OCR B Chemistry Paper 2

390 questions with model answers · Chemistry Paper 2 (C4–C6) · GCSE Chemistry revision

Gas Tests

Common20
1.

An unknown gas is suspected to be one of the following: hydrogen, oxygen, carbon dioxide, chlorine, or ammonia. Write a detailed plan to identify the gas. Your plan should include: the order of tests and why that order is chosen, the test method and reagent for each gas, the expected positive result, and the safety precautions needed.

6 marks · challengeCommon

Safety: wear goggles throughout, work in a fume cupboard or well-ventilated area (especially for chlorine), use only small quantities of gas. Test 1: place a glowing splint in the gas. If it relights, the gas is oxygen. This test is done first as it is safe and does not alter the gas sample. Test 2: hold a burning splint near the gas. If a squeaky pop is heard, the gas is hydrogen. The burning splint test is done before the limewater test to avoid a flame interfering with later tests. Test 3: bubble the gas through limewater. If the limewater turns milky or cloudy, the gas is carbon dioxide. Test 4: hold damp blue litmus paper near the gas in a fume cupboard. If the litmus bleaches white, the gas is chlorine. Test 5: hold damp red litmus paper near the gas. If the paper turns blue, the gas is ammonia. Each test eliminates one possibility, leading to a definitive identification.

  • Safety first: wear goggles; use fume cupboard or ventilated area for chlorine; use small quantities (1m)
  • Test 1: Glowing splint — if relights, gas is oxygen (safest, non-destructive test first) (1m)
  • Test 2: Burning splint — if squeaky pop, gas is hydrogen (done before limewater so flame does not interfere) (1m)
  • Test 3: Bubble through limewater — if turns milky, gas is carbon dioxide (1m)
  • Test 4: Damp blue litmus paper — if bleaches white, gas is chlorine (use fume cupboard) (1m)
  • Test 5: Damp red litmus paper — if turns blue, gas is ammonia / correct final identification by elimination (1m)

A systematic approach is critical in gas testing: (1) Test for oxygen first (safe, non-destructive, uses glowing splint). (2) Test for hydrogen before limewater (burning splint — if CO2 is also present, the flame could drive off the gas or cause safety issues). (3) Limewater for CO2. (4) Damp litmus for chlorine (fume cupboard essential — toxic). (5) Damp red litmus for ammonia (elimination of previous gases confirms this). The order matters and students must justify it for full marks on 6-mark questions.

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2.

Compare the tests for hydrogen and oxygen using splints. Explain why different types of splint are used for each gas and what each result shows about the gas.

4 marks · higherCommon

Hydrogen is tested with a burning splint. The burning splint ignites the hydrogen, which burns rapidly in the oxygen of the air, producing a squeaky pop sound. A burning splint is used because hydrogen is itself a fuel that needs igniting. Oxygen is tested with a glowing splint. Oxygen supports combustion so it causes the glowing splint to relight and burst into flame. A glowing splint is used because oxygen does not burn itself — it only supports combustion of other materials.

  • Hydrogen is tested with a burning (lit) splint — produces a squeaky pop (1m)
  • Hydrogen burns / is itself a fuel, so needs a burning splint to ignite it (1m)
  • Oxygen is tested with a glowing (smouldering) splint — the splint relights (1m)
  • Oxygen supports combustion but does not burn itself, so a glowing splint is sufficient (1m)

The key distinction is that hydrogen IS a fuel (it combusts), while oxygen only SUPPORTS combustion (it is an oxidiser). Therefore a burning splint (with energy) is needed to ignite hydrogen, and the rapid combustion causes the pop. A glowing splint (which has potential to burn) is sufficient for oxygen because oxygen provides the molecules to sustain combustion of the splint wood.

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3.

Describe the safety precautions a student should take when testing for (a) chlorine gas and (b) hydrogen gas in a school laboratory. Explain the reason for each precaution.

4 marks · higherCommon

For chlorine: work in a fume cupboard or well-ventilated area because chlorine is a toxic gas that irritates and damages the lungs if inhaled. Wear safety goggles because chlorine is corrosive and can damage eyes. For hydrogen: keep all naked flames away from the hydrogen (except the test splint) because hydrogen is highly flammable and can explode when mixed with air. In both cases, use small amounts only and point the test tube away from people.

  • Chlorine: use a fume cupboard or well-ventilated area — chlorine is toxic and inhaling it damages the lungs (1m)
  • Chlorine: wear eye protection (goggles) and avoid skin contact — chlorine is corrosive/irritant (1m)
  • Hydrogen: keep away from all naked flames (except the test splint) — hydrogen is highly flammable and explosive (1m)
  • General: use only small quantities of gas; point the test tube away from others; work behind a safety screen (1m)

Chlorine (Cl2) is a toxic, yellow-green gas used as a chemical weapon in WW1 — even small concentrations damage the respiratory system. It is also corrosive. Hydrogen (H2) is highly flammable — it has a wide explosive range (4-75% in air) and burns with an almost invisible flame. These very different hazard profiles require different safety precautions.

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4.

State the best collection method for each gas and explain your reasoning: (a) Hydrogen (b) Carbon dioxide (c) Oxygen

3 marks · standardCommon

Hydrogen: collect by downward displacement of air because hydrogen is less dense than air and rises. Carbon dioxide: collect by upward displacement of air because carbon dioxide is denser than air. Oxygen: collect over water because oxygen is insoluble in water.

  • (a) Downward displacement of air — hydrogen is less dense than air (1m)
  • (b) Upward displacement of air — carbon dioxide is denser than air (1m)
  • (c) Collection over water — oxygen is insoluble in water (also accept downward displacement of air) (1m)

Collection method depends on density relative to air and solubility in water. Hydrogen (density ~0.09 g/dm3) is far less dense than air (~1.29 g/dm3), so it floats upward and is collected by downward displacement of air. Carbon dioxide (density ~1.96 g/dm3) is denser than air, so it sinks and is collected by upward displacement of air. Oxygen is insoluble in water, so can be collected over water using a gas syringe or trough.

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5.

A student carries out gas tests and obtains these results: - Test A: glowing splint bursts into flame - Test B: burning splint produces a squeaky pop - Test C: limewater turns milky Identify the gas in each test tube and give the name of the gas for each result.

3 marks · standardCommon

Test A: The gas is oxygen. Oxygen supports combustion so a glowing splint relights. Test B: The gas is hydrogen. Hydrogen burns rapidly causing a squeaky pop. Test C: The gas is carbon dioxide. Carbon dioxide reacts with limewater to form calcium carbonate, turning it milky.

  • Test A: Oxygen — glowing splint relights in oxygen (1m)
  • Test B: Hydrogen — squeaky pop with burning splint confirms hydrogen (1m)
  • Test C: Carbon dioxide — limewater turns milky only with CO2 (1m)

Each gas has a unique positive test result. A glowing (smouldering) splint relights only in oxygen because oxygen supports combustion. A burning splint produces a squeaky pop only with hydrogen because hydrogen burns explosively in air. Limewater turns milky only with carbon dioxide because CO2 reacts with Ca(OH)2 to form insoluble CaCO3.

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6.

Explain why damp red litmus paper turns blue when exposed to ammonia gas.

3 marks · higherCommon

Ammonia dissolves in the water on the surface of the damp litmus paper. This produces an alkaline solution because ammonia releases hydroxide ions when dissolved in water. The alkaline solution causes the red litmus paper to turn blue.

  • Ammonia dissolves in the water on the damp litmus paper (1m)
  • This forms an alkaline solution (releasing OH- ions / ammonium hydroxide) (1m)
  • The alkaline solution causes red litmus to turn blue (1m)

The equation for ammonia dissolving in water is: NH3(g) + H2O(l) -> NH4+(aq) + OH-(aq). The hydroxide ions (OH-) make the solution alkaline (pH > 7). Alkaline solutions turn red litmus blue. This is why the litmus must be damp — dry litmus provides no water for the ammonia to dissolve in, and no colour change would be observed.

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7.

Describe the test for chlorine gas, including the positive result.

2 marks · foundationCommon

Hold a piece of damp blue litmus paper near the gas. The litmus paper first turns red then bleaches white if chlorine is present. The paper bleaches because chlorine forms hypochlorous acid with the water on the paper.

  • Hold damp litmus paper (blue or red) near the gas (1m)
  • Positive result: the litmus paper bleaches white (turns colourless) (1m)

Chlorine is a powerful bleaching agent when dissolved in water. The damp litmus paper provides the water needed. Chlorine dissolves to form hydrochloric acid and hypochlorous acid (HClO). The HClO destroys the dye in the litmus paper, bleaching it to white. The paper first turns red (due to the acid) then white (due to bleaching).

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8.

Describe how you would test for ammonia gas. State the positive result.

2 marks · foundationCommon

Hold a piece of damp red litmus paper near the gas. If ammonia is present, the damp red litmus paper turns blue because ammonia is an alkaline gas.

  • Hold damp red litmus paper near the gas (1m)
  • Positive result: the damp red litmus paper turns blue (ammonia is alkaline) (1m)

Ammonia is the only common gas in GCSE chemistry that is alkaline. When ammonia dissolves in the water on the damp red litmus paper, it forms an alkaline solution. This causes the pH to rise above 7 and the red litmus turns blue. Using damp RED litmus (not blue) gives the clearest colour change.

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9.

Explain why hydrogen gas produces a squeaky pop when tested with a burning splint.

2 marks · standardCommon

Hydrogen burns rapidly in the oxygen present in air. The rapid combustion causes a small explosion due to the sudden rapid expansion of hot gases, which produces the characteristic squeaky pop sound.

  • Hydrogen burns rapidly / reacts quickly with oxygen in the air (1m)
  • Rapid combustion causes a small explosion / rapid expansion of gas, producing the pop sound (1m)

When hydrogen is ignited by the burning splint, it reacts with oxygen in the air. Hydrogen is very reactive and burns rapidly. The rapid combustion produces a sudden release of energy and a rapid expansion of hot gases, which causes the small explosion heard as a squeaky pop.

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10.

Explain why limewater turns milky when carbon dioxide is bubbled through it.

2 marks · standardCommon

Carbon dioxide reacts with calcium hydroxide in the limewater. This reaction produces calcium carbonate, which is an insoluble white precipitate. The calcium carbonate precipitate makes the limewater appear milky or cloudy.

  • Carbon dioxide reacts with calcium hydroxide (limewater) (1m)
  • Calcium carbonate is produced as a white precipitate, making the solution milky (1m)

The equation for this reaction is: CO2(g) + Ca(OH)2(aq) -> CaCO3(s) + H2O(l). Calcium carbonate is insoluble in water, so it appears as a white solid suspended in the liquid, making the solution look milky or cloudy. This is a reliable and specific test for carbon dioxide.

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11.

Which observation confirms a gas is hydrogen when tested with a burning splint?

  • A. A squeaky pop is heard
  • B. The splint relights
  • C. Limewater turns milky
  • D. Damp litmus paper bleaches white
1 mark · foundationCommon

Hydrogen burns rapidly in oxygen from the air when a burning splint is applied, producing a characteristic squeaky pop sound. The splint relighting is the test for oxygen. Limewater turning milky tests for carbon dioxide. Bleaching litmus tests for chlorine.

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12.

What happens when a glowing splint is placed in a test tube containing oxygen gas?

  • A. A squeaky pop is heard
  • B. The splint goes out immediately
  • C. The glowing splint relights and bursts into flame
  • D. White fumes are produced
1 mark · foundationCommon

Oxygen supports combustion. A glowing (not burning) splint relights when placed into oxygen because oxygen provides the molecules needed to sustain combustion, causing the smouldering splint to burst back into flame.

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13.

Which reagent is used to test for carbon dioxide gas?

  • A. Damp blue litmus paper
  • B. Limewater
  • C. A glowing splint
  • D. Universal indicator
1 mark · foundationCommon

Limewater (calcium hydroxide solution) is the reagent used to test for carbon dioxide. When CO2 is bubbled through limewater it reacts with calcium hydroxide to form calcium carbonate, an insoluble white solid that makes the solution turn milky or cloudy.

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14.

A student holds a piece of damp blue litmus paper near a gas and it bleaches white. Which gas is present?

  • A. Hydrogen
  • B. Carbon dioxide
  • C. Oxygen
  • D. Chlorine
1 mark · foundationCommon

Chlorine is a powerful oxidising and bleaching agent. When damp litmus paper is exposed to chlorine, the chlorine first dissolves in the water to form hydrochloric acid and hypochlorous acid. The hypochlorous acid bleaches the dye in the litmus paper, turning it white. The paper first turns red (acid) then white (bleached).

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15.

Damp red litmus paper turns blue when held in a gas. Which gas causes this?

  • A. Ammonia
  • B. Chlorine
  • C. Carbon dioxide
  • D. Hydrogen
1 mark · foundationCommon

Ammonia is the only common gas in GCSE chemistry that is alkaline. It dissolves in the water on the damp litmus paper to form ammonium hydroxide solution, which is alkaline and turns red litmus paper blue. All other common test gases are either neutral or acidic.

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16.

Describe the test for hydrogen gas.

1 mark · foundationCommon

Hold a burning splint near the gas. A squeaky pop sound is heard if hydrogen is present. The hydrogen burns rapidly in air, causing the pop.

  • Hold a burning splint near the gas — a squeaky pop is heard if hydrogen is present (1m)

Hydrogen is a flammable gas. When a burning splint is applied, the hydrogen rapidly combusts in the oxygen of the air. The rapid burning causes a small explosion, heard as a characteristic squeaky pop sound. This is the standard AQA test for hydrogen gas.

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17.

Describe the test for oxygen gas.

1 mark · foundationCommon

Place a glowing splint into the gas. The glowing splint relights and bursts into flame if oxygen is present. Oxygen supports combustion.

  • Place a glowing splint into the gas — the splint relights if oxygen is present (1m)

Oxygen supports combustion. A glowing splint that is placed into oxygen relights because the high concentration of oxygen provides the molecules needed to sustain burning. This distinguishes oxygen from air, which contains only 21% oxygen and cannot relight a glowing splint.

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18.

A student bubbles a gas through limewater. The limewater remains clear. The student then holds a burning splint near the gas and hears a squeaky pop. Which conclusion is correct?

  • A. The gas is carbon dioxide
  • B. The gas is oxygen
  • C. The gas is hydrogen
  • D. The gas is chlorine
1 mark · standardCommon

The limewater remaining clear eliminates carbon dioxide (which would make it milky). The squeaky pop with a burning splint is the definitive positive test for hydrogen. Oxygen would relight a glowing splint, not produce a squeaky pop. Chlorine would bleach damp litmus paper white.

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19.

Why must litmus paper be damp (not dry) when testing for chlorine gas?

  • A. Dry litmus paper would catch fire in the presence of chlorine
  • B. Chlorine only reacts with metals, not paper
  • C. The bleaching action requires chlorine to dissolve in water to form hypochlorous acid
  • D. Chlorine needs water to form hypochlorous acid (HClO), which is the bleaching agent
1 mark · standardCommon

Chlorine gas on its own is not a bleaching agent. Chlorine must dissolve in water to react: Cl2 + H2O → HCl + HClO. It is the hypochlorous acid (HClO) that bleaches the dye in the litmus paper. Without moisture, no hypochlorous acid forms and no bleaching occurs.

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20.

Which method is most suitable for collecting hydrogen gas in the laboratory?

  • A. Upward displacement of air
  • B. Downward displacement of air
  • C. Collection over water only
  • D. Upward displacement of water
1 mark · standardCommon

Hydrogen is much less dense than air (density about 0.09 g/dm3 compared to air at ~1.29 g/dm3). When collecting by downward displacement of air, the hydrogen rises to fill a downward-pointing container from the bottom upwards, displacing the denser air. It can also be collected over water (it is insoluble), but downward displacement of air is the most reliable method for pure hydrogen.

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Acids and Alkalis

Common25
1.

Describe the pH scale and explain how it relates to hydrogen ion concentration. In your answer, include: the range and divisions of the scale; why the scale is described as logarithmic; the difference between a strong acid and a concentrated acid; and one example for each of an acidic, neutral, and alkaline substance.

6 marks · higherCommon

The pH scale runs from 0 to 14. Values below 7 indicate an acidic solution, pH 7 is neutral, and values above 7 indicate an alkaline solution. The scale measures the concentration of hydrogen ions (H⁺) in solution: the lower the pH, the higher the H⁺ concentration, and vice versa. The scale is logarithmic, meaning each one-unit decrease in pH corresponds to a 10-fold increase in H⁺ concentration. For example, a solution of pH 3 has 10 times more H⁺ ions than one of pH 4, and 100 times more than one of pH 5. A strong acid is one that completely ionises in water, producing the maximum number of H⁺ ions from each molecule. Hydrochloric acid is a strong acid: HCl → H⁺ + Cl⁻. A concentrated acid simply means there is a large amount of acid dissolved per unit volume. These are independent: you can have a dilute strong acid (low concentration HCl) or a concentrated weak acid (high concentration ethanoic acid). Concentration and strength must not be confused. Examples: stomach acid (HCl, pH 1–2) is acidic; pure water (pH 7) is neutral; bleach (sodium hypochlorite solution, pH 12–13) is alkaline.

