of metallic bonding, why alkali metals have lower melting points than most other metals.

2 marks · higher

Alkali metals have only one outer electron per atom, which means they contribute fewer electrons to the delocalised electron sea. This results in weaker metallic bonding between the positive ions and the electrons. Less energy is needed to overcome these weaker forces, so the melting point is lower.

  • Only one outer electron per atom / weak metallic bonding (1 mark) (1m)
  • Less energy needed to overcome the weak forces / break the bonds, so low melting point (1 mark) (1m)

Francium would be the most reactive Group 1 metal because it has the most electron shells (Period 7). Its outer electron is furthest from the nucleus of any Group 1 element and is shielded by the most inner shells, making it the easiest outer electron to lose. However, francium is extremely rare and highly radioactive, so this cannot be tested in practice.

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14.

How many electrons do alkali metals have in their outermost shell?

  • A. 1
  • B. 2
  • C. 7
  • D. 8
1 mark · foundation

Alkali metals are in Group 1 of the periodic table, which means they all have exactly 1 electron in their outermost shell. This single outer electron is readily lost during reactions, which is why they form +1 ions and are highly reactive.

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15.

What happens to the reactivity of alkali metals as you go DOWN Group 1?

  • A. Reactivity increases
  • B. Reactivity stays the same
  • C. Reactivity decreases
  • D. Reactivity increases then decreases
1 mark · foundation

Reactivity increases going down Group 1. Each successive element has more electron shells, so the outer electron is further from the nucleus and shielded by more inner electrons. The attraction between the nucleus and the outer electron decreases, making it easier to lose — and greater ease of electron loss means greater reactivity.

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16.

Which TWO products are always formed when an alkali metal reacts with water?

  • A. Metal oxide and water
  • B. Metal hydroxide and hydrogen
  • C. Metal chloride and hydrogen
  • D. Metal carbonate and oxygen
1 mark · foundation

When any alkali metal reacts with water, the two products are always the metal hydroxide (which dissolves to make an alkaline solution) and hydrogen gas. For example: 2Na + 2H₂O → 2NaOH + H₂. The hydrogen produced can be detected with a burning splint giving a squeaky pop.

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17.

Why are alkali metals stored under oil rather than exposed to air?

  • A. Oil keeps the metals at a constant temperature
  • B. Oil increases the density of the metals
  • C. Oil prevents the metals from reacting with oxygen and water vapour in air
  • D. Oil stops the metals from losing their shiny appearance permanently
1 mark · foundation

Alkali metals react very rapidly with both oxygen and water vapour in the air. Oil acts as a physical barrier, preventing this contact. Without oil, the metals would oxidise and react with moisture almost immediately. The lustrous (shiny) surface dulls within seconds when exposed to air as an oxide layer forms.

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18.

State the trend in melting point as you move DOWN Group 1 of the periodic table.

1 mark · foundation

The melting point decreases as you go down Group 1.

  • Melting point decreases / gets lower going down the group (1 mark) (1m)

Going down Group 1, melting points decrease: lithium (180°C) > sodium (98°C) > potassium (63°C) > rubidium (39°C) > caesium (29°C). As atoms get larger with more electron shells, the positive metal ions are further from the delocalised electron sea. The metallic bonding (attraction between ions and electrons) becomes weaker, requiring less energy to break when melting.

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19.

Which equation correctly shows potassium reacting with water?

  • A. K + H₂O → KOH + H₂
  • B. 2K + H₂O → 2KOH + H₂
  • C. 4K + 2H₂O → 4KOH + O₂
  • D. 2K + 2H₂O → 2KOH + H₂
1 mark · standard

The balanced equation is 2K + 2H₂O → 2KOH + H₂. Check: left side has 2K, 4H, 2O; right side has 2K, 4H, 2O, 1H₂ (which is 2H). Wait — right side: 2(OH) = 2O + 2H, plus H₂ = 2H, total 4H and 2O. Left: 2H₂O = 4H + 2O. Both sides balance with atoms and charges.

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20.

Why can alkali metals be cut with a knife?

  • A. They have very low density
  • B. They have only one outer electron, giving weak metallic bonding
  • C. They contain large numbers of free electrons
  • D. Their ions are very large in size
1 mark · standard

Alkali metals are soft because they only contribute one electron per atom to the delocalised electron sea in metallic bonding. With just one electron per atom, the electrostatic attraction between the positive metal ions and the electron sea is relatively weak compared to, say, iron (which contributes 2-3 electrons). This weak metallic bonding means the layers of ions slide past each other easily, making the metal soft enough to cut with a knife.

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21.

Lithium has a melting point of 181°C and potassium has a melting point of 63°C. What does this tell you about the trend in melting points down Group 1?

  • A. Melting points increase going down Group 1
  • B. Melting points show no clear pattern going down Group 1
  • C. Melting points decrease going down Group 1
  • D. Melting points are identical for all alkali metals
1 mark · standard

Lithium (181°C) > Sodium (98°C) > Potassium (63°C) — melting points decrease going down Group 1. This is because the atoms get larger, so the metallic bond (attraction between positive ions and delocalised electrons) becomes weaker. Weaker bonds require less energy to break, so the melting point is lower.

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22.

A student predicts that caesium (Cs) will react MORE vigorously with water than rubidium (Rb), which is directly above it in Group 1. Which of the following best justifies this prediction?

  • A. Caesium has fewer electrons than rubidium
  • B. Caesium atoms are smaller than rubidium atoms
  • C. Caesium has more electron shells, so its outer electron is further from the nucleus and lost more easily
  • D. Caesium has a higher melting point than rubidium, releasing more energy
1 mark · standard

Caesium (Period 6) has 6 electron shells; rubidium (Period 5) has 5. The outer electron in caesium is further from the nucleus, shielded by more inner shells, and therefore subject to weaker nuclear attraction. It is easier to lose, making caesium more reactive. This is the same reasoning that explains all Group 1 reactivity trends.

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Group 7: Halogens

22
1.

Describe the trend in reactivity of halogens going down Group 7 and explain this trend in terms of atomic structure.

6 marks · higher

Reactivity decreases as you go down Group 7. All halogens have 7 electrons in their outer shell and react by gaining 1 electron to form -1 ions. Going down the group, atoms have more electron shells and a larger atomic radius. This means the outer shell is further from the nucleus. There is therefore a weaker electrostatic attraction between the nucleus and an incoming electron, making it harder to gain an electron. As a result, the halogens become less reactive going down the group.

  • Reactivity decreases going down Group 7 (1m)
  • All halogens have 7 electrons in their outer shell (1m)
  • They react by gaining 1 electron to form -1 ions (1m)
  • Going down the group, atoms have more electron shells and are larger (1m)
  • The outer shell is further from the nucleus going down the group (1m)
  • Weaker nuclear attraction for incoming electrons, so harder to gain an electron — less reactive (1m)

This 6-mark extended question requires a complete explanation. Key mark points: (1) reactivity decreases down Group 7; (2) halogens all have 7 outer electrons; (3) they react by gaining 1 electron to form -1 ions; (4) going down the group, atoms have more electron shells / larger radius; (5) outer shell is further from the nucleus; (6) weaker nuclear attraction makes it harder to gain an electron / reactivity falls. A common error is to describe reactivity of metals (losing electrons) instead of halogens (gaining electrons).