  • pH scale runs from 0 to 14; below 7 is acidic, 7 is neutral, above 7 is alkaline (1m)
  • As pH decreases, the concentration of H⁺ ions increases; as pH increases, H⁺ concentration decreases / pH is inversely related to H⁺ concentration (1m)
  • The scale is logarithmic: each 1 unit decrease in pH represents a 10-fold increase in H⁺ concentration (e.g. pH 3 has 10× more H⁺ than pH 4) (1m)
  • Strong acid: completely/fully ionises in water, e.g. HCl → H⁺ + Cl⁻; all molecules split into ions (1m)
  • Concentrated acid: large amount of acid dissolved per unit volume (mol/dm³) — strength and concentration are independent properties (1m)
  • Named examples: one acidic (e.g. vinegar/lemon juice/stomach acid/any acid), one neutral (pure water), one alkaline (e.g. bleach/sodium hydroxide solution/baking soda solution) (1m)

A full-marks answer covers all four bullet points. The pH scale runs from 0 to 14: below 7 is acidic, 7 is neutral, above 7 is alkaline. It is logarithmic because each one-unit decrease in pH represents a 10-fold increase in H⁺ ion concentration. A strong acid is defined by degree of ionisation (fully ionises), not amount; a concentrated acid simply has a large amount of acid per unit volume. These two properties are independent of each other. A common misconception is that 'strong' and 'concentrated' mean the same thing — they do not. Named examples must include one acidic substance (e.g. vinegar, stomach acid), pure water for neutral, and one alkaline substance (e.g. bleach, sodium hydroxide solution).

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2.

Describe how you would prepare a pure, dry sample of copper sulfate crystals from copper oxide and dilute sulfuric acid. Explain why an excess of copper oxide is used and why the method cannot be used to make sodium chloride from sodium hydroxide and hydrochloric acid.

6 marks · challengeCommon

Add excess copper oxide to warm dilute sulfuric acid and stir until no more copper oxide dissolves. The excess copper oxide ensures all the acid is used up so no acid remains in the final product. Filter the mixture to remove the unreacted copper oxide. Heat the copper sulfate solution gently to evaporate water until a saturated solution is obtained. Leave to cool and allow crystals to form. Filter off the crystals and pat dry with filter paper. The method cannot be used for sodium chloride because sodium hydroxide is soluble — you cannot filter off the excess base. If you add excess sodium hydroxide, you cannot remove it by filtration, leaving sodium hydroxide contaminating the salt. Instead, titration is used: the exact volume of sodium hydroxide needed to neutralise the hydrochloric acid is determined first using an indicator, then the experiment is repeated without indicator to obtain a pure product.

  • Add excess copper oxide to warm dilute sulfuric acid and stir until no more dissolves / reacts (1m)
  • Filter the mixture to remove unreacted (excess) copper oxide (1m)
  • Evaporate/heat the filtrate to concentrate the solution / until crystals form on cooling (1m)
  • Filter off crystals and dry / pat dry with filter paper or leave in warm oven (1m)
  • Excess copper oxide ensures all the acid is used up so no acid remains in the product / excess base guarantees complete neutralisation (1m)
  • Sodium hydroxide is soluble so excess cannot be removed by filtration; titration is required to determine exact volumes so no excess remains (1m)

This question tests the full making-salts method for insoluble bases (Topic 24) and the reasoning behind choosing between excess-base crystallisation and titration. The key insight is that copper oxide is an insoluble base — any excess can be filtered off, guaranteeing a pure product. The method works in four steps: add excess solid base to warm acid, filter, evaporate and crystallise, then dry. The excess base is deliberate: it ensures ALL the acid reacts, so no acid contaminates the final salt. Sodium hydroxide breaks this logic because it is soluble — excess NaOH passes straight through the filter into the product. Titration is the only way to make soluble salts from soluble reactants, because you determine the exact neutralisation volume with an indicator first, then repeat without indicator to get a pure product. A common exam error is stating you 'filter to get the salt' — you filter to remove the excess solid base; the salt remains in solution.

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3.

A student carries out a titration to find the concentration of a sodium hydroxide solution using hydrochloric acid of known concentration (0.10 mol/dm³). Describe the method the student should follow and explain how to calculate the concentration of the sodium hydroxide solution.

6 marks · challengeCommon

Use a pipette to transfer a fixed volume (e.g. 25.0 cm³) of sodium hydroxide solution into a conical flask. Add a few drops of indicator such as phenolphthalein or methyl orange. Fill a burette with the hydrochloric acid of known concentration (0.10 mol/dm³). Slowly add the acid from the burette to the alkali in the flask, swirling continuously. When the indicator changes colour permanently, the endpoint has been reached and the volume of acid used (titre) is noted. Repeat until concordant results (within 0.1 cm³ of each other) are obtained and calculate the mean titre. To find the concentration: calculate moles of HCl = concentration × volume (in dm³). Since the neutralisation equation shows a 1:1 mole ratio (HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H₂O), moles of NaOH = moles of HCl. Concentration of NaOH = moles of NaOH ÷ volume of NaOH used (in dm³).

  • Use a pipette to measure a fixed volume of NaOH into a conical flask (1m)
  • Add indicator (e.g. phenolphthalein / methyl orange / universal indicator) (1m)
  • Add acid from burette slowly, swirling; record volume at colour change (endpoint / titre); repeat for concordant results (1m)
  • Calculate moles of HCl = concentration × volume (in dm³) / n = c × V (1m)
  • Use 1:1 mole ratio from balanced equation (HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H₂O) so moles NaOH = moles HCl (1m)
  • Concentration of NaOH = moles of NaOH ÷ volume of NaOH in dm³ (correct unit: mol/dm³) (1m)

A titration combines practical technique (Topic 18) with neutralisation chemistry (Topic 23) and mole calculations (Topic 22). The procedure has a strict sequence: pipette the alkali for accuracy, add indicator, then slowly add acid from a burette. The key observation — permanent colour change — marks the endpoint. Repeating until results are concordant (within 0.1 cm³) ensures reliability. The calculation chain is: moles HCl = concentration × volume (n = c × V, where volume is in dm³ not cm³). Since HCl and NaOH react in a 1:1 ratio (HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H₂O), moles NaOH equals moles HCl. Finally, concentration NaOH = moles ÷ volume in dm³. Common exam errors: using a measuring cylinder instead of a pipette; stopping when 'enough acid has been added' rather than at the permanent colour change; and dividing volume by moles instead of moles by volume.

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4.

A strong acid has a pH of 1 at a certain concentration. A weak acid has a pH of 4 at the same concentration. Explain the difference between these two acids in terms of ionisation, and predict with reasoning how this difference affects: (a) the rate of reaction with the same metal, and (b) the final volume of gas produced in each reaction.

6 marks · challengeCommon

A strong acid, such as hydrochloric acid, completely ionises in water — every molecule donates its H⁺ ion, so the concentration of H⁺ ions equals the original concentration of the acid. This gives a pH of 1. A weak acid, such as ethanoic acid, only partially ionises — an equilibrium is established between the intact molecules and the dissociated ions (e.g. CH₃COOH ⇌ H⁺ + CH₃COO⁻). This means fewer H⁺ ions are present in solution at the same concentration, giving a higher pH of 4. (a) Rate of reaction: The strong acid will react more quickly with the metal because it has a much higher concentration of H⁺ ions (100 times greater at pH 1 versus pH 4, since the scale is logarithmic). A higher H⁺ concentration means more frequent collisions between hydrogen ions and the metal surface per unit time, increasing the rate. (b) Final volume of gas: The total volume of gas produced will be the same for both acids at the same original concentration. The rate of reaction is determined by H⁺ concentration, but the total moles of acid (and therefore the total moles of H⁺ available, once equilibrium shifts) are equal because the original concentrations are equal. As H⁺ is used up by the weak acid reaction, the equilibrium shifts right (more molecules ionise) until all the acid has reacted. So both produce the same total amount of hydrogen gas.

  • Strong acid completely ionises in water — all molecules become H⁺ ions; H⁺ concentration equals the acid concentration (1m)
  • Weak acid only partially ionises; equilibrium established between molecules and ions (e.g. CH₃COOH ⇌ H⁺ + CH₃COO⁻); fewer H⁺ ions at same concentration explains higher pH (1m)
  • pH 1 vs pH 4 is a 3-unit difference on a logarithmic scale, meaning the strong acid has 1000 times (10³) more H⁺ ions than the weak acid (1m)
  • (a) Strong acid reacts faster with the metal because greater H⁺ concentration means more frequent collisions between H⁺ and metal surface per unit time (1m)
  • (b) Both produce the same final volume of hydrogen gas because both acids have the same original concentration — same moles of acid and therefore same moles of H⁺ available overall (1m)
  • (b) As weak acid's H⁺ is consumed, the equilibrium shifts to the right, producing more H⁺ until all acid molecules have reacted — total amount of gas is the same (1m)

This challenge question links acid-base theory (Topic 22) with rate of reaction concepts and neutralisation (Topic 23). The first step is understanding ionisation: a strong acid fully ionises, so every molecule becomes an H⁺ ion. At the same concentration, the strong acid has far more H⁺ ions in solution than the weak acid — 3 pH units corresponds to a 1000-fold difference (10³) on the logarithmic scale. For part (a), rate depends on H⁺ concentration: more H⁺ means more collisions between ions and the metal surface per second, so the strong acid reacts faster. For part (b), the counter-intuitive answer is that both acids produce exactly the same total volume of hydrogen gas. This is because volume of gas depends on total moles of acid (which is equal, since concentration is the same), not on the current H⁺ concentration. The weak acid's equilibrium shifts right as H⁺ is consumed during the reaction, producing more H⁺ progressively until all the acid molecules have reacted. The most common misconception is that the weak acid produces less gas because it has fewer H⁺ ions — students confuse the initial H⁺ concentration (which is lower) with the total acid available (which is the same).

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5.

Compare the methods used to make a soluble salt from (a) an insoluble base and an acid and (b) a titration using a soluble base and an acid. For each method, describe the key steps and explain when each method is appropriate.

5 marks · challengeCommon

Method (a) — insoluble base: Add excess of the insoluble base (e.g. copper oxide) to warm dilute acid. Stir until no more dissolves. Filter off the excess solid. Evaporate the filtrate to crystallise the salt. This method is appropriate when the base is insoluble because excess can be removed by filtration, guaranteeing a pure salt. Method (b) — titration: Use a pipette to measure an accurate volume of one reactant into a flask. Add indicator. Slowly add the other reactant from a burette until the endpoint (colour change). Record titre. Repeat for a concordant result. The experiment is then repeated without indicator using the exact volumes found. Evaporate to crystallise. This method is appropriate when both reactants are soluble (e.g. NaOH + HCl) because you cannot filter off excess — you must use exactly the right amount from the start.

  • Method (a): add excess insoluble base to warm acid, filter off excess solid (1m)
  • Method (a): evaporate/crystallise the filtrate to obtain the salt; method appropriate because excess solid can be filtered off (1m)
  • Method (b): use pipette (fixed volume of alkali) + indicator + burette to find endpoint; repeat for concordant titre (1m)
  • Method (b): repeat without indicator using exact volumes; evaporate to obtain salt (1m)
  • Method (b) is used when both reactants are soluble — excess cannot be removed by filtration so exact amounts are required (1m)

This question tests whether students can choose and justify the correct salt-preparation method. The deciding factor is the solubility of the base. If the base is insoluble (e.g. copper oxide, zinc oxide, iron oxide), you can add an excess — the unreacted solid stays as a lump and is easily filtered off, guaranteeing no base contaminates the product. If the base is soluble (e.g. sodium hydroxide, potassium hydroxide), any excess dissolves into the product solution and passes through the filter. Titration solves this by finding the exact volume needed for neutralisation: an indicator shows the endpoint, then the reaction is repeated without indicator so the final salt solution contains only the products. Both methods end with evaporation and crystallisation to obtain a dry solid salt. A very common mistake is forgetting to repeat the titration without indicator — the indicator itself would contaminate the final product if left in.

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6.

Evaluate whether titration or excess-base crystallisation is the better method to produce a pure, dry sample of sodium chloride from sodium hydroxide and hydrochloric acid. In your answer, consider: purity, practicality, and the properties of the reactants.

5 marks · challengeCommon

Titration is the only viable method to make pure sodium chloride from sodium hydroxide and hydrochloric acid. Sodium hydroxide is a soluble base, so the excess-base method cannot be used: any unreacted NaOH would dissolve in the product solution and cannot be removed by filtration, leaving sodium hydroxide as a contaminant in the final salt. Titration produces a pure product because the exact volumes needed for complete neutralisation are determined first — an indicator is used to find the endpoint and the exact titre is recorded. The experiment is then repeated without indicator using those exact volumes, so the only product in solution is sodium chloride and water. Evaporation and gentle heating gives dry sodium chloride crystals. Practically, titration requires more equipment (burette, pipette, stand and clamp) and more steps than the excess-base method, but it is the only method that guarantees purity when both reactants are soluble. The excess-base method is simpler and more appropriate for reactions involving insoluble bases such as copper oxide.

  • Excess-base method NOT suitable because sodium hydroxide is soluble — excess NaOH cannot be removed by filtration (1m)
  • Excess soluble base would contaminate/dissolve into the product solution, making the salt impure (1m)
  • Titration determines the exact volume/amount needed for complete neutralisation so no excess of either reactant remains (1m)
  • Titration must be repeated without indicator (indicator would contaminate the final NaCl product) (1m)
  • Evaporate/crystallise the titrated solution to obtain pure dry sodium chloride; titration is the only method that guarantees purity here (1m)

This question is an evaluation task — students must justify why one method is appropriate and the other is not, rather than just describing both. The key chemical fact is that sodium hydroxide is soluble in water. In the excess-base method, you rely on the excess reactant being insoluble so you can filter it off. Because NaOH dissolves, any excess simply joins the product solution — you cannot remove it, so the sodium chloride would be contaminated with sodium hydroxide. Titration fixes this by determining the exact volumes needed for complete neutralisation: no excess of either reactant is used. The two-stage process (first titration with indicator to find the volume, then repeat without indicator for the pure product) is essential — if indicator were left in, it too would contaminate the NaCl. Students often state 'titration is more accurate' without explaining WHY it is necessary here: the answer is the solubility of sodium hydroxide.

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7.

Compare the ionisation of a strong acid with the ionisation of a weak acid when they are dissolved in water. In your answer, refer to the use of the reversible reaction symbol.

3 marks · higherCommon

A strong acid, such as hydrochloric acid, completely ionises in water. All the HCl molecules split into H⁺ ions and Cl⁻ ions, so the ionisation goes to completion (HCl → H⁺ + Cl⁻). A weak acid, such as ethanoic acid, only partially ionises. Most molecules remain intact, and an equilibrium is established between the undissociated acid molecules and the ions (CH₃COOH ⇌ H⁺ + CH₃COO⁻). The reversible sign (⇌) shows that both forward and backward reactions occur simultaneously.

  • Strong acid completely/fully ionises in water; all molecules split into ions; equation uses a single arrow (1m)
  • Weak acid only partially ionises; most molecules remain intact; only a small proportion of molecules release H⁺ ions (1m)
  • Weak acid ionisation is reversible / an equilibrium is established; shown by the reversible symbol (⇌) (1m)

Strong acids fully ionise (single arrow in equation). Weak acids partially ionise and establish an equilibrium between molecules and ions (reversible arrow ⇌).

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8.

Explain the relationship between pH and hydrogen ion concentration. Include in your answer what it means to say the pH scale is logarithmic.

3 marks · higherCommon

The pH scale measures the concentration of hydrogen ions (H⁺) in a solution. The lower the pH, the higher the concentration of H⁺ ions, and the higher the pH, the lower the H⁺ concentration. The scale is logarithmic, meaning each one-unit decrease in pH corresponds to a ten-fold increase in H⁺ concentration. For example, a solution of pH 3 has ten times more H⁺ ions than a solution of pH 4.

  • Lower pH = higher H⁺ concentration; higher pH = lower H⁺ concentration (inverse relationship) (1m)
  • The scale is logarithmic: each 1 unit decrease in pH = 10-fold increase in H⁺ concentration (1m)
  • Example showing correct application of the 10-fold relationship (e.g. pH 3 has 10× more H⁺ than pH 4, or pH 1 has 1000× more H⁺ than pH 4) (1m)

pH and H⁺ concentration have an inverse logarithmic relationship. Each pH unit decrease = 10-fold increase in H⁺. pH 1 has 100× more H⁺ than pH 3.

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9.

Indigestion is caused by excess hydrochloric acid in the stomach. Indigestion tablets contain bases such as magnesium hydroxide, Mg(OH)₂. Explain how the tablet relieves indigestion and write a word equation for the reaction that occurs.

3 marks · higherCommon

The excess hydrochloric acid in the stomach causes indigestion. Magnesium hydroxide is a base that reacts with (neutralises) the excess acid. The H⁺ ions from the acid are removed by the OH⁻ ions from the base, forming water. The word equation is: magnesium hydroxide + hydrochloric acid → magnesium chloride + water.

  • Indigestion caused by excess hydrochloric acid (HCl) in the stomach (1m)
  • Magnesium hydroxide (base/alkali) neutralises the excess acid / reacts with H⁺ ions / increases pH (1m)
  • Word equation: magnesium hydroxide + hydrochloric acid → magnesium chloride + water (1m)

Excess HCl causes indigestion. Mg(OH)₂ neutralises the acid: Mg(OH)₂ + 2HCl → MgCl₂ + 2H₂O. The base removes H⁺ ions by combining with them to form water.

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10.

A student has two solutions: a 2.0 mol/dm³ solution of ethanoic acid (a weak acid) and a 0.01 mol/dm³ solution of hydrochloric acid (a strong acid). Predict which solution has the lower pH and explain your reasoning using the concepts of acid strength and acid concentration.

3 marks · higherCommon

The 0.01 mol/dm³ hydrochloric acid solution is likely to have the lower pH, even though it is less concentrated. Hydrochloric acid is a strong acid and fully ionises in water, producing 0.01 mol/dm³ of H⁺ ions (pH approximately 2). Ethanoic acid is a weak acid and only partially ionises, so even at 2.0 mol/dm³ concentration the actual H⁺ concentration is much lower than 2.0 mol/dm³. Acid strength (degree of ionisation) and acid concentration are independent properties and must not be confused.

  • Identifies that HCl (dilute strong acid) will have the lower pH despite lower concentration (1m)
  • HCl fully ionises, so all 0.01 mol/dm³ becomes H⁺; concentration of H⁺ equals the concentration of HCl (1m)
  • Ethanoic acid only partially ionises, so actual H⁺ concentration is much less than 2.0 mol/dm³; strength and concentration are independent (1m)

HCl fully ionises (strong acid), so all 0.01 mol/dm³ becomes H⁺. Ethanoic acid partially ionises (weak acid), so despite 2.0 mol/dm³ concentration, far fewer H⁺ ions are produced. Strength and concentration are independent. HCl has the lower pH.

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11.

Explain the difference between a strong acid and a concentrated acid.

2 marks · standardCommon

A strong acid is one that completely ionises in water, releasing all of its hydrogen ions. A concentrated acid has a large amount of acid dissolved per unit volume. These are independent properties: an acid can be strong but dilute, or weak but concentrated.

  • Strong acid: completely/fully ionises in water (releases all H⁺ ions) (1m)
  • Concentrated acid: large amount/high number of moles of acid dissolved per unit volume (mol/dm³) (1m)

Strong/weak refers to the degree of ionisation. A strong acid fully ionises. Concentration refers to moles per dm³. These are independent — you can have a dilute strong acid or a concentrated weak acid.

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12.

Ethanoic acid is described as a weak acid. Explain what this means in terms of ionisation in water.

2 marks · standardCommon

Ethanoic acid only partially ionises in water. Not all the molecules split into ions; instead, an equilibrium is established between the acid molecules and the ions produced: CH₃COOH ⇌ H⁺ + CH₃COO⁻.

  • Ethanoic acid only partially ionises in water (not all molecules release H⁺ ions) (1m)
  • An equilibrium is established between undissociated molecules and ions (reversible reaction) (1m)

A weak acid partially ionises in water. The ionisation is reversible, so an equilibrium forms between the acid molecules and the ions: CH₃COOH ⇌ H⁺ + CH₃COO⁻. Most molecules remain intact.

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13.

Explain why a pH meter gives a more accurate measurement of pH than universal indicator.

2 marks · standardCommon

A pH meter gives a precise numerical reading (e.g. pH 4.3), whereas universal indicator only gives an approximate pH based on colour matching, which can be subjective and is limited to whole number values.

  • pH meter gives a precise/numerical/digital reading (e.g. to decimal places) (1m)
  • Universal indicator only gives approximate pH / colour matching is subjective / limited to whole numbers (1m)

A pH meter gives a precise numerical readout, allowing pH to be measured to decimal places. Universal indicator shows only an approximate pH through colour, and colour interpretation varies between individuals.

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14.

A student adds water to a solution of sodium hydroxide (pH 13). Explain what happens to the pH of the solution.

2 marks · standardCommon

Adding water dilutes the sodium hydroxide, reducing the concentration of OH⁻ ions in solution. This causes the pH to decrease towards 7 (neutral), but the pH cannot fall below 7 because the solution remains alkaline.

  • Adding water dilutes the solution, reducing the concentration of OH⁻ ions (1m)
  • The pH decreases (moves towards 7) but does not fall below 7 / remains alkaline (1m)

Diluting an alkali with water reduces the OH⁻ concentration, so the pH moves towards 7. The pH falls but cannot drop below 7 because the solution remains alkaline throughout.

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15.

Which ion do acids produce when dissolved in water?

  • A. Hydroxide ions (OH⁻)
  • B. Oxide ions (O²⁻)
  • C. Hydrogen ions (H⁺)
  • D. Sodium ions (Na⁺)
1 mark · foundationCommon

Acids produce hydrogen ions (H⁺) when dissolved in water. The greater the concentration of H⁺ ions, the lower the pH and the more acidic the solution.

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16.

A student tests a solution and obtains a pH reading. What pH value indicates that the solution is neutral?

  • A. 0
  • B. 3
  • C. 10
  • D. 7
1 mark · foundationCommon

A neutral solution has a pH of exactly 7. Pure water is the classic example. Values below 7 indicate an acidic solution; values above 7 indicate an alkaline solution.

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17.

Which ion do alkalis produce when dissolved in water?

  • A. Hydroxide ions (OH⁻)
  • B. Hydrogen ions (H⁺)
  • C. Carbonate ions (CO₃²⁻)
  • D. Chloride ions (Cl⁻)
1 mark · foundationCommon

Alkalis produce hydroxide ions (OH⁻) in aqueous solution. This is what makes a solution alkaline and gives it a pH above 7. Examples include sodium hydroxide (NaOH) and potassium hydroxide (KOH).

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18.

State what an acid is in terms of the ions it produces in aqueous solution.

1 mark · foundationCommon

An acid is a substance that produces hydrogen ions (H⁺) in aqueous solution.

  • An acid produces/releases hydrogen ions (H⁺) in aqueous solution (1m)

An acid is defined as a substance that produces H⁺ ions (hydrogen ions) when dissolved in water. This is what makes a solution acidic and lowers the pH below 7.

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19.

State what an alkali is in terms of the ions it produces in aqueous solution.

1 mark · foundationCommon

An alkali is a substance that produces hydroxide ions (OH⁻) in aqueous solution.

  • An alkali produces/releases hydroxide ions (OH⁻) in aqueous solution (1m)

An alkali produces OH⁻ ions (hydroxide ions) when dissolved in water. This is what makes a solution alkaline and raises the pH above 7.

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20.

Give one example of a strong acid.

1 mark · foundationCommon

Hydrochloric acid (HCl) is a strong acid.

  • Any one of: hydrochloric acid (HCl), sulfuric acid (H₂SO₄), nitric acid (HNO₃) (1m)

The three strong acids at GCSE are hydrochloric acid (HCl), sulfuric acid (H₂SO₄), and nitric acid (HNO₃). All three fully ionise in water.

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21.

Four solutions are tested with a pH meter. Which solution has the highest concentration of hydrogen ions?

  • A. Solution W: pH 9
  • B. Solution X: pH 2
  • C. Solution Y: pH 7
  • D. Solution Z: pH 11
1 mark · standardCommon

The lower the pH, the higher the concentration of H⁺ ions. pH 2 (Solution X) is the most acidic value given, so it has the highest H⁺ ion concentration. Each unit decrease in pH corresponds to a 10-fold increase in H⁺ concentration.

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22.

A solution of hydrochloric acid has pH 2. Water is gradually added to the acid. Which statement correctly describes what happens to the pH?

  • A. The pH decreases towards 0
  • B. The pH stays constant at 2
  • C. The pH increases towards 7
  • D. The pH increases above 7 to become alkaline
1 mark · standardCommon

Adding water to an acid dilutes it, reducing the concentration of H⁺ ions. This causes the pH to rise, moving towards 7 (neutral). However, no matter how much water you add, the pH of an acid can never exceed 7 — it approaches but does not cross the neutral point.

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23.

Two solutions both have a concentration of 1.0 mol/dm³. Solution A is hydrochloric acid and Solution B is ethanoic acid. Which statement correctly explains why Solution A has a lower pH than Solution B?

  • A. Solution A has a larger volume than Solution B
  • B. Solution A contains more moles of acid than Solution B
  • C. Solution A is more concentrated than Solution B
  • D. Hydrochloric acid fully ionises, producing more H⁺ ions than ethanoic acid which only partially ionises
1 mark · standardCommon

Both solutions have the same concentration (1.0 mol/dm³), so the difference in pH must be due to the degree of ionisation, not concentration. HCl is a strong acid and fully (100%) ionises in water: HCl → H⁺ + Cl⁻. Ethanoic acid (CH₃COOH) is a weak acid and only partially ionises, establishing an equilibrium. At equal concentration, HCl produces far more H⁺ ions, giving it a lower pH.

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24.

A solution has pH 4. Another solution has pH 6. How many times greater is the hydrogen ion concentration in the pH 4 solution compared to the pH 6 solution?

  • A. 100 times greater
  • B. 10 times greater
  • C. 2 times greater
  • D. 1000 times greater
1 mark · standardCommon

The pH scale is logarithmic: each unit decrease in pH represents a 10-fold increase in H⁺ concentration. Going from pH 6 to pH 5 is a 10-fold increase, and from pH 5 to pH 4 is another 10-fold increase. Overall the pH 4 solution has 10 × 10 = 100 times greater H⁺ concentration than the pH 6 solution.

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25.

A student claims that a concentrated solution of ethanoic acid must have a lower pH than a dilute solution of hydrochloric acid. Which response best evaluates this claim?

  • A. The student is correct because ethanoic acid is more concentrated
  • B. The student is not necessarily correct because ethanoic acid only partially ionises, so its H⁺ concentration may still be lower than the dilute HCl
  • C. The student is correct because a higher concentration always means lower pH
  • D. The student is not correct because ethanoic acid is not an acid
1 mark · standardCommon

Acid strength (degree of ionisation) and acid concentration are independent. Ethanoic acid is a weak acid — it only partially ionises, so even at high concentration, relatively few H⁺ ions are produced. Hydrochloric acid is a strong acid and fully ionises, so even at low concentration it can produce a higher H⁺ ion concentration than concentrated ethanoic acid. The claim is not necessarily true.

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Rates & Collision Theory

Common25
1.

A student is investigating the rate of the reaction between marble chips (calcium carbonate) and dilute hydrochloric acid. She records the volume of carbon dioxide produced over time. Using your knowledge of collision theory, evaluate the effect of each of the following changes on the rate of this reaction, explaining the mechanism in each case: 1. Crushing the marble chips into powder 2. Increasing the concentration of the acid 3. Raising the temperature by 20 degrees C 4. Adding a catalyst In your answer, refer to collision frequency, activation energy, and the Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution where appropriate.

6 marks · higherCommon

1. Crushing the marble chips increases the surface area of the solid reactant. More calcium carbonate particles are exposed at the surface and available for collision with hydrogen ions in the acid. Collision frequency increases, so more successful collisions occur per second and the rate increases. 2. Increasing the acid concentration means more hydrogen ions are present in the same volume. The particles are more densely packed, increasing collision frequency between acid particles and marble surface particles. More successful collisions occur per second and the rate increases. Concentration does not affect the activation energy. 3. Raising the temperature increases the kinetic energy of all particles, so they move faster. This increases collision frequency. More importantly, on the Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution, the curve shifts to the right and flattens. The area under the curve to the right of the activation energy line increases significantly, meaning a much greater proportion of particles now have energy equal to or greater than the activation energy. This leads to a large increase in successful collisions per second and a disproportionately large increase in rate. 4. A catalyst provides an alternative reaction pathway with a lower activation energy. On the Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution, this is equivalent to moving the activation energy line to the left. A greater proportion of the existing particles now have sufficient energy for successful collisions. The rate increases without the catalyst being consumed.

  • Surface area: crushing increases surface area, more particles exposed for collision, collision frequency increases, rate increases (1m)
  • Concentration: more particles in same volume, greater collision frequency, more successful collisions, rate increases; activation energy unchanged (1m)
  • Temperature: particles gain kinetic energy, move faster, collision frequency increases (1m)
  • Temperature: Maxwell-Boltzmann curve shifts right, larger area beyond activation energy, greater proportion of particles with sufficient energy, disproportionately large rate increase (1m)
  • Catalyst: alternative pathway with lower activation energy, greater proportion of particles can react (1m)
  • Quality of written communication / coherent mechanistic explanation linking all four factors clearly to collision theory principles (1m)

This 6-mark question tests the ability to apply collision theory systematically across four different rate factors. The highest marks go to answers that: (1) correctly distinguish between factors that change collision frequency versus those that change collision energy, (2) correctly describe the Maxwell-Boltzmann explanation for temperature, and (3) correctly explain that a catalyst does not increase collision frequency but lowers the activation energy threshold.

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2.

The Haber process makes ammonia using the reversible reaction: N₂(g) + 3H₂(g) ⇌ 2NH₃(g) (ΔH = −92 kJ/mol) The industrial conditions used are: temperature 450°C, pressure 200 atmospheres, iron catalyst. Using your knowledge of collision theory and Le Chatelier’s principle, explain why these conditions are chosen as a compromise and not the theoretically ideal values.

6 marks · challengeCommon

The forward reaction is exothermic, so according to Le Chatelier’s principle, a lower temperature would increase the yield of ammonia by shifting equilibrium to the right. However, a lower temperature means particles have less kinetic energy, so fewer collisions exceed the activation energy, making the rate very slow. 450°C is a compromise: the rate is acceptably fast and the yield is still economically viable. There are four moles of gas on the left and two on the right, so high pressure shifts equilibrium to the right, increasing yield. However, very high pressures are expensive to maintain and create safety hazards. 200 atm is a compromise between yield and cost. The iron catalyst lowers the activation energy by providing an alternative reaction pathway. This increases the rate without altering the equilibrium position or yield. The catalyst allows a lower temperature to be used than would otherwise be feasible, improving both rate and yield together.

  • Lower temperature increases yield (Le Chatelier: exothermic reaction, equilibrium shifts right) but reduces rate (fewer particles exceed activation energy) — 450°C is a compromise (2m)
  • High pressure increases yield (fewer moles of gas on product side, Le Chatelier shifts right) but 200 atm is a compromise due to cost and safety (2m)
  • Iron catalyst lowers activation energy (alternative pathway), increases rate without changing equilibrium position or yield (2m)

The Haber process is the classic GCSE example of compromise conditions because Le Chatelier’s principle and collision theory pull in opposite directions for temperature. The reaction is exothermic, so cooling it would shift the equilibrium right and increase yield — but cooling also means fewer particles have enough energy to exceed the activation energy, making the rate unacceptably slow. 450°C is the industrial sweet spot. Pressure at 200 atm exploits the fact there are more moles of gas on the reactant side (N₂ + 3H₂ = 4 moles) than the product side (2NH₃ = 2 moles), so higher pressure pushes equilibrium toward the products; but extreme pressure is dangerous and costly. The iron catalyst is crucial: by providing an alternative lower-energy pathway, it raises the rate without disturbing the equilibrium position, allowing a lower operating temperature to be viable. A common error is claiming the catalyst increases yield — it does not; it only increases the speed at which equilibrium is reached.

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3.

For the equilibrium reaction: N₂O₄(g) ⇌ 2NO₂(g) Increasing the pressure shifts the equilibrium position to the left, producing more N₂O₄. Using ideas about collision theory and Le Chatelier’s principle, explain: (a) Why increasing pressure increases the rate of both forward and reverse reactions. (b) Why, despite both rates increasing, the equilibrium shifts to the left.

6 marks · challengeCommon

(a) Increasing pressure compresses the gas mixture into a smaller volume. All gas particles are now more densely packed. Collision frequency increases for both forward and reverse reactions because particles encounter each other more often in the smaller space. More successful collisions occur per second for both directions, so both rates increase. (b) There is 1 mole of gas on the left (N₂O₄) and 2 moles of gas on the right (2NO₂). According to Le Chatelier’s principle, the system responds to oppose the change in pressure. The side with fewer moles of gas (the left) exerts less pressure. Shifting the equilibrium to the left reduces the total number of moles of gas, which partially counteracts the increase in pressure. Therefore the reverse reaction rate increases more than the forward reaction rate, and the equilibrium shifts leftward until a new equilibrium is reached.

  • Increasing pressure compresses particles into smaller volume, increasing collision frequency for both reactions (1m)
  • Both forward and reverse reaction rates increase because more successful collisions per second in both directions (1m)
  • Left side has 1 mole of gas (N₂O₄); right side has 2 moles (NO₂) — correctly identifying the mole difference (1m)
  • Le Chatelier’s principle: system responds to oppose the change (increased pressure) by shifting to the side with fewer moles of gas (1m)
  • Shifting left reduces total moles of gas, which partially reduces the pressure (1m)
  • The reverse reaction rate increases more than the forward reaction rate, so equilibrium shifts left until a new equilibrium is reached (1m)

This question exposes a common confusion: students often think increasing pressure simply ‘shifts the equilibrium’ without understanding that pressure first increases BOTH rates because all gas particles are packed into a smaller volume and collide more frequently. The equilibrium shift happens because the two rates do not increase by the same amount. Since there are more gas molecules on the NO₂ side (2 moles) than the N₂O₄ side (1 mole), the reverse reaction is more sensitive to the pressure increase and its rate increases more, driving the equilibrium leftward until a new balance is established. Le Chatelier’s principle provides the prediction; collision theory provides the mechanism.

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4.

An industrial chemist is trying to maximise the production of a product P in the exothermic reversible reaction: A(g) + B(g) ⇌ P(g) (ΔH = −56 kJ/mol) The chemist must choose between two strategies to increase the rate of production of P: Strategy 1: Increase the temperature by 100°C. Strategy 2: Add a suitable catalyst. Evaluate both strategies, considering their effect on the rate of reaction and the equilibrium yield of P. Explain which strategy you would recommend for maximising the overall production of P.

6 marks · challengeCommon

Strategy 1 — Increasing temperature: Raising the temperature gives particles more kinetic energy, so they move faster, collision frequency increases, and a greater proportion of particles have energy equal to or above the activation energy. The rate of reaction increases. However, the forward reaction is exothermic, so by Le Chatelier’s principle, increasing temperature shifts the equilibrium to the left (towards reactants), decreasing the yield of P. Higher rate but lower yield. Strategy 2 — Catalyst: A catalyst provides an alternative reaction pathway with a lower activation energy. A greater proportion of particles now have sufficient energy for successful collisions, so the rate increases. Crucially, a catalyst affects the forward and reverse reactions equally. It does not change the equilibrium position, so the yield of P is unchanged. Higher rate and maintained yield. Recommendation: Strategy 2 (catalyst) is better. It increases the rate without reducing the yield of P, whereas Strategy 1 increases the rate but reduces the equilibrium yield. For maximum overall production, a high rate with an unchanged yield is preferable to a high rate with a reduced yield.