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2.

Explain the trend in reactivity of the halogens going down Group 7. Use ideas about electron configuration, nuclear attraction, and the ease of gaining an electron to construct a complete explanation.

5 marks · challenge

Reactivity decreases going down Group 7 from fluorine to iodine. All halogens have 7 electrons in their outer shell and react by gaining 1 electron to form a -1 ion (a halide ion), completing the outer shell to 8 electrons. Going down Group 7, each element has one more electron shell than the element above, so the outer shell is progressively further from the nucleus and there is more shielding of the outer shell from the nuclear charge by the inner electron shells. As a result, the electrostatic attraction between the nucleus and an incoming electron becomes weaker going down the group. This means it becomes progressively harder to gain an electron, so the halogens become less reactive going down the group. This is the opposite trend to Group 1 metals: in Group 1, reactivity increases down the group because the outer electron becomes easier to lose, whereas in Group 7, reactivity decreases because gaining an electron becomes harder.

  • Reactivity decreases going down Group 7 (1m)
  • Halogens have 7 outer electrons and react by gaining 1 electron to form -1 (halide) ions (1m)
  • Going down the group, atoms have more electron shells — outer shell is further from the nucleus (1m)
  • More inner shells provide more shielding — nuclear attraction for incoming electron is reduced (1m)
  • Gaining an electron becomes progressively harder down the group — reactivity decreases; contrast with Group 1 where losing an electron becomes easier (1m)

This 5-mark extended answer requires a complete causal chain: (1) state the trend — reactivity decreases; (2) link the reaction type to electron gain (gaining 1e⁻ to form -1 ion); (3) more shells, outer shell further from nucleus; (4) more shielding, weaker nuclear attraction for incoming electron; (5) harder to gain electron — less reactive. The contrast with Group 1 (opposite trend because losing vs gaining electrons) is a high-quality addition that earns the fifth mark. A very common error is mixing up the direction of electron transfer — halogens GAIN electrons, Group 1 metals LOSE electrons. Students who write 'halogens react by losing electrons' receive a negativeKeyword penalty.

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3.

Chlorine water is added to potassium bromide solution and a colour change is observed. When chlorine water is replaced with iodine solution and added to potassium bromide solution, no colour change occurs. Explain these observations in terms of halogen reactivity and electron gain, and state what this tells us about the relative reactivity of chlorine, bromine, and iodine.

4 marks · challenge

Chlorine is more reactive than bromine. When chlorine water is added to potassium bromide solution, chlorine displaces bromide ions from the solution because chlorine is a more reactive halogen. Chlorine gains electrons from the bromide ions: Cl₂ + 2Br⁻ → 2Cl⁻ + Br₂. Bromine is produced, which turns the solution orange-brown. Iodine is less reactive than bromine, so it cannot displace bromide ions from potassium bromide solution. Iodine has less tendency to gain electrons than bromine because iodine atoms have more electron shells, placing the outer shell further from the nucleus with more shielding, so the nuclear attraction for an incoming electron is weaker. Since iodine cannot gain electrons from bromide ions in competition, no displacement occurs and there is no colour change. This confirms that reactivity decreases down Group 7: chlorine > bromine > iodine. A more reactive halogen can displace a less reactive one from its salt solution, but not the reverse.

  • Chlorine displaces bromide from KBr because Cl is more reactive than Br — produces bromine (orange/brown colour change) (1m)
  • Iodine does not displace bromide because iodine is less reactive than bromine — no colour change (1m)
  • Explanation using atomic structure: iodine has more electron shells / outer shell further from nucleus / more shielding — nuclear attraction for incoming electron is weaker (1m)
  • Conclusion: reactivity order is Cl > Br > I; a more reactive halogen can displace a less reactive one from its salt, but not vice versa (1m)

This question tests displacement reactions as evidence for the halogen reactivity series. The key principle is: a more reactive halogen can displace a less reactive one from a solution of its salt, because the more reactive halogen gains electrons more readily. Chlorine can displace bromide (Cl more reactive than Br), but iodine cannot displace bromide (I less reactive than Br). The atomic structure explanation — more electron shells, greater shielding, weaker nuclear attraction, harder to gain an electron — explains why reactivity decreases from Cl to Br to I. Students often know the observations but struggle to link them to electron gain and nuclear attraction.

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4.

State the colour and physical state at room temperature of chlorine, bromine, and iodine.

3 marks · foundation

Chlorine is a green gas at room temperature. Bromine is an orange-brown liquid at room temperature. Iodine is a grey-black solid at room temperature.

  • Chlorine: green (or yellow-green) gas (1m)
  • Bromine: orange (or orange-brown or reddish-brown) liquid (1m)
  • Iodine: grey (or grey-black or dark) solid (1m)

You need to learn these three: Chlorine — pale green gas; Bromine — orange-brown liquid (the only non-metal liquid at room temperature); Iodine — grey-black solid. Going down Group 7, the halogens get darker in colour and their boiling points increase (gas to liquid to solid).

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5.

Explain why chlorine is more reactive than bromine.

3 marks · standard

Chlorine has fewer electron shells than bromine, so its outer shell is closer to the nucleus. This means there is a stronger electrostatic attraction between the nucleus and an incoming electron, making it easier for chlorine to gain an electron and form a chloride ion.

  • Chlorine has fewer electron shells than bromine / is a smaller atom (1m)
  • The outer shell is closer to the nucleus in chlorine (1m)
  • Stronger nuclear attraction for incoming electrons, so easier to gain an electron / more reactive (1m)

Halogen reactivity decreases down Group 7. Chlorine is more reactive than bromine because chlorine has fewer electron shells, so its outer shell is closer to the nucleus. The stronger nuclear attraction means chlorine more easily gains an electron (is reduced). Bromine has more electron shells (more shielding), so the outer shell is further from the nucleus and electrons are less strongly attracted. Key point: reactivity of halogens is about gaining electrons, not losing them.

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6.

Explain why iodine is less reactive than chlorine.

3 marks · standard

Iodine has more electron shells than chlorine, so its outer shell is much further from the nucleus. This means there is a weaker nuclear attraction for an incoming electron, making it harder for iodine to gain an electron and form an iodide ion.

  • Iodine has more electron shells than chlorine / is a larger atom (1m)
  • The outer shell is further from the nucleus in iodine (1m)
  • Weaker nuclear attraction for incoming electrons, so harder to gain an electron / less reactive (1m)

Iodine is less reactive than chlorine because iodine has more electron shells (5 compared to chlorine's 3). The extra shells mean iodine's outer shell is further from the nucleus and there is more electron shielding. The weaker nuclear attraction makes it harder for iodine to attract and gain an electron. This is the same argument as for chlorine vs bromine, but reversed.

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7.

Describe the trend in physical properties of halogens as you go down Group 7.

3 marks · standard

Going down Group 7, the colour of the halogens gets darker (from pale yellow to grey-black). Melting points and boiling points increase down the group. The physical state changes from gas (fluorine, chlorine) to liquid (bromine) to solid (iodine) at room temperature.

  • Colour gets darker going down the group (pale yellow to grey-black) (1m)
  • Melting points and boiling points increase down the group (1m)
  • State changes from gas to liquid to solid at room temperature going down the group (1m)

Three trends going down Group 7: (1) colour becomes darker — fluorine is pale yellow, chlorine is yellow-green, bromine is orange-brown, iodine is grey-black; (2) melting and boiling points increase, so physical state changes from gas to liquid to solid at room temperature; (3) molecules become larger so intermolecular forces (van der Waals) are stronger, requiring more energy to separate them. All three trends are needed for full marks.