  • Temperature: particles gain kinetic energy, collision frequency increases, more particles exceed activation energy, rate increases (1m)
  • Temperature: reaction is exothermic, Le Chatelier predicts equilibrium shifts left, yield of P decreases (1m)
  • Catalyst: provides alternative pathway with lower activation energy, more particles can react, rate increases (1m)
  • Catalyst: does not change equilibrium position or yield of P (1m)
  • Recommendation: catalyst is preferred because it increases rate without reducing yield (1m)
  • Evaluative reasoning: temperature trades rate for yield; catalyst gives rate increase with no yield penalty — catalyst is better for maximising total production (1m)

This evaluation question tests the difference between rate and yield, a distinction many students miss. Increasing temperature increases rate (more kinetic energy → more particles exceed the activation energy) but, for an exothermic reaction, it shifts equilibrium left by Le Chatelier’s principle, reducing yield. A catalyst increases rate by lowering the activation energy via an alternative pathway. Because a catalyst lowers the activation energy equally for BOTH the forward and reverse reactions, the ratio of forward to reverse rate is unchanged and so the equilibrium position — and therefore the yield — is unaffected. For any exothermic reversible industrial reaction, a catalyst is therefore better than raising temperature because you gain rate without sacrificing yield.

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5.

A student investigates the rate of reaction between magnesium ribbon and dilute hydrochloric acid at 20°C. She repeats the experiment at 40°C and also with double the concentration of acid. Using collision theory, explain how each change — increasing temperature and increasing concentration — increases the rate of reaction. In your answer, refer to collision frequency, activation energy, and kinetic energy.

5 marks · challengeCommon

Increasing temperature gives particles more kinetic energy so they move faster. This increases collision frequency as particles cover more distance per second and encounter each other more often. Crucially, a greater proportion of particles now have energy equal to or greater than the activation energy, so a larger fraction of collisions are successful. Both effects increase the rate. Doubling the concentration of acid means more hydrogen ions are present in the same volume. The particles are more densely packed, so they collide more frequently. This increase in collision frequency means more successful collisions per second, increasing the rate. Unlike temperature, increasing concentration does not affect the energy of particles or the activation energy; it acts only by increasing how often collisions occur.

  • Temperature: particles gain kinetic energy and move faster, increasing collision frequency (1m)
  • Temperature: a greater proportion of particles have energy equal to or greater than the activation energy, so more successful collisions per second (1m)
  • Concentration: more particles in the same volume, increasing collision frequency (1m)
  • Concentration: more successful collisions per second so rate increases; unlike temperature it does not change the energy of individual particles or the activation energy (1m)
  • Comparison: temperature affects both collision frequency and proportion above activation energy; concentration only affects collision frequency (1m)

This question requires distinguishing between two rate factors that both increase collision frequency but work differently at the particle level. Temperature increases kinetic energy, making particles faster and increasing collision frequency. Critically, it also raises the proportion of collisions that exceed the activation energy threshold, because more particles sit in the high-energy tail of the Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution. Concentration does not change particle energies at all — it only packs more particles into the same space, so encounters happen more frequently. The key examiner mark is recognising this difference: temperature affects BOTH frequency and success rate; concentration affects frequency only. Students who say concentration gives particles more energy will lose marks.

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6.

A reversible reaction reaches a state of dynamic equilibrium in a closed system. (a) Explain, in terms of the rates of forward and reverse reactions, what is meant by dynamic equilibrium. (b) More reactant is then added to the system. Using collision theory and Le Chatelier’s principle, predict and explain what happens to the concentrations of reactants and products, and to the rates of forward and reverse reactions, until a new equilibrium is reached.

5 marks · challengeCommon

(a) Dynamic equilibrium is reached when the forward reaction and reverse reaction are occurring at the same rate. The concentrations of reactants and products remain constant over time, but the reactions have not stopped — both directions continue to proceed simultaneously. It is ‘dynamic’ because reactions are still occurring; it is ‘equilibrium’ because the rates are equal and concentrations are constant. (b) Adding more reactant increases the concentration of reactants. By collision theory, there are now more reactant particles in the same volume, so the frequency of collisions between reactant particles increases. The rate of the forward reaction increases, producing more products. As product concentration rises, the reverse reaction rate also begins to increase. By Le Chatelier’s principle, the system opposes the increase in reactant concentration by shifting the equilibrium to the right (towards products). Eventually a new equilibrium is reached where the forward and reverse rates are once again equal, but at higher concentrations of both reactants and products than the original equilibrium, with the proportion of products being greater.

  • Dynamic equilibrium: rate of forward reaction equals rate of reverse reaction; concentrations of reactants and products are constant (1m)
  • Dynamic aspect: both reactions are still occurring simultaneously (not that reactions have stopped) (1m)
  • Adding reactant increases concentration, increasing collision frequency so forward reaction rate increases (collision theory) (1m)
  • Le Chatelier’s principle: system shifts right to oppose the increase in reactant concentration, increasing product concentration (1m)
  • New equilibrium reached when forward and reverse rates are once again equal; product concentration at new equilibrium is higher than at original equilibrium (1m)

Dynamic equilibrium is one of the most commonly misunderstood concepts at GCSE. The word ‘dynamic’ is crucial: reactions have NOT stopped; both forward and reverse reactions continue at equal rates. A static equilibrium (where nothing moves) does not occur in chemistry. When reactant is added, collision theory predicts the immediate effect: more particles in the same volume means more frequent collisions, so the forward rate rises immediately. Le Chatelier’s principle then describes the system’s overall response: it shifts right to consume the added reactant and partially restore the original concentrations. New equilibrium is reached when the two rates equalize again. Two key misconceptions to avoid: (1) equilibrium means reactions stop — they do not; (2) equal concentrations at equilibrium — concentrations are constant, not necessarily equal to each other.

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7.

Use the Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution to explain why a small increase in temperature causes a large increase in the rate of reaction.

4 marks · higherCommon

The Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution shows the spread of energies among particles. At higher temperature, the curve shifts to the right and flattens — the most likely energy increases. The area under the curve to the right of the activation energy line represents the proportion of particles with sufficient energy to react. Even a small temperature rise causes a large increase in this area, so a much greater proportion of particles have energy equal to or above the activation energy. This leads to a large increase in the number of successful collisions per second and a disproportionately large increase in reaction rate.

  • Maxwell-Boltzmann curve shifts to the right / peak moves to higher energy at higher temperature (1m)
  • Area under curve to the right of the activation energy line represents particles with sufficient energy to react (1m)
  • Even a small temperature rise causes a large increase in this area (proportion of particles with energy >= Ea) (1m)
  • Therefore a large increase in successful collisions per second and a large increase in rate (1m)

The key insight is that because the Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution is not linear near the activation energy, a small shift in the curve causes a disproportionately large increase in the area beyond the activation energy threshold, explaining why even a 10-degree rise can double the rate.

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8.

Compare how increasing temperature and using a catalyst both increase the rate of reaction. In your answer, refer to activation energy and collision frequency.

4 marks · higherCommon

Increasing temperature raises the kinetic energy of particles, increasing both collision frequency and the proportion of particles with energy equal to or greater than the activation energy. Both effects increase the number of successful collisions per second. A catalyst provides an alternative reaction pathway with a lower activation energy, so a greater proportion of particles have sufficient energy for successful collisions, increasing the rate. Unlike temperature increase, a catalyst does not significantly increase collision frequency — it acts only by lowering the activation energy threshold.

  • Temperature increases kinetic energy of particles, increasing collision frequency (1m)
  • Temperature also increases the proportion of particles with energy equal to or greater than activation energy, so more successful collisions (1m)
  • Catalyst provides an alternative reaction pathway with a lower activation energy, increasing proportion of successful collisions (1m)
  • Key difference: temperature increases collision frequency as well as success rate; catalyst mainly increases success rate by lowering the activation energy threshold (does not significantly increase collision frequency) (1m)

The critical distinction for higher marks: temperature increases BOTH collision frequency AND the proportion of successful collisions. A catalyst increases only the proportion of successful collisions (by lowering the activation energy threshold) without meaningfully increasing how often particles collide.

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9.

Explain, using collision theory, why powdering a solid reactant increases the rate of reaction compared to using the same mass as large pieces.

3 marks · higherCommon

Powdering the solid increases its surface area. More reactant particles are exposed at the surface and available for collisions with other reactant particles. This increases the frequency of collisions between reactant particles. More successful collisions occur per second, so the rate of reaction increases.

  • Powdering increases the surface area of the solid (1m)
  • More particles are exposed at the surface, available for collisions (1m)
  • Collision frequency increases, so more successful collisions per second and rate increases (1m)

The key chain is: powder → larger surface area → more exposed particles → more frequent collisions → more successful collisions per second → faster rate. The total number of particles does not change, only how many are accessible for collision.

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10.

For a reaction between gases, explain why increasing the pressure increases the rate of reaction.

3 marks · higherCommon

Increasing pressure forces the gas particles into a smaller volume. The same number of particles are now more concentrated. This means particles collide more frequently with each other. More successful collisions occur per second, so the rate of reaction increases.

  • Increasing pressure decreases the volume / particles are forced closer together (1m)
  • Same number of particles in a smaller volume means greater concentration / higher particle density (1m)
  • Collision frequency increases, so more successful collisions per second and rate increases (1m)

Pressure compresses gas into a smaller volume. Particle density (effective concentration) rises. Particles collide more frequently so more successful collisions occur per unit time, raising the rate.

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11.

Using the Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution diagram, explain how a catalyst increases the rate of reaction.

3 marks · higherCommon

A catalyst lowers the activation energy for the reaction. On the Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution, this moves the activation energy line to the left. The area under the curve to the right of the new lower activation energy is greater than before. This means a larger proportion of particles now have sufficient energy for successful collisions, so the rate of reaction increases.

  • Catalyst lowers the activation energy for the reaction (1m)
  • On the distribution diagram, the activation energy line moves to the left (to lower energy) (1m)
  • The area to the right of the new activation energy line is greater, so more particles have sufficient energy / more successful collisions per second (1m)

On the Maxwell-Boltzmann diagram, the curve (distribution) stays the same. Only the activation energy line moves — the catalyst shifts it left to a lower energy value, revealing a larger area of particles that can now react.

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12.

Explain what happens at a molecular level when two reactant particles collide but do not react.

3 marks · higherCommon

If the colliding particles do not have sufficient energy — that is, their combined kinetic energy is less than the activation energy — the collision is unsuccessful. The particles do not have enough energy to break the existing bonds. The particles simply bounce off each other and no new products are formed.

  • The collision energy is less than the activation energy (1m)
  • The particles do not have sufficient energy to break existing bonds (1m)
  • Particles bounce off each other / separate unchanged / no products formed (1m)

At GCSE, an unsuccessful collision is one where collision energy is below the activation energy. Without sufficient energy, existing bonds cannot break, so no new bonds form and no products are made.

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13.

State the two conditions required for a chemical reaction to occur according to collision theory.

2 marks · foundationCommon

Particles must collide with each other. The collision must have energy equal to or greater than the activation energy.

  • Particles must collide (with each other / make contact) (1m)
  • The collision must have energy equal to or greater than the activation energy (1m)

Collision theory has two core conditions: (1) particles must physically collide, and (2) that collision must have at least the activation energy for bonds to break and a reaction to proceed.

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14.

Explain, using collision theory, why increasing the concentration of a reactant solution increases the rate of reaction.

2 marks · standardCommon

Increasing concentration means there are more particles in the same volume. This increases the frequency of collisions between reactant particles, so more successful collisions occur per second, increasing the rate of reaction.

  • More particles in the same volume (higher particle density) (1m)
  • Collision frequency increases, so more successful collisions per second (1m)

More reactant particles in the same volume means they are closer together and encounter each other more frequently. The rate depends on how many successful collisions occur per second, so more frequent collisions means a higher rate.

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15.

Explain, using collision theory, why increasing temperature increases the rate of reaction.

2 marks · standardCommon

Increasing temperature gives particles more kinetic energy, so they move faster. More particles now have energy equal to or greater than the activation energy, so the proportion of successful collisions increases and the rate of reaction increases.

  • Particles have more kinetic energy / move faster, increasing collision frequency (1m)
  • A greater proportion of particles have energy equal to or greater than activation energy, so more successful collisions per second (1m)

Temperature increases give particles more kinetic energy. They move faster (more frequent collisions) and with more force (higher collision energy). Both effects mean more collisions exceed the activation energy threshold.

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16.

Explain how a catalyst increases the rate of a reaction without being used up.

2 marks · standardCommon

A catalyst provides an alternative reaction pathway with a lower activation energy. A greater proportion of particles now have sufficient energy to react, increasing the frequency of successful collisions. The catalyst is not consumed because it is regenerated at the end of the reaction.

  • Provides alternative reaction pathway with lower activation energy (1m)
  • More particles have sufficient energy for successful collisions; catalyst is not consumed / is regenerated (1m)

Catalysts work by providing a new lower-energy route for the reaction. More collisions are successful because fewer particles need to reach the (now lower) threshold. The catalyst is not destroyed because it is reformed after each catalytic cycle.

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17.

According to collision theory, which of the following must happen for a chemical reaction to take place?

  • A. Particles must dissolve in water
  • B. Particles must collide with sufficient energy
  • C. Particles must be heated to 100 degrees C
  • D. Particles must be in the liquid state
1 mark · foundationCommon

Collision theory states that particles must collide AND have enough energy (at least equal to the activation energy) for a reaction to occur. Dissolving, a fixed temperature, or a specific physical state are not requirements.

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18.

What is activation energy?

  • A. The total energy released during a reaction
  • B. The energy needed to heat the reaction vessel
  • C. The minimum energy colliding particles must have to react
  • D. The average energy of all particles in a sample
1 mark · foundationCommon

Activation energy is the minimum energy that colliding particles must possess for a reaction to occur. It represents the energy barrier that must be overcome for bonds to break and new bonds to form.

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19.

A student increases the concentration of a reactant solution. Using collision theory, what happens to the rate of reaction?

  • A. Rate decreases because particles are more spread out
  • B. Rate stays the same because activation energy is unchanged
  • C. Rate increases because there are more frequent collisions
  • D. Rate decreases because particles move more slowly
1 mark · foundationCommon

Increasing concentration means more particles are present in the same volume. This increases the frequency of collisions between reactant particles, so more successful collisions occur per second and the rate increases.

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20.

State what is meant by a successful collision in collision theory.

1 mark · foundationCommon

A successful collision is one where the colliding particles have energy equal to or greater than the activation energy, causing a reaction to occur.

  • A collision where particles have energy greater than or equal to the activation energy (so a reaction occurs) (1m)

A successful collision requires both collision (particles meeting) and sufficient energy (at or above activation energy). Without enough energy, particles simply bounce off each other.

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21.

A reaction is carried out at 30 degrees C and then repeated at 50 degrees C. Which statement best explains why the rate is faster at 50 degrees C?

  • A. The activation energy decreases at higher temperature
  • B. More particles have energy greater than or equal to the activation energy
  • C. Particles move more slowly, giving more time to react
  • D. The concentration of the solution increases
1 mark · standardCommon

Raising temperature increases the average kinetic energy of particles. A greater proportion of particles now have energy at or above the activation energy threshold, so more collisions are successful per second, increasing the rate.

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22.

Marble chips (calcium carbonate) react faster when powdered than when in large lumps. Which collision theory statement explains this?

  • A. Powdered marble has a greater surface area exposed to acid, increasing collision frequency
  • B. Powdered marble has lower activation energy than large pieces
  • C. Powdered marble contains more particles overall
  • D. Powdered marble reacts at a lower temperature
1 mark · standardCommon

Smaller particles have a larger total surface area exposed to the acid. More reactant surface is available for acid particles to collide with, so collisions happen more frequently and the rate increases.

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23.

How does a catalyst increase the rate of a reaction?

  • A. It provides energy to the reactant particles
  • B. It increases the concentration of reactants
  • C. It is consumed during the reaction, releasing energy
  • D. It provides an alternative reaction pathway with a lower activation energy
1 mark · standardCommon

A catalyst works by providing an alternative reaction pathway with a lower activation energy. This means a greater proportion of collisions are successful, increasing the reaction rate. The catalyst is not consumed in the process.

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24.

On a Maxwell-Boltzmann energy distribution graph, what happens to the area under the curve to the right of the activation energy line when temperature increases?

  • A. It increases because more particles now have energy equal to or greater than the activation energy
  • B. It stays the same because the number of particles is constant
  • C. It decreases because fewer particles have enough energy
  • D. It disappears because all particles now have the same energy
1 mark · standardCommon

When temperature increases, the Maxwell-Boltzmann curve shifts to the right and flattens. The area under the curve to the right of the activation energy line increases significantly, representing a greater proportion of particles with sufficient energy for successful collisions.

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25.

A reaction between two gases is carried out at twice the original pressure. Which statement correctly explains why the rate increases?

  • A. Higher pressure raises the temperature of the gas
  • B. Higher pressure increases the activation energy so more energy is released
  • C. Higher pressure slows down the gas particles so they react more thoroughly
  • D. Higher pressure means the same number of gas particles occupy a smaller volume, increasing collision frequency
1 mark · standardCommon

Increasing pressure on a gas compresses the particles into a smaller volume. The same number of particles are now closer together, so they collide more frequently. This increases the number of successful collisions per second and raises the rate.

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Factors Affecting Rate

Common24
1.

A factory manufactures a dye using a reaction between two dissolved chemicals. The factory manager wants to increase the rate of production to meet increased demand. Suggest THREE different ways the factory could increase the rate of the dye-making reaction and explain, using collision theory, why each method would work. [6 marks]

6 marks · higherCommon

The factory could increase the temperature of the reaction. At higher temperatures, particles have more kinetic energy and move faster. This means collisions are more frequent and more collisions have energy equal to or greater than the activation energy, so the rate increases. The factory could increase the concentration of the dissolved reactants. A higher concentration means more particles are present in the same volume of solution, so collisions between reactant particles happen more frequently, increasing the rate. The factory could use a catalyst. A catalyst provides an alternative reaction pathway with a lower activation energy. This means a greater proportion of collisions have sufficient energy to react, so the rate increases without changing the temperature or concentration.