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8.

Chlorine gas is bubbled through potassium bromide solution. Describe what you observe and explain why this happens. Include a balanced symbol equation.

3 marks · standard

The solution turns orange-brown. This is because chlorine is more reactive than bromine, so it displaces bromine from the potassium bromide solution. The balanced equation is: Cl₂(g) + 2KBr(aq) → 2KCl(aq) + Br₂(aq).

  • Solution turns orange-brown (as bromine is displaced) (1m)
  • Chlorine is more reactive than bromine / displaces bromine because it is more reactive (1m)
  • Balanced equation: Cl₂ + 2KBr → 2KCl + Br₂ (accept with or without state symbols) (1m)

Observable change: solution turns orange-brown (bromine released). Explanation: chlorine is more reactive than bromine, so it displaces bromine from its salt solution. Equation: Cl₂(g) + 2KBr(aq) → 2KCl(aq) + Br₂(aq). This is a redox reaction: chlorine is reduced (gains electrons from Br⁻ ions); bromide ions are oxidised. All three mark points — observation, explanation, equation — must be present for full marks.

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9.

Chlorine water is added to potassium iodide solution. Describe what you observe, explain why, and write a balanced equation for the reaction.

3 marks · standard

The solution turns brown as iodine is released. This is because chlorine is more reactive than iodine, so it displaces iodine from the potassium iodide solution. The balanced equation is: Cl₂(g) + 2KI(aq) → 2KCl(aq) + I₂(aq).

  • Solution turns brown (or dark orange-brown) as iodine is released (1m)
  • Chlorine is more reactive than iodine / displaces iodine because it is more reactive (1m)
  • Balanced equation: Cl₂ + 2KI → 2KCl + I₂ (accept with or without state symbols) (1m)

Observation: solution turns brown (iodine released). Explanation: chlorine is more reactive than iodine (higher up Group 7), so it displaces iodine from KI solution. Equation: Cl₂(g) + 2KI(aq) → 2KCl(aq) + I₂(aq). Note the colour change is brown (iodine in water), not orange-brown like bromine. All three parts — observation, explanation, equation — are required for full marks.

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10.

Astatine (At) is the halogen below iodine in Group 7. Using trends in Group 7, predict the physical state, colour, and reactivity of astatine at room temperature, giving a reason for the reactivity prediction.

3 marks · higher

Astatine would be a dark-coloured solid at room temperature, following the trend that colour gets darker and state changes from gas to liquid to solid going down the group. Astatine would be the least reactive halogen because it has the most electron shells, so its outer shell is furthest from the nucleus and the attraction for an incoming electron is the weakest.

  • Solid at room temperature (following the gas → liquid → solid trend down the group) (1m)
  • Dark colour (darker than iodine / black) — colour gets darker down the group (1m)
  • Least reactive because it has the most electron shells / outer shell is furthest from the nucleus / weakest attraction for an incoming electron (1m)

This question tests whether you can extrapolate Group 7 trends. Trends from top to bottom: darker colour, higher melting/boiling point (so solid at room temperature), lower reactivity. Astatine predictions: solid (following trend); very dark/black (following colour trend); least reactive halogen (most electron shells means outer shell furthest from nucleus and weakest nuclear attraction for electrons). Three distinct mark points need three distinct statements.

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11.

Describe the structure of a halogen molecule.

2 marks · foundation

Halogen molecules are diatomic, meaning they consist of two atoms. The two atoms are joined by a single covalent bond, sharing one pair of electrons.

  • Halogens exist as diatomic molecules (two atoms per molecule) (1m)
  • The two atoms are joined by a single covalent bond / share one pair of electrons (1m)

Halogens exist as diatomic molecules (e.g. Cl₂, Br₂, I₂). The two atoms are held together by a single covalent bond — a shared pair of electrons. A common misconception is that halogens are monatomic (single atoms), but they always exist as pairs bonded together.

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12.

What is a halogen displacement reaction? Give a definition.

2 marks · foundation

A halogen displacement reaction occurs when a more reactive halogen takes the place of a less reactive halogen in a compound, pushing the less reactive halogen out of solution.

  • A more reactive halogen takes the place of (displaces) a less reactive halogen (1m)
  • The less reactive halogen is released / pushed out of its compound or solution (1m)

Halogen displacement follows the reactivity trend in Group 7: more reactive halogens can displace less reactive halogens from their salt solutions. For example, chlorine (more reactive) displaces bromine from potassium bromide solution because chlorine gains electrons more easily. This is a redox reaction — the more reactive halogen is reduced (gains electrons) and the halide ion is oxidised (loses electrons).

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13.

Explain why bromine does NOT displace chlorine from sodium chloride solution.

2 marks · standard

Bromine cannot displace chlorine from sodium chloride solution because bromine is less reactive than chlorine. Only a more reactive halogen can displace a less reactive one from its compound.

  • Bromine is less reactive than chlorine (1m)
  • A less reactive halogen cannot displace a more reactive one from its compound (no reaction occurs) (1m)

Displacement only works if the halogen being added is MORE reactive than the halide in solution. Chlorine is higher in Group 7 than bromine, so chlorine is more reactive. Bromine cannot displace chlorine because you need a more reactive halogen to push out a less reactive one. No colour change would be observed if bromine water was added to NaCl solution.

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14.

Fluorine is at the top of Group 7. Predict and explain why fluorine is the most reactive halogen.

2 marks · higher

Fluorine is the most reactive halogen because it has the smallest atom with the fewest electron shells. Its outer shell is closest to the nucleus, giving the strongest nuclear attraction for an incoming electron, so fluorine can gain an electron most easily.

  • Fluorine is the most reactive halogen / has the smallest atom / fewest electron shells (1m)
  • Its outer shell is closest to the nucleus, giving the strongest attraction for an incoming electron / easiest to gain an electron (1m)

Fluorine has just 2 electron shells (electronic structure 2,7), so its outer shell is extremely close to the nucleus. The strong nuclear attraction makes fluorine the most powerful at gaining electrons — it is the most reactive halogen. This is an extension of the Group 7 reactivity trend applied to the top of the group. Fluorine is so reactive it is rarely used in school labs.

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15.

How many electrons do halogens have in their outer shell?

  • A. 1
  • B. 5
  • C. 7
  • D. 8
1 mark · foundation

Halogens are in Group 7 of the periodic table, so they have 7 electrons in their outer shell. This means they need to gain just 1 electron to achieve a full outer shell of 8, which drives their high reactivity.

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16.

What happens to the reactivity of halogens as you go down Group 7?

  • A. Increases
  • B. Stays the same
  • C. Varies unpredictably
  • D. Decreases
1 mark · foundation

Reactivity decreases down Group 7. As atoms get larger going down the group, the outer shell is further from the nucleus, so the attraction for an incoming electron is weaker. This is the opposite of Group 1, where reactivity increases down the group.

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17.

What charge do halide ions carry?

  • A. +2
  • B. +1
  • C. -1
  • D. -2
1 mark · foundation

Halogens gain 1 electron to achieve a full outer shell, forming halide ions with a 1- charge (e.g., Cl⁻, Br⁻, I⁻). This is why they are called halide ions in ionic compounds.