  • Temperature: increases kinetic energy / particles move faster / more frequent collisions (1m)
  • Temperature: more collisions exceed activation energy / greater proportion successful (1m)
  • Concentration: more particles in same volume / more frequent collisions between reactants (1m)
  • Catalyst: provides alternative pathway with lower activation energy / more collisions successful (1m)
  • Surface area: more particles exposed at surface / more frequent collisions (1m)
  • Any third valid factor with collision theory explanation (e.g. pressure if gas, surface area for solid reactant) (1m)

Collision theory explains that reactions only occur when particles collide with enough energy (equal to or above the activation energy). Temperature increases particle kinetic energy so collisions are both more frequent and more energetic — both effects raise the rate. Concentration increases the number of particles per unit volume, raising collision frequency. Catalysts lower the activation energy required, so a larger fraction of collisions result in a reaction. Surface area increases the number of exposed reactant particles available to collide. For a 6-mark Level of Response question, you need three factors, each with a full collision theory explanation — not just a list.

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2.

Explain how four different factors affect the rate of a chemical reaction. In your answer, use collision theory to explain why each factor changes the rate. [6 marks]

6 marks · challengeCommon

Temperature: Increasing temperature gives particles more kinetic energy so they move faster. Collision frequency increases and, crucially, a greater proportion of particles have energy equal to or above the activation energy, leading to more successful collisions and a faster rate. Concentration: Increasing concentration puts more reactant particles in the same volume, so particles are closer together and collide more frequently, increasing the rate. Surface area: Breaking a solid into smaller pieces increases the surface area. More particles of the solid are exposed to the other reactant, so collisions occur more frequently and the rate increases. Catalyst: A catalyst provides an alternative reaction pathway with a lower activation energy. More particles have sufficient energy to overcome this lower barrier, so there are more successful collisions per second and the rate increases. The catalyst itself is not used up.

  • Temperature: increasing temperature increases the kinetic energy of particles so they move faster and collide more frequently (1m)
  • Temperature: more particles have energy >= activation energy, so more collisions are successful (1m)
  • Concentration (or pressure for gases): more particles per unit volume so collision frequency increases (1m)
  • Surface area: smaller pieces have greater surface area so more particles are exposed and collisions are more frequent (1m)
  • Catalyst: provides alternative pathway with lower activation energy (1m)
  • Catalyst: more particles have sufficient energy to react / more successful collisions (1m)

A 6-mark extended writing question tests whether students can apply collision theory consistently to multiple factors. The mark scheme awards 1 mark per valid collision-theory-based point. A grade 9 answer clearly distinguishes between effects on collision frequency (concentration, surface area, pressure) and effects on the proportion of successful collisions (temperature, catalyst).

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3.

A student plans to investigate how the concentration of hydrochloric acid affects the rate of reaction with magnesium ribbon. Describe how the student should carry out a fair test, including which variables to change, measure and control.

4 marks · higherCommon

The independent variable is the concentration of HCl, which should be varied across at least five values. The dependent variable is the rate of reaction, measured by timing how long it takes for the magnesium to fully dissolve, or by recording the volume of hydrogen gas collected per unit time. Control variables include the length and surface area of the magnesium ribbon, the volume of acid, the temperature, and the same magnesium ribbon from the same batch. These must be kept constant to ensure any change in rate is due to concentration alone.

  • Independent variable: concentration of HCl (varied across at least 3 values) (1m)
  • Dependent variable: rate of reaction (e.g. volume of H2 per unit time, time for Mg to dissolve) (1m)
  • At least two valid control variables stated (temperature, volume of acid, length/surface area of Mg) (1m)
  • States why control variables are kept constant (to ensure fair test / only variable affecting rate is concentration) (1m)

A fair test requires exactly one variable to be changed (independent), one to be measured (dependent), and all others held constant (control variables). This is fundamental to experimental design at GCSE and beyond.

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4.

Explain, in terms of particles, why increasing temperature increases the rate of reaction.

3 marks · standardCommon

Increasing temperature gives particles more kinetic energy so they move faster. This means particles collide more frequently. It also means more particles have energy greater than or equal to the activation energy, so more collisions are successful and the rate increases.

  • Particles have more kinetic energy / move faster (1m)
  • Collisions are more frequent (1m)
  • More particles have energy >= activation energy / more successful collisions (1m)

Temperature affects rate in two linked ways: first, faster-moving particles collide more often; second, a larger fraction of those collisions have energy equal to or above the activation energy, making them productive. Both effects combine to significantly increase rate.

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5.

Nitrogen and hydrogen react together to form ammonia. Explain, in terms of particles, why increasing the pressure increases the rate of this reaction.

3 marks · standardCommon

Increasing pressure decreases the volume that the gas particles occupy. This means the gas particles are closer together and collide more frequently. More frequent collisions mean the rate of reaction increases.

  • Pressure reduces the volume / gas particles are closer together (1m)
  • Collision frequency increases (1m)
  • Rate of reaction increases (consequential on above) (1m)

Pressure is the equivalent of concentration for gas-phase reactions. Higher pressure compresses the gas, increasing the number of particles per unit volume. Particles are closer together, meet more frequently, and the rate rises.

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6.

A student investigates the reaction between calcium carbonate chips and hydrochloric acid as part of a water-quality study. She measures the mass of the flask every 30 seconds as carbon dioxide gas escapes. The graph of mass lost against time shows a steep slope at the start that gradually becomes less steep and then flat. Explain what the shape of the graph shows about the rate of reaction at the start and at the end. [3 marks]

3 marks · standardCommon

At the start of the reaction the gradient is steep, which shows the rate of reaction is fastest. This is because the concentration of hydrochloric acid is highest at the start, so collisions between reactant particles are most frequent. As the reaction proceeds the gradient becomes less steep because the reactants are being used up, so the concentration decreases and collisions happen less often. The graph becomes flat when the reaction has stopped because one or both reactants have been completely used up.

  • Steep gradient at start = fastest rate / rate is highest at start (1m)
  • Rate decreases over time because reactants are used up / concentration decreases / fewer collisions (1m)
  • Flat graph = reaction has stopped / reactants fully used up / rate = zero (1m)

The gradient (steepness) of a mass-lost-vs-time graph directly represents the rate of reaction — steeper = faster. At the start, reactant concentrations are highest, so particles collide most frequently and the rate is greatest. As reactants are consumed, concentration falls and collision frequency drops, so the rate slows (gradient decreases). When the graph is completely flat, the rate is zero because all reactants have been used up. OCR B often presents this graph in a civic or environmental context — the chemistry of interpreting the gradient is the same regardless of the scenario.

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7.

A student investigates the effect of surface area on rate by reacting equal masses of large marble chips and powdered marble with excess hydrochloric acid. Describe and explain the difference in results expected for the two experiments.

3 marks · higherCommon

The powdered marble reacts faster than the large chips. This is because powder has a much larger surface area, exposing more CaCO3 particles to the acid. Collisions between acid particles and marble particles are more frequent, so the rate is faster. Both experiments produce the same total volume of CO2 because the same mass of marble is used.

  • Powder reacts faster than large chips (1m)
  • Powder has greater surface area, so more frequent collisions (1m)
  • Both produce the same total volume of gas (same mass of reactants) (1m)

Surface area controls rate but NOT the total amount of product. Powder reacts faster (steeper rate-time curve, completes sooner) but both experiments reach the same final volume of CO2 because the total moles of CaCO3 are equal.

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8.

A student measures the volume of gas produced over time for a reaction at two different temperatures: 20°C and 40°C. Describe what the two curves on the rate-time graph would look like and explain the difference.

3 marks · higherCommon

The curve at 40°C has a steeper initial gradient and levels off more quickly than the 20°C curve. Both curves level off at the same final volume because the same amounts of reactant were used. The steeper gradient at 40°C shows a faster rate because at higher temperature particles have more kinetic energy, collide more frequently, and more collisions exceed the activation energy.

  • 40°C curve has a steeper initial gradient / rises more quickly (1m)
  • Both curves level off at the same final volume (same amounts of reactant) (1m)
  • Higher temperature: more kinetic energy / more frequent collisions / more particles exceed activation energy (1m)

A rate-time (volume vs time) graph is steeper when the reaction is faster. The initial gradient equals the initial rate. Temperature changes the gradient and the time taken, but NOT the final volume, because the same moles of reactant are present in both.

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9.

Explain two advantages of using a catalyst in an industrial chemical process.

3 marks · higherCommon

A catalyst lowers the activation energy of the reaction, so the process can be run at a lower temperature, saving fuel costs. The catalyst is not used up during the reaction, so it can be recovered and reused many times, reducing raw material costs.

  • Catalyst lowers activation energy so process can run at lower temperature (1m)
  • Lower temperature saves energy / reduces fuel costs (1m)
  • Catalyst is not used up so can be recovered and reused, reducing costs (1m)

Industrial catalysts (like iron in the Haber process) are used precisely for these two reasons: they enable lower operating temperatures (saving energy costs) and they are not consumed (reducing raw material costs). These are standard exam mark points.

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10.

Explain why breaking a solid reactant into smaller pieces increases the rate of reaction.

2 marks · foundationCommon

Breaking a solid into smaller pieces increases the surface area. This means more particles of the solid are exposed and available to collide with the other reactant, so collisions happen more frequently and the rate increases.

  • Increases the surface area of the solid (1m)
  • More particles exposed / more frequent collisions with the other reactant (1m)

When a solid is broken into smaller pieces, the total surface area increases because the interior of the solid becomes accessible. More solid particles are in direct contact with the other reactant, leading to more frequent collisions and a faster reaction rate.

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11.

A food manufacturer monitors the rate of fermentation when bread dough rises. Yeast in the dough converts sugars into carbon dioxide gas, which makes the dough rise. Name ONE factor the manufacturer could change to increase the rate of the fermentation reaction and explain, using collision theory, why this would work. [2 marks]

2 marks · foundationCommon

The manufacturer could increase the temperature of the dough. At higher temperatures, the yeast and sugar particles have more kinetic energy and move faster, so collisions between them are more frequent and more collisions have enough energy to react, increasing the rate of fermentation.

  • Names a valid factor: temperature increase OR increased sugar concentration (1m)
  • Collision theory explanation: more frequent collisions OR particles have more kinetic energy OR more collisions exceed activation energy (1m)

Any factor that increases collision frequency or the proportion of successful collisions will increase the reaction rate. For fermentation, increasing temperature gives particles more kinetic energy so they move and collide more often — and more collisions have enough energy to react. Increasing the concentration of sugar increases the number of sugar particles available, so collisions happen more frequently. In OCR B questions, you always need to name the factor AND explain it using collision theory — just naming the factor gives you only 1 out of 2 marks.

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12.

Explain why increasing the concentration of a reactant in solution increases the rate of reaction.

2 marks · standardCommon

Increasing concentration means there are more particles of the reactant per unit volume. The particles are closer together, so they collide more frequently, increasing the rate of reaction.

  • More particles per unit volume / particles closer together (1m)
  • More frequent collisions (between reactant particles) (1m)

Concentration is a measure of how many particles are dissolved per unit volume. A higher concentration packs more reactant particles into the same space, so the chance of any two particles meeting and colliding is greater, increasing the rate.

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13.

Explain how a catalyst increases the rate of reaction.

2 marks · standardCommon

A catalyst provides an alternative reaction pathway with a lower activation energy. This means more particles have sufficient energy to react when they collide, so there are more successful collisions and the rate increases.

  • Provides an alternative pathway with lower activation energy (1m)
  • More particles have sufficient energy to react / more successful collisions (1m)

A catalyst works by providing an alternative, lower-energy route through which the reaction can proceed. Because the activation energy is lower, more of the colliding particles have enough energy to react, so there are more productive collisions per second.

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14.

In an experiment, 48 cm³ of gas is collected in 60 seconds. Calculate the mean rate of reaction. Give your answer with units.

2 marks · higherCommon

Rate = volume / time = 48 / 60 = 0.8 cm³/s

  • Rate = volume / time = 48 / 60 (1m)
  • = 0.8 cm³/s (with correct units) (1m)

Mean rate of reaction = volume of gas produced / time taken = 48 cm3 / 60 s = 0.8 cm3/s. Always include units in a rate calculation answer.

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15.

Which of the following factors does NOT affect the rate of a chemical reaction?

  • A. Temperature
  • B. Concentration of reactants
  • C. Colour of the reactants
  • D. Surface area of a solid reactant
1 mark · foundationCommon

The colour of reactants has no effect on how quickly particles collide or on activation energy. The four main factors that affect rate are temperature, concentration (or pressure for gases), surface area, and catalysts.

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16.

A catalyst speeds up a reaction by:

  • A. Increasing the temperature of the reaction
  • B. Providing more reactant particles
  • C. Lowering the activation energy
  • D. Increasing the concentration of reactants
1 mark · foundationCommon

A catalyst provides an alternative reaction pathway with a lower activation energy. This means more particles have sufficient energy to react when they collide, so the rate increases. The catalyst itself is not used up.

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17.

Marble chips are added to hydrochloric acid. The reaction is faster when the marble is in small chips rather than one large lump. What is the main reason for this?

  • A. Small chips have a higher temperature
  • B. Small chips contain more calcium carbonate
  • C. Small chips produce a higher concentration of acid
  • D. Small chips have a greater surface area
1 mark · foundationCommon

Crushing marble into small chips dramatically increases the total surface area exposed to the acid. More surface area means more reactant particles are available to collide with acid particles, so the reaction is faster.

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18.

State what a catalyst is.

1 mark · foundationCommon

A catalyst is a substance that speeds up a chemical reaction without being used up or chemically changed at the end of the reaction.

  • A substance that speeds up a chemical reaction (1m)

A catalyst is a substance that speeds up a chemical reaction. The key distinguishing feature is that the catalyst is not permanently changed or consumed - it can be recovered unchanged at the end.

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19.

A chemist increases the temperature of a reaction mixture. According to collision theory, which statement best explains why the rate of reaction increases?

  • A. Particles become larger so they are more likely to collide
  • B. The activation energy of the reaction increases, allowing more reactions to occur
  • C. Particles have more kinetic energy so they collide more frequently and more collisions exceed the activation energy
  • D. The concentration of reactants increases when temperature rises
1 mark · foundationCommon

Higher temperature gives particles more kinetic energy, making them move faster. This has two effects: collisions happen more frequently (particles are moving faster and encounter each other more often), and more of those collisions have energy at or above the activation energy. Both effects increase the rate. Activation energy does NOT increase with temperature — it is fixed for a given reaction. Particle size and concentration do not change with temperature.

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20.

Magnesium ribbon is placed into two separate beakers of hydrochloric acid. Beaker A contains 2 mol/dm³ HCl and Beaker B contains 0.5 mol/dm³ HCl. Which statement correctly explains why the reaction in Beaker A is faster?

  • A. There are more acid particles per unit volume in Beaker A, so collisions are more frequent
  • B. The acid particles in Beaker A move faster because the concentration is higher
  • C. Beaker A has a higher temperature because of the higher concentration
  • D. The activation energy is lower in Beaker A because of the higher concentration
1 mark · standardCommon

Higher concentration means more acid particles are dissolved in the same volume. This increases the chance of acid particles colliding with the magnesium surface per unit time, so the reaction rate is faster.

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21.

The rate of a reaction increases significantly when temperature is raised from 20°C to 30°C. Which of the following best explains this?

  • A. More particles have energy greater than or equal to the activation energy
  • B. All particles now have energy greater than the activation energy
  • C. The activation energy decreases when temperature increases
  • D. Particles collide in a different direction at higher temperature
1 mark · standardCommon

Increasing temperature shifts the Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution so that a larger proportion of particles have energy at or above the activation energy. This means more collisions are successful, dramatically increasing the rate.

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22.

Two gases are reacting together. The pressure of the system is doubled. What effect does this have on the reaction rate, and why?

  • A. Rate decreases because particles have less space to move
  • B. Rate stays the same because temperature is unchanged
  • C. Rate increases because pressure gives particles more kinetic energy
  • D. Rate increases because gas particles are closer together, so collisions are more frequent
1 mark · standardCommon

Increasing pressure reduces the volume the gas occupies, pushing particles closer together. This increases the number of collisions per second, so the rate of reaction increases. Pressure has the same effect on gas reactions as concentration has on reactions in solution.

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23.

A student claims that adding a catalyst to a reaction increases the yield of product. Which response correctly evaluates this claim?

  • A. The student is correct - a catalyst always produces more product
  • B. The student is incorrect - a catalyst only increases the rate, not the amount of product formed
  • C. The student is correct - a catalyst provides extra energy to make more product
  • D. The student is incorrect - a catalyst actually decreases the yield by providing an alternative pathway
1 mark · standardCommon

A catalyst speeds up the rate of reaction but does not change the equilibrium position or the total amount of product that can form. The yield (amount of product) depends on the stoichiometry and the equilibrium, not the presence of a catalyst.

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24.

A student is investigating the rate of the reaction between calcium carbonate and hydrochloric acid, which produces carbon dioxide gas. Which pair of methods could both be used to measure the rate of this reaction?

  • A. Measuring colour change and measuring electrical conductivity
  • B. Measuring the volume of gas produced and measuring the decrease in mass of the reaction flask
  • C. Measuring the pH change and measuring the colour change
  • D. Measuring the temperature change and measuring the electrical conductivity
1 mark · standardCommon

Both methods track how much CO2 is produced over time. A gas syringe measures the volume of CO2 collected. A balance measures the decrease in mass as CO2 escapes from the flask. Either method gives rate = change in measurement / time.

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Reaction Profiles

Common28
1.