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18.

In what form do halogen elements naturally exist?

  • A. As diatomic molecules (pairs of atoms)
  • B. As single atoms
  • C. As giant ionic lattices
  • D. As triatomic molecules (three atoms)
1 mark · foundation

Halogens exist as diatomic molecules: F₂, Cl₂, Br₂, and I₂. Each molecule consists of two atoms joined by a single covalent bond, sharing one pair of electrons.

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19.

Chlorine gas is bubbled through potassium bromide solution. Which observation correctly describes what happens?

  • A. The solution remains colourless because no reaction occurs
  • B. The solution turns orange-brown as bromine is displaced
  • C. The solution turns purple as iodine is produced
  • D. The solution turns blue as chlorine dissolves
1 mark · standard

Chlorine is more reactive than bromine, so it displaces bromine from potassium bromide solution. The displaced bromine turns the solution orange-brown. The equation is: Cl₂(g) + 2KBr(aq) → 2KCl(aq) + Br₂(aq).

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20.

Which of the following correctly predicts whether bromine will displace iodine from potassium iodide solution?

  • A. Yes, because bromine is more reactive than iodine
  • B. No, because bromine is less reactive than iodine
  • C. Yes, because iodine is more reactive than bromine
  • D. No, because halogens cannot displace each other
1 mark · standard

Bromine is above iodine in Group 7, so it is more reactive and can displace iodine from potassium iodide solution. The solution turns brown as iodine is released: Br₂(aq) + 2KI(aq) → 2KBr(aq) + I₂(aq).

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21.

Which statement correctly describes iodine at room temperature?

  • A. Yellow gas
  • B. Orange-brown liquid
  • C. Green gas
  • D. Grey-black solid that produces a purple vapour
1 mark · standard

Iodine is a shiny grey-black solid at room temperature. When heated it sublimes (turns directly to gas), producing a distinctive purple vapour. It is the only halogen that is a solid at room temperature.

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22.

Astatine (At) is below iodine in Group 7. Using the trends in Group 7, which prediction about astatine is most likely correct?

  • A. It is a gas and is more reactive than chlorine
  • B. It is a solid and is the least reactive halogen
  • C. It is a liquid and has a lower boiling point than iodine
  • D. It is a gas and has a lower melting point than bromine
1 mark · standard

Following Group 7 trends, melting and boiling points increase down the group (F₂ and Cl₂ are gases, Br₂ is a liquid, I₂ is a solid), so astatine is predicted to be a solid. Reactivity decreases down the group, so astatine is the least reactive halogen.

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Transition Metals (HT)

20
1.

Evaluate the properties of transition metals that make them suitable for use in industry, compared to Group 1 and Group 2 metals. In your answer, refer to at least two specific properties and two industrial uses.

5 marks · challenge

Transition metals are well suited for industrial use because of their combination of physical and chemical properties. Their high melting points mean they remain solid at the high temperatures found in industrial processes, unlike Group 1 metals such as sodium which melt at only 98 degrees C. Their high strength and hardness make them ideal for structural use — iron and steel are used to construct bridges and buildings because they can bear heavy loads without bending. Transition metals also have low reactivity compared to Group 1 metals, which is important for materials that must be durable and not corrode quickly. Copper, for example, is used in water pipes because it does not react readily with water. Additionally, transition metals make excellent catalysts due to their variable oxidation states. Iron is used as the catalyst in the Haber process for making ammonia, and manganese dioxide catalyses the decomposition of hydrogen peroxide. Group 1 and Group 2 metals cannot fulfil these roles because they are too soft, too reactive, and lack variable oxidation states.

  • High melting point stated and linked to an industrial use (e.g. withstanding high temperatures in industrial reactors / structural use) (1m)
  • High strength / hardness linked to structural industrial use (e.g. bridges, buildings, construction with iron/steel) (1m)
  • Low reactivity / corrosion resistance linked to an industrial use (e.g. copper in water pipes) (1m)
  • Variable oxidation states linked to catalytic use (e.g. iron in Haber process, MnO2 in H2O2 decomposition) (1m)
  • Contrast with Group 1 or Group 2 metals — explains why they are unsuitable (too reactive / too soft / low melting point / no variable oxidation states) (1m)

Transition metals are superior to Group 1 and Group 2 metals for industrial use because: (1) They have high melting points (iron 1538°C, vs sodium 98°C), making them suitable for high-temperature applications. (2) They are hard and strong — steel (iron alloy) is used in buildings and bridges; Group 1 metals are too soft. (3) They have low reactivity — copper is used for water pipes because it does not corrode readily; Group 1 metals react violently with water. (4) Variable oxidation states allow them to act as catalysts — iron in the Haber process, manganese dioxide for H2O2 decomposition.

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2.

Give two uses of copper and link each use to a property of copper that makes it suitable.

4 marks · standard

Copper is used in electrical wiring because it is an excellent electrical conductor, allowing current to flow with minimal resistance. Copper is also used in water pipes and plumbing because it is resistant to corrosion and does not react with water, so it will not contaminate drinking water. It is also malleable so it can be bent and shaped into pipe fittings.

  • Use 1: electrical wiring / electrical cables / connecting circuits (1m)
  • Property for use 1: good electrical conductor / conducts electricity (1m)
  • Use 2: water pipes / plumbing / roofing / coins / heat exchangers (1m)
  • Property for use 2: corrosion resistant / does not react with water / malleable / ductile / good thermal conductor (must match use stated) (1m)

This 4-mark question requires two uses each paired with a property (1 mark for use + 1 mark for property = 2 marks per pair). Key copper use-property pairs: (1) Electrical wiring — excellent electrical conductor (delocalised electrons carry current freely); (2) Water pipes/plumbing — corrosion resistant, does not react with water so it does not contaminate drinking water; also malleable so it can be bent into shape. Other valid uses include: saucepans (good thermal conductor), alloys (bronze, brass). Always state the property that makes copper suitable, not just the use.

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3.

A student adds sodium hydroxide solution to two separate test tubes — one containing iron(II) sulfate solution and one containing iron(III) sulfate solution. Describe what you would observe in each test tube and explain what these observations show.

4 marks · higher

With iron(II) sulfate solution, a pale green precipitate forms. This is iron(II) hydroxide, Fe(OH)2. The green colour shows iron is present as Fe2+ ions. With iron(III) sulfate solution, an orange-brown precipitate forms. This is iron(III) hydroxide, Fe(OH)3. The orange-brown colour shows iron is present as Fe3+ ions. These different colours demonstrate that iron has variable oxidation states.

  • Iron(II) sulfate produces a pale green precipitate / Fe(OH)2 precipitate is green (1m)
  • Iron(III) sulfate produces an orange-brown precipitate / Fe(OH)3 precipitate is orange-brown (1m)
  • Green colour shows Fe2+ ions present / shows the +2 oxidation state of iron (1m)
  • Orange-brown colour shows Fe3+ ions present / shows the +3 oxidation state / different colours show variable oxidation states (1m)

Adding NaOH to transition metal ion solutions forms coloured precipitates — this is an identifying test. Iron(II) Fe²⁺: pale green precipitate of iron(II) hydroxide, Fe(OH)₂. Iron(III) Fe³⁺: orange-brown (rust-coloured) precipitate of iron(III) hydroxide, Fe(OH)₃. The different colours directly demonstrate variable oxidation states — iron can exist as both Fe²⁺ and Fe³⁺ ions. The 4 marks cover: the colour of the Fe²⁺ precipitate, the identity (iron II hydroxide), the colour of the Fe³⁺ precipitate, and the identity (iron III hydroxide), plus the explanation of what these show (variable oxidation states).