A student is asked to compare reaction profiles for exothermic and endothermic reactions, and to explain the effect of a catalyst on each type of reaction. Using your knowledge of activation energy, bond breaking, and bond forming, write a detailed comparison of the two types of reaction profile. In your answer, include the effect of adding a catalyst to each reaction. [6 marks]

6 marks · challengeCommon

In an exothermic reaction profile, the products are at a lower energy level than the reactants, and the overall energy change (delta H) is negative. This is because the energy released in forming new bonds is greater than the energy absorbed in breaking the old bonds. In an endothermic reaction profile, the products are at a higher energy level than the reactants, and delta H is positive, because more energy is absorbed breaking old bonds than is released forming new bonds. Both types of profile show a peak above the reactant energy level: this peak represents the activation energy, which is the minimum energy that reacting particles must have. In both exothermic and endothermic reactions, adding a catalyst provides an alternative reaction pathway with a lower activation energy, shown as a lower peak on the profile. The catalyst does not change the energy levels of the reactants or products, so delta H remains the same regardless of whether a catalyst is present.

  • Exothermic: products at lower energy level than reactants / delta H is negative (1m)
  • Exothermic: energy released in bond forming exceeds energy absorbed in bond breaking (1m)
  • Endothermic: products at higher energy level than reactants / delta H is positive (1m)
  • Endothermic: energy absorbed in bond breaking exceeds energy released in bond forming (1m)
  • Activation energy is shown as the peak height from reactants to the top of the curve; it is the minimum energy needed for particles to react (1m)
  • A catalyst lowers the activation energy (lower peak) for both types of reaction but does not change the reactant/product energy levels or delta H (1m)

A full comparison of reaction profiles requires: the relative positions of reactants and products (lower for exothermic, higher for endothermic), the bond energy explanation for each, the role of activation energy as the minimum energy barrier, and the effect of a catalyst in lowering activation energy without changing delta H.

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2.

Use ideas about bond breaking and bond forming to explain the shape of a reaction profile for an exothermic reaction, including the role of activation energy. [4 marks]

4 marks · higherCommon

Activation energy is the energy needed to break the bonds in the reactants. Bond breaking requires energy input, which is why the profile rises from the reactants to a peak. At the peak, the activated complex is formed. As new bonds form in the products, energy is released. Because more energy is released making new bonds than is absorbed breaking old bonds, the products are at a lower energy level than the reactants. The overall energy change is negative (exothermic).

  • Activation energy is the energy needed to break bonds in the reactants / the initial energy input required (1m)
  • Bond breaking is endothermic (energy absorbed) — causes the rise from reactants to the peak (1m)
  • Bond forming is exothermic (energy released) — causes the fall from the peak to products (1m)
  • Products are at a lower level than reactants because energy released in bond forming exceeds energy absorbed in bond breaking (delta H negative) (1m)

The shape of the reaction profile is explained by bond energies: the rise to the peak reflects endothermic bond breaking (activation energy), and the fall to products reflects exothermic bond forming. The exothermic net change occurs because bond forming releases more energy than bond breaking absorbs.

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3.

Explain, using the concept of activation energy, why adding a catalyst increases the rate of reaction. [3 marks]

3 marks · standardCommon

A catalyst provides an alternative reaction pathway with a lower activation energy. Because the activation energy is lower, a greater proportion of the reacting particles have enough energy to overcome the energy barrier. More successful collisions occur per second, so the rate of reaction increases.

  • Catalyst provides an alternative pathway with a lower activation energy (1m)
  • A greater proportion / more particles now have enough energy to react (1m)
  • More successful collisions per unit time, so rate of reaction increases (1m)

A catalyst speeds up reactions by lowering the activation energy. With a lower energy barrier, a greater proportion of particles have sufficient energy to react successfully when they collide, increasing the reaction rate.

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4.

Describe and explain the features of a reaction profile for an endothermic reaction. [3 marks]

3 marks · standardCommon

In an endothermic reaction profile, the products are at a higher energy level than the reactants. The reaction absorbs energy from the surroundings. The overall energy change (delta H) is positive, shown by the upward step from reactants to products.

  • Products are at a higher energy level than reactants on the profile (1m)
  • Energy is absorbed from the surroundings during the reaction (1m)
  • Delta H is positive / the energy difference shows the energy absorbed (1m)

An endothermic reaction profile shows products higher than reactants (energy absorbed), with a positive delta H value.

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5.

Compare the reaction profiles for a catalysed and an uncatalysed reaction. State what is the same and what is different. [3 marks]

3 marks · higherCommon

The activation energy is lower in the catalysed profile because the catalyst provides an alternative pathway. The energy levels of the reactants and products are the same in both profiles. Therefore, the overall energy change (delta H) is identical for the catalysed and uncatalysed reactions.

  • The activation energy is lower for the catalysed reaction (lower peak) because the catalyst provides an alternative pathway (1m)
  • The reactant and product energy levels are the same in both profiles (1m)
  • Therefore delta H is the same for both the catalysed and uncatalysed reactions (1m)

The key difference is the activation energy (peak height): lower with a catalyst. The key similarity is the reactant and product energy levels — and therefore delta H — which are unchanged.

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6.

A reaction profile shows: reactants at 50 kJ, peak at 130 kJ, products at 20 kJ. Calculate (a) the activation energy and (b) the overall energy change, delta H. State whether the reaction is exothermic or endothermic. [3 marks]

3 marks · higherCommon

Activation energy = peak minus reactants = 130 minus 50 = 80 kJ. Delta H = products minus reactants = 20 minus 50 = negative 30 kJ. The reaction is exothermic because delta H is negative.

  • Activation energy = peak minus reactant energy = 130 minus 50 = 80 kJ (1m)
  • Delta H = product energy minus reactant energy = 20 minus 50 = negative 30 kJ (1m)
  • Reaction is exothermic (because delta H is negative / products lower than reactants) (1m)

Activation energy = peak minus reactants = 130 - 50 = 80 kJ. Delta H = products minus reactants = 20 - 50 = -30 kJ. Negative delta H means exothermic.

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7.

A student is given the following data for a reaction: reactants at 60 kJ, peak at 200 kJ, products at 110 kJ. Calculate the activation energy and the overall energy change. State whether the reaction is exothermic or endothermic, and justify your answer. [3 marks]

3 marks · higherCommon

Activation energy = peak minus reactant energy = 200 minus 60 = 140 kJ. Delta H = product energy minus reactant energy = 110 minus 60 = positive 50 kJ. The reaction is endothermic because delta H is positive — the products have more energy than the reactants, meaning energy has been absorbed from the surroundings.

  • Activation energy = peak minus reactants = 200 minus 60 = 140 kJ (1m)
  • Delta H = products minus reactants = 110 minus 60 = +50 kJ (1m)
  • Reaction is endothermic because delta H is positive / products are higher than reactants / energy is absorbed (1m)

Activation energy = 200 - 60 = 140 kJ. Delta H = 110 - 60 = +50 kJ. Positive delta H means the products are higher in energy than the reactants — energy has been absorbed, so the reaction is endothermic.

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8.

The diagram shows a reaction profile for an exothermic reaction. Using your knowledge of bond breaking and bond forming, explain why the products are at a lower energy level than the reactants in an exothermic reaction. [3 marks]

3 marks · higherCommon

During a chemical reaction, bonds in the reactants must first be broken, which requires energy to be absorbed from the surroundings. New bonds are then formed in the products, which releases energy to the surroundings. In an exothermic reaction, the energy released when forming new bonds in the products is greater than the energy absorbed when breaking bonds in the reactants. This means there is a net release of energy to the surroundings, so the products end up at a lower energy level than the reactants, giving a negative value for delta H.

  • Bond breaking requires/absorbs energy from the surroundings (1m)
  • Bond forming releases energy to the surroundings (1m)
  • In exothermic reactions, energy released in bond forming is greater than energy absorbed in bond breaking / net energy is released / delta H is negative (1m)

All chemical reactions involve bond breaking (endothermic — energy absorbed) and bond forming (exothermic — energy released). In an exothermic reaction overall, the energy released when new bonds form is greater than the energy absorbed when old bonds break. This net energy release means the products sit at a lower energy level than the reactants on the profile, giving a negative delta H.

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9.

Compare the energy profile of an exothermic and an endothermic reaction using the diagram. [3 marks]

3 marks · higherCommon

In an exothermic reaction, the products are at a lower energy level than the reactants, so the overall energy change (delta H) is negative — energy is released to the surroundings. In an endothermic reaction, the products are at a higher energy level than the reactants, so delta H is positive — energy is absorbed from the surroundings. Both reactions have an activation energy (the peak of the curve above the reactant level), but the endothermic reaction's activation energy is larger because more energy must be put in overall.

  • Exothermic: products at a lower energy level than reactants / delta H is negative / energy released (1m)
  • Endothermic: products at a higher energy level than reactants / delta H is positive / energy absorbed (1m)
  • Both reactions have an activation energy shown by the peak on the curve / activation energy is the height from the reactant level to the peak (1m)

On an energy profile: exothermic reactions have products at a lower energy than reactants (delta H negative, energy released); endothermic reactions have products at a higher energy than reactants (delta H positive, energy absorbed). Both types have an activation energy — the energy barrier shown as the height of the peak above the reactant level.

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10.

Describe what a reaction profile for an exothermic reaction looks like. [2 marks]

2 marks · foundationCommon

In an exothermic reaction profile, the products are at a lower energy level than the reactants. The energy difference between the reactants and products represents the energy released to the surroundings.

  • Products are at a lower energy level than the reactants (1m)
  • The difference in energy levels represents the energy released (delta H is negative) (1m)

An exothermic profile shows a downward step from reactants to products because energy is released. The vertical gap from reactant level to product level is the energy released.

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11.

State what is plotted on the x-axis and y-axis of a reaction profile. [2 marks]

2 marks · foundationCommon

The y-axis shows the energy stored in the chemicals (or enthalpy). The x-axis shows the progress of the reaction (also called the reaction coordinate or extent of reaction).

  • Y-axis: energy (of chemicals / enthalpy / potential energy) (1m)
  • X-axis: progress of reaction / reaction coordinate / extent of reaction (1m)

A reaction profile has energy (enthalpy) on the y-axis and progress of reaction (reaction coordinate) on the x-axis. This allows us to see how the energy of the chemicals changes as the reaction proceeds.

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12.

Explain how a catalyst affects the activation energy shown on a reaction profile. [2 marks]

2 marks · standardCommon

A catalyst provides an alternative reaction pathway with a lower activation energy. On the reaction profile this is shown as a lower peak, meaning fewer particles need to overcome the energy barrier and the reaction is faster.

  • A catalyst provides an alternative reaction pathway with a lower activation energy (1m)
  • Shown as a lower peak on the reaction profile / more particles can overcome the energy barrier (1m)

Catalysts work by providing an alternative reaction pathway. This new route has a lower activation energy, shown as a smaller peak on the reaction profile.

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13.

A reaction profile shows reactants at 80 kJ and products at 30 kJ. Calculate the overall energy change (delta H) and state whether the reaction is exothermic or endothermic. [2 marks]

2 marks · standardCommon

Delta H = energy of products minus energy of reactants = 30 minus 80 = negative 50 kJ. Since delta H is negative, the reaction is exothermic.

  • Delta H = products minus reactants = 30 minus 80 = -50 kJ (accept negative 50 kJ) (1m)
  • Reaction is exothermic (because delta H is negative / products lower than reactants) (1m)

Delta H = products - reactants = 30 - 80 = -50 kJ. A negative delta H means energy is released to the surroundings, so the reaction is exothermic.

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14.

The diagram shows reaction profiles for an exothermic reaction (left) and an endothermic reaction (right). Using the diagram, describe one difference between the two profiles. [2 marks]

2 marks · standardCommon

In the exothermic reaction profile the products are at a lower energy level than the reactants, so the overall energy change (delta H) is negative. In the endothermic reaction profile the products are at a higher energy level than the reactants, so delta H is positive.

  • In the exothermic profile the products are at a lower energy level than the reactants / delta H is negative (1m)
  • In the endothermic profile the products are at a higher energy level than the reactants / delta H is positive (1m)

The key visual difference between the two profiles is the final position of the products. Exothermic: products lower than reactants (energy released, negative delta H). Endothermic: products higher than reactants (energy absorbed, positive delta H).

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15.

A catalyst is added to the exothermic reaction shown in the diagram. Describe how adding a catalyst would change the reaction profile. [2 marks]

2 marks · standardCommon

Adding a catalyst lowers the activation energy, so the peak of the curve on the reaction profile becomes lower. The catalyst provides an alternative reaction pathway with a lower activation energy. The energy levels of the reactants and products remain the same, so the overall energy change (delta H) is unchanged.

  • The activation energy (peak height) is lower / the curve has a lower peak (1m)
  • The reactant and product energy levels are unchanged / delta H remains the same (1m)

A catalyst works by providing an alternative reaction pathway with a lower activation energy. This is shown on the reaction profile as a lower peak. However, the catalyst does not change the energy levels of the reactants or products, so the overall energy change (delta H) is identical with or without the catalyst.

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16.

Using the energy profile diagram, explain what the activation energy represents. [2 marks]

2 marks · standardCommon

The activation energy (Ea) is the minimum amount of energy that particles must have in order to react when they collide. It is shown on the energy profile as the height of the peak above the reactant energy level. Only particles with energy equal to or greater than the activation energy will successfully react.

  • Activation energy is the minimum energy particles need to react / energy barrier for the reaction (1m)
  • Shown on the diagram as the height from the reactant level to the peak of the curve (1m)

Activation energy (Ea) is the minimum energy colliding particles must possess for a reaction to occur. On a reaction profile it is shown as the height from the reactant energy level up to the top of the curved hump (the transition state). Particles with less energy than Ea will collide but not react.

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17.

Using the diagram, explain why the products are at a lower energy level than the reactants in an exothermic reaction. [2 marks]

2 marks · standardCommon

In any chemical reaction, bonds in the reactants are broken (which requires energy input) and new bonds in the products are formed (which releases energy). In an exothermic reaction, the energy released when new bonds form is greater than the energy absorbed when old bonds break. This means the products end up at a lower energy level than the reactants, so energy is transferred to the surroundings.

  • Bond breaking absorbs energy and bond forming releases energy (1m)
  • In an exothermic reaction, energy released (bond forming) is greater than energy absorbed (bond breaking) / net energy released / delta H is negative (1m)

All chemical reactions involve bond breaking (endothermic process — energy absorbed) and bond forming (exothermic process — energy released). In an exothermic reaction, the energy released when forming new bonds in the products is greater than the energy absorbed when breaking bonds in the reactants. The net effect is a release of energy to the surroundings, which is why the products sit at a lower energy level on the profile and delta H is negative.

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18.

What does activation energy represent on a reaction profile?

  • A. The minimum energy particles need to react
  • B. The total energy released during the reaction
  • C. The energy stored in the reactants
  • D. The difference in energy between products and reactants
1 mark · foundationCommon

Activation energy is the minimum energy that colliding particles must have to overcome the energy barrier and react. It is shown on a reaction profile as the height from the reactant energy level to the peak of the curve.

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19.

On a reaction profile for an exothermic reaction, compared to the reactants, the products are at:

  • A. A higher energy level
  • B. The same energy level
  • C. A lower energy level
  • D. The peak of the curve
1 mark · foundationCommon

In an exothermic reaction, energy is released to the surroundings. This means the products have less energy than the reactants. On a reaction profile, the products are drawn at a lower energy level than the reactants.

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20.

Which statement correctly describes an endothermic reaction profile?

  • A. Products are lower than reactants and delta H is negative
  • B. Products are higher than reactants and delta H is positive
  • C. Products are higher than reactants and delta H is negative
  • D. Products are at the same level as reactants and delta H is zero
1 mark · foundationCommon

In an endothermic reaction, energy is absorbed from the surroundings. The products store more energy than the reactants, so they appear higher on the energy axis. Because energy is taken in, delta H is positive.

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21.

State what is meant by the term 'activation energy'. [1 mark]

1 mark · foundationCommon

Activation energy is the minimum energy that reacting particles must have in order to react.

  • The minimum energy that reacting particles need in order to react / to overcome the energy barrier (1m)

Activation energy is the energy barrier that particles must overcome. Only particles with at least this much energy can react when they collide.

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22.

Using the reaction profiles shown, what does the label 'Ea' represent on each diagram?

  • A. The overall energy change of the reaction
  • B. The minimum energy particles need to react
  • C. The energy stored in the products
  • D. The energy released when bonds form
1 mark · foundationCommon

Ea stands for activation energy — the minimum energy that colliding particles must possess for a reaction to occur. It is shown on the reaction profile as the height from the reactant energy level up to the peak of the curve. It is NOT the overall energy change (delta H), which is the difference between the reactant and product energy levels.

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23.

A catalyst speeds up a reaction. Which change is shown on a reaction profile when a catalyst is added?

  • A. The reactant energy level rises
  • B. The product energy level rises
  • C. The peak of the curve is lower
  • D. Both reactant and product energy levels rise
1 mark · standardCommon

A catalyst provides an alternative reaction pathway with a lower activation energy. On a reaction profile, this is shown as a lower peak — the hill is smaller. The energy levels of the reactants and products remain unchanged because the overall energy change (delta H) is not affected by a catalyst.

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24.

A catalyst is added to a reaction. What happens to the overall energy change (delta H)?

  • A. Delta H remains unchanged
  • B. Delta H becomes more negative
  • C. Delta H becomes zero
  • D. Delta H becomes more positive
1 mark · standardCommon

A catalyst only lowers the activation energy by providing an alternative reaction pathway. It does not change the energy of the reactants or the products, so the overall energy change (delta H = energy of products minus energy of reactants) stays exactly the same.

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25.

On a reaction profile diagram, what does the y-axis represent?