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4.

A student tests two unknown solutions with sodium hydroxide solution. Solution A gives a pale green precipitate and Solution B gives an orange-brown precipitate. Identify the metal ions present in each solution and write the formula of each precipitate formed.

4 marks · higher

Solution A contains Fe2+ (iron(II)) ions. The pale green precipitate is iron(II) hydroxide, Fe(OH)2. Solution B contains Fe3+ (iron(III)) ions. The orange-brown precipitate is iron(III) hydroxide, Fe(OH)3.

  • Solution A contains Fe2+ ions / iron(II) ions (1m)
  • Precipitate in A is Fe(OH)2 / iron(II) hydroxide (1m)
  • Solution B contains Fe3+ ions / iron(III) ions (1m)
  • Precipitate in B is Fe(OH)3 / iron(III) hydroxide (1m)

When NaOH solution is added to metal ion solutions: Fe2+ ions give a pale green precipitate of iron(II) hydroxide — Fe(OH)2. Fe3+ ions give an orange-brown precipitate of iron(III) hydroxide — Fe(OH)3. Cu2+ ions give a blue precipitate. These colour differences allow identification of transition metal ions in solution. Solution A (pale green) contains Fe2+ and Solution B (orange-brown) contains Fe3+.

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5.

State three ways in which transition metals differ from Group 1 metals.

3 marks · foundation

Transition metals have higher melting points than Group 1 metals. Transition metals are harder and stronger than Group 1 metals. Transition metals are much less reactive than Group 1 metals.

  • Higher melting point (transition metals melt at much higher temperatures than Group 1 metals) (1m)
  • Harder / stronger / higher density (transition metals are physically tougher) (1m)
  • Less reactive (transition metals do not react vigorously with water or air the way Group 1 metals do) (1m)

Transition metals contrast sharply with Group 1 metals in every key physical and chemical property. Three mark points to learn: (1) Higher melting points — iron melts at 1538°C vs sodium at 98°C. (2) Harder and stronger — iron/steel can support large loads; sodium is soft enough to cut with a knife. (3) Much less reactive — transition metals do not react vigorously with water or air; Group 1 metals react explosively with water. Transition metals also have coloured compounds and variable oxidation states, which are additional distinguishing features.

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6.

State the colour of each of the following transition metal compounds: (a) copper(II) sulfate solution (b) iron(II) compound (c) iron(III) compound.

3 marks · standard

(a) Copper(II) sulfate solution is blue. (b) Iron(II) compounds are pale green. (c) Iron(III) compounds are orange-brown.

  • (a) Copper(II) sulfate solution: blue (1m)
  • (b) Iron(II) compound: pale green / green (1m)
  • (c) Iron(III) compound: orange / brown / orange-brown / rust-coloured (1m)

Transition metal compound colours to memorise: (a) Copper(II) sulfate solution — blue. (b) Iron(II) compounds — pale green (e.g. FeSO4 solution is pale green, Fe(OH)2 precipitate is pale green). (c) Iron(III) compounds — orange-brown (e.g. Fe(OH)3 precipitate is orange-brown, rust is orange-brown). The colour arises from the specific electron arrangement of the transition metal ion.

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7.

Explain why transition metals are described as having variable oxidation states. Give two examples using iron or copper.

3 marks · higher

Transition metals can form ions with more than one charge. For example, iron can form Fe2+ (iron II) and Fe3+ (iron III). Copper can form Cu+ (copper I) and Cu2+ (copper II). This is different from Group 1 metals which only ever form +1 ions.

  • Transition metals can form ions with more than one charge / lose different numbers of electrons (1m)
  • Iron example: Fe2+ (iron II) and Fe3+ (iron III) stated or equivalent (1m)
  • Copper example: Cu+ (copper I) and Cu2+ (copper II) stated, OR a second correct iron example accepted (1m)

Oxidation state = the charge of an ion. 'Variable' means a transition metal can form ions with different charges in different compounds. Iron: Fe²⁺ (iron II, pale green compounds) and Fe³⁺ (iron III, orange-brown compounds). Copper: Cu⁺ (copper I) and Cu²⁺ (copper II, blue compounds). Contrast with Group 1 (only +1) and Group 2 (only +2) — they do NOT have variable oxidation states. This also explains why transition metal compounds are coloured — the different ion charges interact with light differently. Full marks require: the concept (more than one charge possible) plus two specific examples.

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8.

State what is meant by the term 'catalyst' and explain why transition metals are particularly effective as catalysts.

3 marks · higher

A catalyst is a substance that speeds up a chemical reaction without being used up or permanently changed itself. Transition metals are effective catalysts because they have variable oxidation states, meaning they can gain and lose electrons during the reaction, helping reactants to react more easily. They provide an alternative reaction pathway with lower activation energy.

  • A catalyst speeds up a reaction without being permanently changed or used up (1m)
  • Transition metals have variable oxidation states / can gain and lose electrons (1m)
  • This allows them to lower the activation energy / provide an alternative reaction pathway / form intermediates with reactants (1m)

Definition: a catalyst speeds up a chemical reaction without itself being used up (it can be recovered unchanged at the end). Transition metals are particularly effective catalysts because their variable oxidation states allow them to donate and accept electrons during a reaction, providing an alternative lower-energy pathway (lower activation energy). The iron catalyst in the Haber process (N₂ + 3H₂ → 2NH₃) and manganese dioxide in hydrogen peroxide decomposition are key GCSE examples. Note: the catalyst lowers the activation energy — it does NOT change the energy difference between reactants and products (delta H).

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9.

Explain why transition metal compounds are coloured, while Group 1 and Group 2 metal compounds are typically white or colourless.

3 marks · higher

Transition metal compounds are coloured because transition metals have variable oxidation states and can form ions with partially filled electron arrangements. Group 1 and Group 2 metals form fixed simple ions and their compounds do not absorb visible light in the same way, so they appear white or colourless. Examples of coloured transition metal compounds include blue copper sulfate, green iron(II) compounds, and orange-brown iron(III) compounds.

  • Transition metals form coloured compounds / transition metal ions are coloured (1m)
  • This is linked to variable oxidation states / different ion charges / different electronic arrangements (1m)
  • Group 1 / Group 2 metals form white or colourless compounds because they only form one fixed type of ion (1+ or 2+) (1m)

The colour of transition metal compounds comes from the partially filled d-electron subshell of transition metal ions, which allows them to absorb specific wavelengths of visible light — we see the complementary colour that is not absorbed. Variable oxidation states mean the same metal can form different-coloured compounds (Fe²⁺ is green, Fe³⁺ is orange-brown; Cu²⁺ is blue). Group 1 metals only form +1 ions and Group 2 metals only form +2 ions — their electron arrangements are complete shells so they do not absorb visible light — their compounds appear white or colourless.

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10.

Explain why copper is a useful metal for electrical wiring.