  • A. Time taken for the reaction
  • B. Temperature of the reaction mixture
  • C. Concentration of reactants
  • D. Energy stored in the chemicals
1 mark · standardCommon

On a reaction profile, the y-axis represents the energy stored in the chemicals (sometimes called potential energy or enthalpy). The x-axis represents the progress of the reaction (sometimes labelled 'reaction coordinate' or 'extent of reaction').

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26.

A reaction profile shows the reactants at 40 kJ and the peak of the curve at 100 kJ. What is the activation energy?

  • A. 40 kJ
  • B. 100 kJ
  • C. 140 kJ
  • D. 60 kJ
1 mark · standardCommon

Activation energy is the difference between the energy of the reactants and the energy at the peak of the curve. Activation energy = peak energy minus reactant energy = 100 minus 40 = 60 kJ.

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27.

A student draws two reaction profiles for the same reaction: one catalysed, one uncatalysed. Which of the following correctly describes the difference between the two profiles?

  • A. The catalysed profile has a lower peak and lower product energy level
  • B. The catalysed profile has a lower peak but the same reactant and product energy levels
  • C. The catalysed profile has the same peak height but the reactants are at a lower energy level
  • D. The catalysed profile has both a lower peak and a higher reactant energy level
1 mark · standardCommon

A catalyst lowers the activation energy by providing an alternative reaction pathway. On the reaction profile this appears as a lower peak (lower activation energy). However, the reactant and product energy levels are exactly the same in both profiles because the catalyst does not change the overall energy change (delta H) of the reaction.

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28.

What does a catalyst do to the activation energy shown on the reaction profile?

  • A. Increases the activation energy
  • B. Lowers the activation energy
  • C. Removes the activation energy completely
  • D. Has no effect on the activation energy
1 mark · standardCommon

A catalyst provides an alternative reaction pathway with a lower activation energy. This means the peak on the reaction profile is lower when a catalyst is present. The reactant and product energy levels are unchanged, so the overall energy change (delta H) stays the same. A catalyst does NOT remove the activation energy barrier entirely — it just lowers it.

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Tests for Ions

20
1.

A student is given an unknown green crystalline solid. They carry out the following tests. Test 1: Dissolves in water to give a green solution. Test 2: Adding dilute HCl causes fizzing; the gas turns limewater milky. Test 3: Adding sodium hydroxide solution to the original green solution gives a green precipitate. Identify the compound, stating which ion each test identifies. Then write the ionic equations for the reactions in Test 2 and Test 3.

6 marks · challenge

The compound is iron(II) carbonate (FeCO3). Test 2 identifies carbonate ions: the fizzing and the gas turning limewater milky confirms CO2 is produced, which is characteristic of carbonate ions reacting with acid. Ionic equation: CO32-(aq) + 2H+(aq) → CO2(g) + H2O(l). Test 3 identifies iron(II) ions: the green precipitate formed with sodium hydroxide is iron(II) hydroxide, Fe(OH)2, characteristic of Fe2+ ions. Ionic equation: Fe2+(aq) + 2OH-(aq) → Fe(OH)2(s). Together, Fe2+ and CO32- identify the compound as iron(II) carbonate.

  • The compound is iron(II) carbonate (FeCO3) (1m)
  • Test 2 identifies carbonate ions — CO32- reacts with acid to give CO2 gas (1m)
  • Test 3 identifies iron(II) ions — Fe2+ reacts with OH- to give green Fe(OH)2 precipitate (1m)
  • Ionic equation for Test 2: CO32-(aq) + 2H+(aq) → CO2(g) + H2O(l) (1m)
  • Ionic equation for Test 3: Fe2+(aq) + 2OH-(aq) → Fe(OH)2(s) (1m)
  • Both ionic equations balanced correctly with state symbols (1m)

This 6-mark question requires linking observations to specific ions AND writing ionic equations. Key ionic equations to know: carbonate + acid: CO32-(aq) + 2H+(aq) → CO2(g) + H2O(l); iron(II) + NaOH: Fe2+(aq) + 2OH-(aq) → Fe(OH)2(s); iron(III) + NaOH: Fe3+(aq) + 3OH-(aq) → Fe(OH)3(s). State symbols are essential in ionic equations. The green colour at every stage (solution, precipitate) is the giveaway for Fe2+. FeCO3 is a valid but uncommon salt — this tests whether students can apply their ion test knowledge to an unfamiliar compound.

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2.

A student tests an unknown white solid and records these results: (1) Yellow/orange flame in a flame test. (2) A white precipitate forms when dilute HCl is added, then barium chloride solution. Identify the compound and justify your answer using the test results.

4 marks · higher

The compound is sodium sulfate (Na2SO4). The yellow/orange flame in the flame test indicates the presence of sodium ions (Na+), as sodium always gives a distinctive yellow flame. The white precipitate that forms when dilute HCl and then barium chloride solution are added indicates the presence of sulfate ions (SO42-), as barium sulfate (BaSO4) is an insoluble white solid. Together, the presence of Na+ and SO42- identifies the compound as sodium sulfate.

  • The compound is sodium sulfate (Na2SO4) (1m)
  • A yellow/orange flame indicates the presence of sodium ions (Na+) (1m)
  • The white precipitate with HCl then BaCl2 indicates sulfate ions (SO42-) (1m)
  • Both ions identified correctly and compound named or formula given (1m)

This is a classic two-ion identification question. Yellow/orange flame → always sodium (Na+). White precipitate with dilute HCl then BaCl2 → always sulfate (SO42-). Combining Na+ and SO42- gives Na2SO4 (sodium sulfate). In exam answers, always link each test result to the specific ion it identifies. Simply naming the compound without justification loses marks.

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3.

A student has an unknown ionic compound dissolved in solution. Plan a systematic series of tests to identify both the cation (positive ion) and the anion (negative ion) present.

4 marks · higher

To identify the cation, add sodium hydroxide solution and observe the colour of the precipitate: blue = Cu2+, green = Fe2+, brown = Fe3+, white = Al3+, Ca2+, or Mg2+. If a white precipitate forms, add excess NaOH — if it dissolves, the ion is Al3+; if it remains, use a flame test to distinguish Ca2+ (orange-red flame) from Mg2+ (no colour). To identify the anion, first add dilute acid — fizzing with CO2 that turns limewater milky indicates carbonate. Then add dilute HCl followed by barium chloride — a white precipitate indicates sulfate. Finally, add dilute HNO3 followed by silver nitrate — white = chloride, cream = bromide, yellow = iodide.

  • Test for cation: add sodium hydroxide solution and observe colour of precipitate (e.g. blue = Cu2+, green = Fe2+, brown = Fe3+, white = Al3+/Ca2+/Mg2+) (1m)
  • If white precipitate: add excess NaOH — dissolves = Al3+; stays = Ca2+ or Mg2+; use flame test to distinguish (Ca = red, Mg = no colour) (1m)
  • Test for carbonate: add dilute acid — if fizzes and CO2 turns limewater milky, carbonate present (1m)
  • Test for sulfate: add dilute HCl then barium chloride — white precipitate = sulfate; test for halide: add dilute HNO3 then silver nitrate — white/cream/yellow precipitate = Cl-/Br-/I- (1m)

A systematic approach to ion identification always tests the cation first (NaOH test), then the anion (carbonate, sulfate, halide in that order). The key decision point is what to do with a white precipitate from NaOH — only aluminium hydroxide dissolves in excess NaOH. Calcium and magnesium require flame tests to distinguish. For anions, the order HCl + BaCl2 (sulfate) then HNO3 + AgNO3 (halides) prevents the acids from interfering with each other's tests.

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4.

Describe the test for sulfate ions and the expected positive result.

3 marks · foundation

To test for sulfate ions, first add dilute hydrochloric acid to the sample solution to remove any carbonate ions that could give a false positive result. Then add barium chloride solution. If sulfate ions are present, a white precipitate of barium sulfate (BaSO4) will form.

  • Add dilute hydrochloric acid (HCl) to the sample first (1m)
  • Then add barium chloride (BaCl2) solution (1m)
  • A white precipitate forms if sulfate ions are present (1m)

The sulfate ion test uses barium chloride because Ba2+ and SO42- react to form barium sulfate (BaSO4), which is an insoluble white solid. Dilute HCl must be added first because carbonate ions (CO32-) would also react with barium ions to give a white precipitate of BaCO3, which would be a false positive. HCl reacts with carbonates producing CO2 gas, removing them before BaCl2 is added.

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5.

Describe how you would test for carbonate ions and explain what you would observe as a positive result.

3 marks · foundation

To test for carbonate ions, add dilute acid (such as hydrochloric acid) to the sample. A positive result is fizzing or effervescence due to carbon dioxide gas being produced. To confirm the gas is carbon dioxide, bubble it through limewater — the limewater turns milky or cloudy if carbonate ions are present.

  • Add dilute acid (e.g. hydrochloric acid) to the sample (1m)
  • Fizzing/effervescence occurs — carbon dioxide gas is produced (1m)
  • Bubble the gas through limewater — limewater turns milky/cloudy (1m)

The carbonate ion test is a two-step process: first observe fizzing when acid is added (the acid-carbonate reaction: CO32- + 2H+ → CO2 + H2O), then confirm the gas is CO2 by bubbling through limewater. Limewater (calcium hydroxide solution) reacts with CO2 to form calcium carbonate, an insoluble white solid: CO2 + Ca(OH)2 → CaCO3 + H2O. The white CaCO3 makes the limewater appear milky.

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6.

Describe how sodium hydroxide solution can be used to distinguish between iron(II) ions and iron(III) ions in solution, including the expected observations.

3 marks · standard

Add sodium hydroxide solution to each sample. If iron(II) ions (Fe2+) are present, a green precipitate of iron(II) hydroxide forms. If iron(III) ions (Fe3+) are present, a brown or orange precipitate of iron(III) hydroxide forms. The different colours of the precipitates allow the two ions to be distinguished.

  • Add sodium hydroxide solution to each sample (1m)
  • Iron(II) ions (Fe2+) produce a green precipitate of Fe(OH)2 (1m)
  • Iron(III) ions (Fe3+) produce a brown/orange precipitate of Fe(OH)3 (1m)

Sodium hydroxide is the key reagent for testing transition metal ions. Fe2+ (iron in +2 oxidation state) forms iron(II) hydroxide, Fe(OH)2, which is green. Fe3+ (iron in +3 oxidation state) forms iron(III) hydroxide, Fe(OH)3, which is brown/orange. This colour difference is very distinctive and easy to observe, making it a reliable test for distinguishing between the two iron ions.

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7.

A student adds sodium hydroxide to a solution and a white precipitate forms. When more sodium hydroxide is added, the precipitate disappears. Which metal ion is present? Explain the observations.

3 marks · standard

Aluminium ions (Al3+) are present. When sodium hydroxide is first added, a white precipitate of aluminium hydroxide Al(OH)3 forms. When excess sodium hydroxide is added, this precipitate redissolves because aluminium hydroxide is amphoteric — it can react with both acids and bases. No other common metal ion in this test shows this behaviour, making it a diagnostic feature for aluminium.

  • Aluminium ions (Al3+) are present (1m)
  • White precipitate of aluminium hydroxide Al(OH)3 forms initially (1m)
  • Aluminium hydroxide redissolves in excess sodium hydroxide because aluminium is amphoteric (reacts with both acids and bases) (1m)

Aluminium hydroxide is the only metal hydroxide in the AQA GCSE specification that redissolves in excess sodium hydroxide. Calcium hydroxide and magnesium hydroxide both give white precipitates but these remain even with excess NaOH. This dissolving behaviour is the key distinguishing feature for Al3+ ions. Aluminium is described as amphoteric — it reacts with both acids (to form Al3+ salts) and with excess strong alkali.

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8.

Describe the test for ammonium ions (NH4+) in a solution, including the reagents used and the expected observations.

3 marks · standard

To test for ammonium ions, add sodium hydroxide solution to the sample and warm it gently. If ammonium ions are present, ammonia gas (NH3) is produced. The gas can be identified by holding damp red litmus paper above the solution — the litmus turns from red to blue because ammonia is an alkaline gas.

  • Add sodium hydroxide solution (NaOH) to the sample and warm gently (1m)
  • Ammonia gas (NH3) is produced (1m)
  • The gas turns damp red litmus paper blue (or has a pungent smell) (1m)

The ammonium ion test relies on the fact that NH4+ ions react with OH- ions (from NaOH) to produce ammonia gas: NH4+(aq) + OH-(aq) → NH3(g) + H2O(l). Warming the mixture is essential to drive off the ammonia gas. The gas is alkaline and turns damp red litmus paper blue. This test distinguishes ammonium ions from other cations, as no other common cation produces ammonia gas with NaOH.

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9.

Explain why dilute nitric acid (HNO3) is added before silver nitrate solution when testing for halide ions.

2 marks · standard

Dilute nitric acid is added first to remove any carbonate or sulfate ions from the solution, as these ions would also react with silver nitrate to produce a precipitate. This prevents false positive results — without the acid step, you cannot be sure the precipitate is due to halide ions alone.

  • To prevent/remove other anions (e.g. carbonates, sulfates) that would also react with silver nitrate (1m)
  • This stops false positive results — other anions would give precipitates that look similar (1m)

Carbonate ions (CO32-) react with silver nitrate to form silver carbonate, a pale yellow precipitate, while sulfate ions can also give precipitates. These would make it impossible to tell whether the precipitate is from a halide ion or another anion. Adding dilute HNO3 reacts with carbonates: CO32- + 2H+ → CO2 + H2O, and prevents sulfates from precipitating. This ensures any precipitate that forms is definitely due to halide ions.

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10.

Both calcium ions and magnesium ions produce a white precipitate when sodium hydroxide is added. Explain how you could distinguish between them.

2 marks · standard

Since both calcium and magnesium produce white precipitates with sodium hydroxide, carry out a flame test to distinguish them. Calcium gives an orange-red flame, whereas magnesium gives no characteristic colour in the flame. The presence or absence of the orange-red colour confirms which ion is present.

  • Carry out a flame test (1m)
  • Calcium gives an orange-red flame; magnesium gives no characteristic flame colour (1m)

Both Ca2+ and Mg2+ give white precipitates with NaOH, so the NaOH test alone cannot distinguish them. Flame tests solve this: calcium gives a distinctive orange-red flame (similar to but darker than the copper green-blue), while magnesium gives no characteristic colour (its flame is colourless or very faintly white). This difference makes the flame test the standard way to confirm which of these two ions is present after obtaining a white precipitate.

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11.

Which reagents are used to test for carbonate ions in a solution?

  • A. Add barium chloride solution, then dilute HCl
  • B. Add dilute acid, then test the gas with limewater
  • C. Add silver nitrate solution, then dilute HNO3
  • D. Add sodium hydroxide solution and warm
1 mark · foundation

To test for carbonate ions (CO32-), add dilute acid (such as HCl) to the sample. Carbonate ions react with acid to produce carbon dioxide gas, which causes fizzing. The CO2 gas is then bubbled through limewater, which turns milky/cloudy if CO2 is present. This confirms the presence of carbonate ions.

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12.

A student adds sodium hydroxide solution to an unknown solution and observes a blue precipitate. Which metal ion is present?

  • A. Cu2+
  • B. Fe2+
  • C. Al3+
  • D. Fe3+
1 mark · foundation

Copper(II) ions (Cu2+) react with sodium hydroxide to form a characteristic blue precipitate of copper(II) hydroxide, Cu(OH)2. This is one of the most distinctive results in the ion tests, as the blue colour is highly recognisable. Each metal ion produces a different coloured precipitate, allowing them to be distinguished.

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13.

When silver nitrate solution is added to a solution after acidifying with dilute HNO3, a white precipitate forms. Which halide ion is present?

  • A. Iodide (I-)
  • B. Bromide (Br-)
  • C. Chloride (Cl-)
  • D. Fluoride (F-)
1 mark · foundation

The three halide ions produce different coloured precipitates with silver nitrate solution: chloride (Cl-) gives a white precipitate of silver chloride (AgCl), bromide (Br-) gives a cream precipitate of silver bromide (AgBr), and iodide (I-) gives a yellow precipitate of silver iodide (AgI). Dilute HNO3 is added first to remove any carbonate or sulfate ions that might interfere.

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14.

Which colour precipitate does silver nitrate produce with bromide ions?

  • A. White
  • B. Yellow
  • C. Blue
  • D. Cream
1 mark · foundation

Silver nitrate produces characteristic coloured precipitates with each halide ion: chloride gives white (AgCl), bromide gives cream (AgBr), and iodide gives yellow (AgI). The cream colour of silver bromide sits between white and yellow, which can help distinguish it from the other two halides. Remember the order: white, cream, yellow going down Group 7.

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15.

What colour precipitate is produced when sodium hydroxide is added to a solution containing iron(II) ions (Fe2+)?

  • A. Blue
  • B. Green
  • C. White
  • D. Brown
1 mark · foundation

Iron(II) ions (Fe2+) react with sodium hydroxide to produce a green precipitate of iron(II) hydroxide, Fe(OH)2. Iron(III) ions (Fe3+) produce a brown/orange precipitate of iron(III) hydroxide, Fe(OH)3. The colour difference allows you to distinguish between the two oxidation states of iron.

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16.

Which ion produces a yellow precipitate when silver nitrate solution is added after acidifying with dilute HNO3?

  • A. Sulfate (SO42-)
  • B. Chloride (Cl-)
  • C. Bromide (Br-)
  • D. Iodide (I-)
1 mark · foundation

Iodide ions (I-) react with silver nitrate to form silver iodide (AgI), which is a bright yellow precipitate. This is one of three halide precipitate tests: Cl- gives white AgCl, Br- gives cream AgBr, and I- gives yellow AgI. A useful memory aid is that the precipitates get darker in colour going down Group 7: white → cream → yellow.

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17.

When testing for sulfate ions, dilute HCl is added before barium chloride solution. Why is this step necessary?