2 marks · standard

Copper is a good electrical conductor so it allows electricity to flow through the wire. It is also malleable and ductile so it can be drawn into thin wires without breaking.

  • Good electrical conductor / conducts electricity / allows current to flow (1m)
  • Malleable or ductile / can be drawn into wires / can be shaped without breaking (1m)

This 2-mark question requires a property linked to a reason. Copper is useful for electrical wiring for two reasons: (1) it is an excellent electrical conductor — the delocalised electrons in copper's metallic structure allow electric current to flow freely; (2) it is ductile (can be drawn into thin wires without breaking) and malleable (can be bent without snapping). The combination of conductivity and workability makes copper ideal. A common incomplete answer only states it conducts without explaining why copper can be shaped into wires.

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11.

Describe two properties of transition metals that make them useful for construction (e.g. building bridges and structures).

2 marks · standard

Transition metals such as iron and steel are very strong and hard, so they can bear large loads without bending or breaking. They also have high melting points so they do not soften or melt at normal temperatures.

  • Strong / hard / high tensile strength / can support loads without breaking (1m)
  • High melting point / does not melt at normal temperatures / stays solid when hot (1m)

For construction, two properties matter most: (1) Strength/hardness — transition metals (especially steel, an iron alloy) can bear large loads without bending, buckling, or breaking. This is essential for bridges and buildings. (2) High melting points — construction materials must remain solid under high temperatures. Iron melts at 1538°C, so it will never melt in normal environmental conditions. A common mistake is to give uses (building bridges) rather than properties — always state the property first, then optionally link it to the use.

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12.

The reaction 2H2O2 (aq) -> 2H2O (l) + O2 (g) is slow at room temperature. Describe how manganese dioxide can be used to speed up this reaction and what its role is.

2 marks · standard

Manganese dioxide acts as a catalyst. It is added to the hydrogen peroxide solution and speeds up the decomposition reaction. Manganese dioxide is not used up during the reaction — it is still present at the end and can be recovered.

  • Manganese dioxide acts as a catalyst / speeds up the reaction (1m)
  • Manganese dioxide is not used up / is unchanged / can be recovered at the end (1m)

Manganese dioxide (MnO₂) is a classic GCSE example of a transition metal catalyst. Add it to hydrogen peroxide solution and the decomposition rate increases dramatically — you see vigorous bubbling of oxygen gas. After the reaction, the manganese dioxide can be filtered out and weighed; its mass is unchanged because it was not consumed. The two mark points required: (1) it acts as a catalyst — speeds up the reaction; (2) it is NOT used up — can be recovered unchanged. This is what distinguishes a catalyst from a reactant.

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13.

Where in the periodic table are the transition metals located?

  • A. Far left, in Group 1
  • B. Far right, in Groups 17 and 18
  • C. At the very bottom of the table
  • D. In the middle, between Groups 2 and 3
1 mark · foundation

The transition metals form the central block of the periodic table, sitting between Group 2 (alkaline earth metals) and Group 3. This central block is also called the d-block. Examples include iron (Fe), copper (Cu), and titanium (Ti).

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14.

Copper sulfate solution is blue. This is an example of which property of transition metals?

  • A. Transition metals form coloured compounds
  • B. Transition metals have high melting points
  • C. Transition metals act as catalysts
  • D. Transition metals have variable oxidation states
1 mark · foundation

Transition metal compounds are characteristically coloured. Copper(II) sulfate is blue, iron(III) compounds are orange-brown, iron(II) compounds are pale green, and potassium manganate(VII) is purple. This is a key property that distinguishes transition metals from Group 1 and Group 2 metals, whose compounds are usually white.

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15.

Which transition metal is used as a catalyst in the Haber process for making ammonia?

  • A. Copper
  • B. Iron
  • C. Zinc
  • D. Nickel
1 mark · foundation

Iron is the catalyst used in the Haber process: N2 + 3H2 --> 2NH3. Without the iron catalyst the reaction would be too slow at the temperatures used industrially. The catalyst is not used up — it is still iron at the end of the process.

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16.

Iron is used as the catalyst in the Haber process. Which statement best explains why transition metals make good catalysts?

  • A. They can form ions with different charges, allowing them to gain and lose electrons during reactions
  • B. They have high melting points so they do not melt during the reaction
  • C. They have high densities so they sink to the bottom of the reaction vessel
  • D. They are coloured, which helps absorb light energy to speed up reactions
1 mark · standard

Transition metals can exist in multiple oxidation states (variable charges). This means they can donate and accept electrons during a reaction, acting as intermediates. This ability to change oxidation state is why they are effective catalysts. Iron, for example, can be Fe2+ or Fe3+.

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17.

Sodium (a Group 1 metal) reacts vigorously with water. Which row correctly compares sodium with iron, a transition metal?

  • A. Iron has a lower melting point and is more reactive than sodium
  • B. Iron has a higher melting point and is less reactive than sodium
  • C. Iron has a higher melting point and is more reactive than sodium
  • D. Iron has the same melting point but is less reactive than sodium
1 mark · standard

Transition metals like iron have much higher melting points than Group 1 metals (iron melts at 1538 degrees C vs sodium at 98 degrees C). Transition metals are also much less reactive — iron does not react vigorously with water, while sodium fizzes violently. This makes transition metals more useful for construction and engineering.

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18.

Iron can form two types of ions: Fe2+ and Fe3+. This is an example of which property of transition metals?

  • A. High melting point
  • B. High density
  • C. Forming coloured compounds
  • D. Variable oxidation states
1 mark · standard

Transition metals can form ions with different charges. This is called having variable oxidation states. Iron forms Fe2+ (iron(II)) and Fe3+ (iron(III)). Copper forms Cu+ and Cu2+. Group 1 metals only ever form +1 ions and Group 2 only +2 ions, so this multiple charge behaviour is distinctive of the transition metals.

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19.

A student dissolves a white solid in water. The resulting solution is colourless. Which type of metal compound is most likely to produce a colourless solution?

  • A. A copper compound
  • B. An iron compound
  • C. A sodium compound
  • D. A manganese compound
1 mark · standard

Group 1 metal compounds (like sodium chloride and sodium sulfate) produce colourless solutions because they lack the partially filled d-orbitals responsible for colour. Transition metal compounds (copper, iron, manganese) form coloured solutions — copper gives blue, iron(III) gives yellow-brown, and manganese compounds can give pink or purple colours.

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20.

Manganese dioxide (MnO2) catalyses the decomposition of hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen. Which statement about manganese dioxide in this reaction is correct?

  • A. Manganese dioxide is used up and must be replaced after each reaction
  • B. Manganese dioxide increases the activation energy of the reaction
  • C. Manganese dioxide is still present at the end and can be recovered
  • D. Manganese dioxide lowers the temperature needed but is permanently changed
1 mark · standard

A catalyst speeds up a reaction without being permanently changed or consumed. Manganese dioxide (MnO2) is still present at the end of the hydrogen peroxide decomposition. It provides an alternative pathway with lower activation energy. Because it is not used up, it is an efficient industrial and laboratory catalyst.

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Oxidation & Reduction

20
1.

Compare the redox chemistry that occurs during a metal displacement reaction with the redox chemistry that occurs during electrolysis. In your answer: define oxidation and reduction in terms of electrons; write half equations for each process using zinc as an example for displacement and copper as an example for electrolysis; identify the oxidising and reducing agents in each case. (6 marks)

6 marks · challenge

Oxidation is the loss of electrons; reduction is the gain of electrons (OIL RIG). In a displacement reaction with zinc displacing copper: Zn → Zn²⁺ + 2e⁻ (zinc is oxidised; it is the reducing agent); Cu²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Cu (copper ions are reduced; they are the oxidising agent). Electrons are transferred directly from zinc metal to copper ions. During electrolysis of copper sulfate, at the cathode: Cu²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Cu (reduction — copper ions gain electrons supplied by the external power source); at the anode: Cu → Cu²⁺ + 2e⁻ (oxidation — copper atoms lose electrons to the external circuit). In both processes, oxidation and reduction occur simultaneously, making them redox reactions. The key difference is that in displacement, electrons are transferred directly between species in solution, while in electrolysis, electrons flow through an external circuit between electrodes.

  • Oxidation = loss of electrons; reduction = gain of electrons (OIL RIG) (1m)
  • Displacement oxidation half equation: Zn → Zn²⁺ + 2e⁻ (zinc loses electrons) (1m)
  • Displacement reduction half equation: Cu²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Cu (copper ions gain electrons) (1m)
  • In displacement: zinc is the reducing agent (oxidised); copper ions are the oxidising agent (reduced) (1m)
  • Electrolysis cathode: Cu²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Cu (reduction — copper ions gain electrons from external circuit) (1m)
  • Electrolysis anode: Cu → Cu²⁺ + 2e⁻ (oxidation) OR 2H₂O → O₂ + 4H⁺ + 4e⁻ (depending on solution); oxidation at anode, reduction at cathode (1m)

Both displacement reactions and electrolysis are redox processes. In displacement (Zn + CuSO₄): electrons move directly from Zn metal to Cu²⁺ ions. In electrolysis: electrons are pumped by the external power supply — at the cathode Cu²⁺ gains electrons (reduction), at the anode electrons are removed (oxidation). In both cases OIL RIG applies: oxidation is always loss of electrons and reduction is always gain of electrons. The oxidising agent in each case is the species that accepts electrons (Cu²⁺); the reducing agent is the species that donates electrons (Zn in displacement; copper metal at the anode in electrolysis).

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2.

Iron can displace copper from copper sulfate solution. Write the two half equations for this reaction and use them to identify the oxidising agent and reducing agent. Explain your reasoning. (4 marks)

4 marks · higher

Oxidation half equation: Fe → Fe²⁺ + 2e⁻ (iron is oxidised — it loses 2 electrons). Reduction half equation: Cu²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Cu (copper ions are reduced — they gain 2 electrons). Iron is the reducing agent because it donates electrons and is itself oxidised. Copper ions (CuSO₄) are the oxidising agent because they accept electrons and are themselves reduced.

  • Correct oxidation half equation: Fe → Fe²⁺ + 2e⁻ (1m)
  • Correct reduction half equation: Cu²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Cu (1m)
  • Iron is the reducing agent (donates electrons / is oxidised) (1m)
  • Copper ions / CuSO₄ is the oxidising agent (accepts electrons / is reduced) (1m)

Oxidation: Fe → Fe²⁺ + 2e⁻ (iron loses 2 electrons, forms iron(II) ions, is oxidised). Reduction: Cu²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Cu (copper ions gain 2 electrons, are reduced). Iron is the reducing agent — it causes reduction of Cu²⁺ by donating electrons, and is itself oxidised. Copper ions are the oxidising agent — they cause oxidation of Fe by accepting electrons, and are themselves reduced.

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3.

Explain what is meant by an oxidising agent and a reducing agent, using electron transfer in your answer. (3 marks)

3 marks · higher

An oxidising agent accepts electrons from another substance, causing that substance to be oxidised. The oxidising agent is itself reduced in the process. A reducing agent donates electrons to another substance, causing that substance to be reduced. The reducing agent is itself oxidised.

  • An oxidising agent accepts electrons (from another substance) (1m)
  • A reducing agent donates / gives electrons (to another substance) (1m)
  • The oxidising agent is itself reduced / the reducing agent is itself oxidised (the agent undergoes the opposite process to what it causes) (1m)

An oxidising agent accepts electrons from another substance, causing that substance to be oxidised. Because it accepts (gains) electrons, the oxidising agent is itself reduced (gains electrons = reduction). A reducing agent donates electrons to another substance, causing that substance to be reduced. Because it donates (loses) electrons, the reducing agent is itself oxidised. The key rule: the oxidising agent gets reduced; the reducing agent gets oxidised.

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4.

During electrolysis of copper sulfate solution, copper is deposited at the cathode. Write the half equation for this process and explain, using electron transfer, why this is reduction. (3 marks)

3 marks · higher

Cu²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Cu. This is reduction because the copper ions gain electrons. The cathode is the negative electrode, so it provides electrons to the positive copper ions, reducing them to copper metal.

  • Correct half equation: Cu²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Cu (allow Cu2+ + 2e- → Cu) (1m)
  • Copper ions gain electrons (2e⁻ gained per ion) (1m)
  • Gaining electrons is reduction (OIL RIG / RIG stated or implied) / occurs at the cathode (negative electrode) (1m)

At the cathode (negative electrode), Cu²⁺ ions are attracted and each ion gains 2 electrons: Cu²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Cu. Gaining electrons is reduction (OIL RIG). This is why electrolysis is described as involving reduction at the cathode.

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5.

Explain, in terms of electron transfer, why displacement reactions are classified as redox reactions. Use zinc reacting with copper sulfate solution as your example. (3 marks)

3 marks · higher

In the reaction Zn + CuSO₄ → ZnSO₄ + Cu, zinc loses electrons (Zn → Zn²⁺ + 2e⁻) so zinc is oxidised. Copper ions gain those electrons (Cu²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Cu) so copper ions are reduced. Oxidation and reduction occur simultaneously, so it is a redox reaction.

  • Zinc loses electrons and is oxidised (Zn → Zn²⁺ + 2e⁻) (1m)
  • Copper ions gain electrons and are reduced (Cu²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Cu) (1m)
  • Oxidation and reduction occur simultaneously (electrons transferred from Zn to Cu²⁺) (1m)

Zn → Zn²⁺ + 2e⁻ (zinc loses electrons = oxidised). Cu²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Cu (copper ions gain electrons = reduced). Both half-reactions occur simultaneously — electrons are transferred directly from the zinc metal to the copper ions. Because oxidation and reduction occur together in the same reaction, it is a redox reaction.

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6.

Give the oxygen-based definitions of oxidation and reduction. (2 marks)

2 marks · foundation

Oxidation is the gain of oxygen. Reduction is the loss of oxygen.

  • Oxidation is the gain of oxygen (1m)
  • Reduction is the loss of oxygen (1m)

In terms of oxygen: oxidation = gain of oxygen (e.g., 2Mg + O₂ → 2MgO — magnesium gains oxygen so is oxidised); reduction = loss of oxygen (e.g., CuO + C → Cu + CO₂ — copper oxide loses oxygen so is reduced).

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7.

In the reaction Mg + CuSO₄ → MgSO₄ + Cu, identify which species is oxidised and which is reduced. (2 marks)

2 marks · standard

Magnesium is oxidised because it loses electrons (Mg → Mg²⁺ + 2e⁻). Copper ions are reduced because they gain electrons (Cu²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Cu).

  • Magnesium / Mg is oxidised (loses electrons / forms Mg²⁺) (1m)
  • Copper ions / Cu²⁺ is reduced (gains electrons / forms Cu) (1m)

Magnesium goes from Mg (0) to Mg²⁺ (+2) — it loses two electrons, so it is oxidised. Copper goes from Cu²⁺ (+2) to Cu (0) — it gains two electrons, so it is reduced.

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8.

In the blast furnace reaction Fe₂O₃ + 3CO → 2Fe + 3CO₂, identify what is oxidised and what is reduced. Give your answer in terms of oxygen. (2 marks)

2 marks · standard

Carbon monoxide (CO) is oxidised because it gains oxygen to become CO₂. Iron oxide (Fe₂O₃) is reduced because it loses oxygen to form iron.

  • CO / carbon monoxide is oxidised — it gains oxygen (forms CO₂) (1m)
  • Fe₂O₃ / iron oxide is reduced — it loses oxygen (forms Fe) (1m)

CO starts with one oxygen atom and ends as CO₂ with two — it gained oxygen, so it is oxidised. Fe₂O₃ starts with three oxygen atoms and ends as Fe with none — it lost oxygen, so it is reduced.

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9.

Write the half equation for the oxidation of zinc and state how many electrons are transferred. (2 marks)

2 marks · standard

Zn → Zn²⁺ + 2e⁻. Two electrons are transferred (lost) per zinc atom.

  • Correct half equation: Zn → Zn²⁺ + 2e⁻ (correct formulae, arrow direction, and electrons) (1m)
  • Two electrons transferred (or 2e⁻ shown on right-hand side) (1m)

Zinc (0) is oxidised to Zn²⁺ (+2). Two electrons are lost per atom. The half equation is: Zn → Zn²⁺ + 2e⁻. Electrons appear on the right for oxidation half equations.

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10.

Rusting is an example of oxidation. Explain why, in terms of what happens to the iron. (2 marks)

2 marks · standard

During rusting, iron reacts with oxygen (and water) to form iron oxide (rust). Iron gains oxygen so it is oxidised. The iron atoms also lose electrons to form Fe²⁺/Fe³⁺ ions, which is the electron-transfer definition of oxidation.

  • Iron gains oxygen (to form iron oxide / rust) (1m)
  • Gaining oxygen is oxidation / iron loses electrons to form iron ions (1m)

Rusting: 4Fe + 3O₂ + 6H₂O → 4Fe(OH)₃ (simplified). Iron gains oxygen, which is the oxygen-based definition of oxidation. Additionally, iron atoms lose electrons to form Fe³⁺ ions, which is the electron-based definition of oxidation. Both definitions confirm rusting is oxidation.

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11.

What does OIL stand for in the mnemonic OIL RIG?

  • A. Oxygen Is Lost
  • B. Oxidation Is Loss (of electrons)
  • C. Oxidation Involves Lithium
  • D. Oxygen Increases Level
1 mark · foundation

OIL RIG is a key mnemonic: Oxidation Is Loss (of electrons), Reduction Is Gain (of electrons). This refers to electrons, not oxygen.

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12.

In terms of electrons, reduction is defined as:

  • A. Loss of electrons
  • B. Loss of oxygen
  • C. Gain of protons
  • D. Gain of electrons
1 mark · foundation

OIL RIG: Reduction Is Gain (of electrons). A species is reduced when it gains one or more electrons. This is the primary electron-transfer definition of reduction.

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13.

In terms of oxygen, which statement correctly defines oxidation?

  • A. Gain of oxygen
  • B. Loss of oxygen
  • C. Loss of hydrogen
  • D. Gain of hydrogen
1 mark · foundation

In terms of oxygen, oxidation is the gain of oxygen. For example, when iron rusts: 4Fe + 3O₂ → 2Fe₂O₃. Iron gains oxygen and is oxidised. The primary definition remains gain or loss of electrons.

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14.

Define oxidation in terms of electrons.

1 mark · foundation

Oxidation is the loss of electrons.

  • Oxidation is the loss of electrons (1m)

OIL RIG: Oxidation Is Loss (of electrons). When a species is oxidised it loses one or more electrons. For example: Na → Na⁺ + e⁻ — sodium is oxidised because it loses an electron.

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15.

Define reduction in terms of electrons.

1 mark · foundation

Reduction is the gain of electrons.

  • Reduction is the gain of electrons (1m)

OIL RIG: Reduction Is Gain (of electrons). When a species is reduced it gains one or more electrons. For example: Cu²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Cu — copper ions are reduced because they gain electrons.

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16.

In the reaction Mg + CuSO₄ → MgSO₄ + Cu, which species is oxidised and why?

  • A. Copper ions — they gain electrons
  • B. Magnesium — it loses electrons
  • C. Sulfate ions — they are spectator ions
  • D. Copper metal — it is formed in the reaction
1 mark · standard

Magnesium is oxidised: Mg → Mg²⁺ + 2e⁻. It loses two electrons, which is the definition of oxidation (OIL). The copper ions are simultaneously reduced: Cu²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Cu.

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17.

A reducing agent is a substance that:

  • A. Accepts electrons and is reduced
  • B. Gains oxygen and is oxidised
  • C. Donates electrons and is itself oxidised
  • D. Loses oxygen and is itself reduced
1 mark · standard

A reducing agent causes reduction in another species by donating electrons to it. Because it donates (loses) electrons, the reducing agent is itself oxidised. Example: in 2Mg + O₂ → 2MgO, magnesium is the reducing agent (it donates electrons and is oxidised).

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18.

During electrolysis, which statement correctly describes what happens at the electrodes?

  • A. Reduction occurs at the cathode; oxidation at the anode
  • B. Oxidation occurs at the cathode; reduction at the anode
  • C. Reduction occurs at both electrodes
  • D. Oxidation occurs at both electrodes
1 mark · standard

At the cathode (negative electrode), positive ions gain electrons — this is reduction. At the anode (positive electrode), negative ions lose electrons — this is oxidation. Memory aid: A is for Anode and Oxidation; C is for Cathode and reduction.

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19.

In the blast furnace reaction Fe₂O₃ + 3CO → 2Fe + 3CO₂, which statement is correct?

  • A. Fe₂O₃ is oxidised because it loses iron
  • B. CO is reduced because it gains oxygen
  • C. CO is the oxidising agent
  • D. Fe₂O₃ is the oxidising agent and CO is the reducing agent
1 mark · standard

Fe₂O₃ is reduced (loses oxygen, gains electrons) so it is the oxidising agent — it oxidises CO. CO gains oxygen to become CO₂ so it is oxidised, making it the reducing agent. The oxidising agent is reduced; the reducing agent is oxidised.

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20.

Why does a more reactive metal displace a less reactive metal from a solution of its salt?

  • A. More reactive metals have higher melting points
  • B. More reactive metals have a greater tendency to gain electrons
  • C. More reactive metals have a greater tendency to lose electrons
  • D. More reactive metals are always found as metal oxides
1 mark · standard

More reactive metals have a greater tendency to lose electrons (be oxidised). When placed in a salt solution of a less reactive metal, the more reactive metal donates electrons to the less reactive metal ions, displacing them. This is why zinc displaces copper from copper sulfate solution.

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