  • A. To remove carbonate ions that would otherwise give a false positive result with barium chloride
  • B. To make the barium chloride solution more concentrated
  • C. To lower the pH so the precipitate forms more quickly
  • D. To dissolve any precipitate that forms from impurities in the barium chloride
1 mark · standard

Carbonate ions (CO32-) would also react with barium ions to form a white precipitate of barium carbonate (BaCO3), which looks identical to barium sulfate (BaSO4). Adding dilute HCl first reacts with and removes any carbonate ions: CO32- + 2H+ → CO2 + H2O. This ensures the only white precipitate that forms when BaCl2 is then added is barium sulfate, confirming the presence of sulfate ions.

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18.

A student adds sodium hydroxide solution to a solution of metal ions. A white precipitate forms, but then dissolves when excess NaOH is added. Which ion is present?

  • A. Ca2+
  • B. Mg2+
  • C. Al3+
  • D. Fe2+
1 mark · standard

Aluminium hydroxide (Al(OH)3) is unique because it dissolves in excess sodium hydroxide solution. A white precipitate forms initially, but when more NaOH is added, the aluminium hydroxide reacts with the excess hydroxide ions to form the soluble aluminate ion. This behaviour is not shown by calcium or magnesium hydroxides, which makes it a diagnostic test for aluminium ions.

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19.

Write the ionic equation, including state symbols, for the reaction between iron(III) ions and sodium hydroxide solution.

1 mark · standard
  • Fe3+(aq) + 3OH-(aq) → Fe(OH)3(s) — correct formula and state symbols, balanced (1m)

Iron(III) ions carry a 3+ charge. To balance with hydroxide ions (OH-, each with a 1- charge), three hydroxide ions are needed. The product, iron(III) hydroxide Fe(OH)3, is an insoluble brown solid, so it has the state symbol (s). Reactants are in aqueous solution (aq). The ionic equation removes spectator ions (Na+ ions are not included). Compare with iron(II): Fe2+(aq) + 2OH-(aq) → Fe(OH)2(s) — only 2 hydroxide ions needed.

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20.

Write the ionic equation, including state symbols, for the precipitation of barium sulfate when barium chloride is added to a sulfate solution.

1 mark · standard
  • Ba2+(aq) + SO42-(aq) → BaSO4(s) — correct formula, state symbols, and balanced (1m)

Barium ions (Ba2+, 2+ charge) react with sulfate ions (SO42-, 2- charge) in a 1:1 ratio, forming barium sulfate BaSO4. This compound is insoluble in water, so it precipitates as a white solid — state symbol (s). Both reactants are dissolved in aqueous solution — state symbol (aq). Chloride ions (Cl- from BaCl2) are spectator ions and are not included in the ionic equation. This is why we write a net ionic equation: it shows only the ions that actually change.

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Titrations (HT)

22
1.

Describe the full procedure for carrying out a titration to find the concentration of an unknown acid using a standard solution of sodium hydroxide.

6 marks · higher

1. Use a pipette to measure exactly 25.0 cm³ of the sodium hydroxide solution and transfer it into a clean conical flask. 2. Add 2-3 drops of a suitable indicator, such as phenolphthalein, to the conical flask. The solution turns pink. 3. Place the conical flask on a white tile to help see the colour change. 4. Rinse the burette with the unknown acid solution, then fill it with the acid using a funnel. Remove the funnel and record the initial burette reading to the nearest 0.05 cm³. 5. Carry out a rough titration by adding the acid from the burette to the conical flask while swirling. Stop when the indicator permanently changes colour (pink to colourless for phenolphthalein). Record the final burette reading and calculate the rough titre. 6. Repeat the titration accurately: add acid quickly until close to the rough titre value, then add dropwise near the endpoint until one drop causes a permanent colour change. 7. Repeat until at least two concordant results are obtained (within 0.10 cm³ of each other). 8. Calculate the mean titre from the concordant results, excluding the rough and any anomalous values. Use this mean titre in the concentration calculation.

  • Use a pipette to measure a fixed volume (e.g. 25.0 cm³) of the alkali into a conical flask (1m)
  • Add a suitable indicator (e.g. phenolphthalein or methyl orange) to the conical flask (1m)
  • Rinse the burette with the acid, fill it, record the initial reading to the nearest 0.05 cm³ (1m)
  • Carry out a rough titration, adding acid from the burette while swirling the flask, and stop at the permanent colour change (1m)
  • Repeat accurately by adding acid quickly at first then dropwise near the endpoint (1m)
  • Repeat until concordant results (within 0.10 cm³) are obtained. Calculate the mean titre from concordant results only (1m)

This is AQA Required Practical 1 for chemistry. The full method tests your understanding of: the equipment used (pipette for accurate fixed volume, burette for variable volume), the role of the indicator, the technique of adding acid dropwise near the endpoint, and the importance of concordant results for reliability. Key details: always rinse the burette with acid first, use a white tile for visibility, remove the funnel before starting, and record all readings to ±0.05 cm³.

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2.

20.0 cm³ of sulfuric acid (H₂SO₄) was neutralised by exactly 25.0 cm³ of 0.200 mol/dm³ sodium hydroxide (NaOH). Calculate the concentration of the sulfuric acid. The equation is: H₂SO₄(aq) + 2NaOH(aq) → Na₂SO₄(aq) + 2H₂O(l)

4 marks · higher

Step 1: Convert volumes. V(NaOH) = 25.0 ÷ 1000 = 0.0250 dm³. V(H₂SO₄) = 20.0 ÷ 1000 = 0.0200 dm³. Step 2: Calculate moles of NaOH. n = c × V = 0.200 × 0.0250 = 0.00500 mol. Step 3: Use mole ratio. H₂SO₄ : NaOH = 1 : 2, so moles of H₂SO₄ = 0.00500 ÷ 2 = 0.00250 mol. Step 4: Calculate concentration. c = n ÷ V = 0.00250 ÷ 0.0200 = 0.125 mol/dm³

  • Calculates moles of NaOH: n = 0.200 × (25.0 ÷ 1000) = 0.00500 mol (1m)
  • Uses 1:2 mole ratio to halve moles: moles H₂SO₄ = 0.00500 ÷ 2 = 0.00250 mol (1m)
  • Converts H₂SO₄ volume to dm³: 20.0 ÷ 1000 = 0.0200 dm³ (1m)
  • Correct final answer: c = 0.00250 ÷ 0.0200 = 0.125 mol/dm³ (accept 0.13) (1m)

This is a non-1:1 titration. The balanced equation shows 1 mole of H₂SO₄ reacts with 2 moles of NaOH. So after finding moles of NaOH, you must divide by 2 to get moles of H₂SO₄ before calculating the concentration. The most common error is forgetting to apply the mole ratio.

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3.

25.0 cm³ of sodium hydroxide (NaOH) solution was titrated with 0.100 mol/dm³ hydrochloric acid (HCl). The mean titre was 22.50 cm³. Calculate the concentration of the NaOH solution. The equation is: NaOH(aq) + HCl(aq) → NaCl(aq) + H₂O(l)

3 marks · higher

Step 1: Convert volumes to dm³. Volume of HCl = 22.50 ÷ 1000 = 0.02250 dm³. Volume of NaOH = 25.0 ÷ 1000 = 0.0250 dm³. Step 2: Calculate moles of HCl. n = c × V = 0.100 × 0.02250 = 0.00225 mol. Step 3: Use the mole ratio. NaOH : HCl = 1 : 1, so moles of NaOH = 0.00225 mol. Step 4: Calculate concentration of NaOH. c = n ÷ V = 0.00225 ÷ 0.0250 = 0.0900 mol/dm³

  • Calculates moles of HCl: n = 0.100 × (22.50 ÷ 1000) = 0.00225 mol (1m)
  • Uses 1:1 mole ratio to state moles of NaOH = 0.00225 mol (1m)
  • Calculates concentration of NaOH: c = 0.00225 ÷ 0.0250 = 0.0900 mol/dm³ (accept 0.09) (1m)

This is a standard 1:1 titration calculation. First find moles of the known solution (HCl) using n = c × V. Then use the balanced equation to find moles of the unknown (NaOH). Finally calculate the concentration using c = n ÷ V. Remember to convert cm³ to dm³ by dividing by 1000.

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4.

Calculate the volume of 0.100 mol/dm³ hydrochloric acid (HCl) needed to neutralise 30.0 cm³ of 0.0800 mol/dm³ sodium hydroxide (NaOH). The equation is: NaOH(aq) + HCl(aq) → NaCl(aq) + H₂O(l). Give your answer in cm³.

3 marks · higher

Step 1: Convert volume of NaOH. V = 30.0 ÷ 1000 = 0.0300 dm³. Step 2: Calculate moles of NaOH. n = c × V = 0.0800 × 0.0300 = 0.00240 mol. Step 3: Mole ratio NaOH : HCl = 1 : 1, so moles HCl = 0.00240 mol. Step 4: Calculate volume. V = n ÷ c = 0.00240 ÷ 0.100 = 0.0240 dm³ = 24.0 cm³

  • Calculates moles of NaOH: n = 0.0800 × 0.0300 = 0.00240 mol (1m)
  • Uses 1:1 ratio so moles HCl = 0.00240 mol, then V = n ÷ c = 0.00240 ÷ 0.100 = 0.0240 dm³ (1m)
  • Converts to cm³: 0.0240 × 1000 = 24.0 cm³ (1m)

To find an unknown volume: (1) calculate moles of the known solution, (2) use the mole ratio to find moles of the unknown, (3) rearrange c = n/V to V = n/c, (4) convert dm³ back to cm³ if needed. The answer is 24.0 cm³.

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5.

Name two indicators used in titrations and state the colour change each shows when acid is added to alkali.

2 marks · foundation

Phenolphthalein changes from pink in alkali to colourless in acid. Methyl orange changes from yellow in alkali to red (or orange) in acid.

  • Phenolphthalein: pink to colourless (accept pink/purple to colourless/clear) (1m)
  • Methyl orange: yellow to orange/red (accept yellow to orange or yellow to red) (1m)

Titrations require indicators with a sharp, clear colour change at the endpoint. The two most commonly used are phenolphthalein and methyl orange. Phenolphthalein is pink in alkaline conditions and turns colourless when the solution becomes acidic (at neutralisation). Methyl orange is yellow in alkaline/neutral conditions and turns red or orange in acid. Both indicators give a clearly visible single colour change rather than a gradual transition, making it easy to identify the endpoint precisely. Litmus and universal indicator are not suitable for titrations because their colour changes are not sharp enough to pinpoint the endpoint accurately.

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6.

A student carries out four titrations with results: 24.50, 23.95, 24.05, 24.00 cm³. Calculate the mean titre, ignoring any anomalous results.

2 marks · standard

The result 24.50 cm³ is anomalous because it is much higher than the other three values. Excluding this: mean = (23.95 + 24.05 + 24.00) ÷ 3 = 72.00 ÷ 3 = 24.00 cm³

  • Identifies 24.50 cm³ as the anomalous result and excludes it from the calculation (1m)
  • Correct mean calculation: (23.95 + 24.05 + 24.00) ÷ 3 = 24.00 cm³ (1m)

The first result (24.50 cm³) is anomalous as it is 0.45 cm³ higher than the next highest value (24.05 cm³). The remaining three concordant results are within 0.10 cm³ of each other. Mean = (23.95 + 24.05 + 24.00) ÷ 3 = 72.00 ÷ 3 = 24.00 cm³.

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7.

Explain why the burette should be rinsed with the acid solution before filling it for a titration.

2 marks · standard

The burette should be rinsed with the acid solution to remove any residual water left inside from washing. If water remained, it would dilute the acid solution and reduce its concentration, making the titre volume inaccurate and giving an unreliable result.

  • Rinsing removes residual water (or any previous solution) from the burette (1m)
  • Water would dilute the acid, changing its concentration / making the results inaccurate (1m)

Before a titration, glassware is washed with distilled water. If the burette is then filled with acid without first rinsing it with acid, small amounts of water remain inside and mix with the acid solution. This dilutes the acid, reducing its concentration below the stated value. Because calculations of the unknown concentration assume the acid has its stated concentration, any dilution causes an error in the final answer. Rinsing with the acid itself removes the water and ensures the concentration inside the burette is exactly as expected. The conical flask does not need rinsing with alkali for the same reason — see the related question.

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8.

How does a student know when to stop adding acid from the burette during a titration?

2 marks · standard

The student knows to stop adding acid when the indicator undergoes a permanent colour change. For example, if using phenolphthalein, the solution changes from pink to colourless. The endpoint is reached when a single drop of acid causes the colour change that does not reverse on swirling.

  • The indicator changes colour (accept specific example such as pink to colourless for phenolphthalein or yellow to orange for methyl orange) (1m)
  • The colour change is permanent / does not reverse on swirling / occurs with a single drop of acid (1m)

The endpoint of a titration is signalled by a permanent colour change of the indicator. Near the endpoint, the student should add acid drop by drop rather than freely running it from the burette. The key sign that the endpoint has been reached is that a single drop of acid causes the indicator to change colour, and after swirling the flask, this colour change does not revert. If the colour disappears on swirling, it means there is still alkali present and acid should continue to be added. Using phenolphthalein: pink (alkali) to colourless (neutral/acidic). Using methyl orange: yellow (alkali) to orange or red (acidic). Stopping too early or too late gives an inaccurate titre.

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9.

Explain why titrations are repeated several times.

2 marks · standard

Titrations are repeated to obtain concordant results, which are titre values within 0.10 cm³ of each other. Concordant results show that the titration has been carried out accurately and allows the calculation of a reliable mean titre. Repeating also helps identify and exclude any anomalous results.

  • To obtain concordant results (values within 0.10 cm³ of each other) / to identify anomalous results (1m)
  • Concordant results allow calculation of a reliable/accurate mean titre (1m)

A single titration could contain errors — for example, the student may have slightly overshot the endpoint or misread the burette. Repeating the titration multiple times reduces the impact of random errors. Two or more results are concordant if they agree within 0.10 cm³. Concordant results give confidence that the titration was performed consistently and accurately. Any results outside this range are considered anomalous and are excluded. The mean titre is then calculated using only the concordant values. This mean is more reliable than any single measurement because random errors average out.

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10.

Explain how to correctly read the volume on a burette.

2 marks · standard

The burette should be read at eye level to avoid parallax error. The reading should be taken from the bottom of the meniscus, which is the curved surface of the liquid. Values should be recorded to the nearest 0.05 cm³.

  • Read at eye level to avoid parallax error (1m)
  • Read from the bottom of the meniscus (the curved liquid surface) (1m)

Burettes are precision instruments graduated to 0.1 cm³ and read to 0.05 cm³. Two technique points are essential for accurate reading. First, eye level: if you look at the burette from above or below, the line of sight crosses the scale at an angle, causing a parallax error — the liquid appears to be at a different level than it actually is. Eyes must be level with the liquid surface. Second, the meniscus: aqueous solutions form a curved surface (concave meniscus). The correct reading is taken from the lowest point (bottom) of this curve. Both errors together can easily introduce a 0.5 cm³ inaccuracy, which is significant in titration calculations.

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11.

Explain why the conical flask does not need to be rinsed with the alkali solution before use, unlike the burette which must be rinsed with the acid.

2 marks · standard

The conical flask is measured using a pipette which delivers a fixed, accurate volume of alkali. Any distilled water left in the flask from rinsing will not change the number of moles of alkali present. The moles of alkali depend only on the volume measured by the pipette, not on what is already in the flask. The extra water only dilutes the solution but does not affect the number of moles reacting.

  • The number of moles of alkali is determined by the pipette volume, which is fixed (1m)
  • Water in the flask dilutes the solution but does not change the moles of alkali, so the result is not affected (1m)

This is a conceptual question about what determines the amount of alkali that reacts. The key is that moles = concentration × volume. A volumetric pipette delivers a very precise, fixed volume of alkali regardless of what is already in the flask. The number of moles of alkali in the flask is therefore already determined before any acid is added. If there is distilled water in the flask, it simply dilutes the alkali, making it less concentrated — but concentration × volume still gives the same moles, because the volume increase is compensated by the lower concentration. The burette, by contrast, is the measuring device for the acid — if the acid is diluted by residual water in the burette, its concentration changes and the titre volume needed to neutralise the fixed moles of alkali would change, introducing an error.

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12.

Explain why a rough (trial) titration is carried out before the accurate titrations.

2 marks · standard

The rough titration gives an approximate volume for the endpoint so the student knows roughly how much acid is needed. In the accurate titrations, the acid can be added quickly until close to the rough titre, then added dropwise near the endpoint to get a more precise result.

  • The rough titration gives an approximate/estimated endpoint volume (1m)
  • This allows the student to add acid quickly at first, then dropwise/slowly near the endpoint in accurate titrations for a more precise result (1m)

The first (rough) titration is run freely — acid is added quickly from the burette without worrying too much about the exact endpoint. Its result is intentionally imprecise and is not used in the final calculation. Its purpose is to identify approximately where the endpoint will be (e.g., around 22 cm³). In subsequent accurate titrations, the student can run acid in rapidly up to about 1-2 cm³ before the rough titre, then switch to adding drops one at a time. This dropwise addition near the endpoint allows the student to stop precisely when a single drop causes the permanent colour change, giving a much more accurate titre reading. The rough titration result is always excluded from the mean calculation.

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13.

What is the purpose of a titration?

  • A. To find the unknown concentration of a solution
  • B. To measure the temperature change of a reaction
  • C. To separate a mixture into its components
  • D. To identify the gas produced in a reaction
1 mark · foundation

A titration is used to find the unknown concentration of a solution by adding a solution of known concentration from a burette until the reaction is just complete. The endpoint is shown by an indicator colour change.

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14.

What is the resolution (smallest measurable increment) of a standard burette used in titrations?

  • A. 0.5 cm³
  • B. 1.0 cm³
  • C. 0.10 cm³
  • D. 0.05 cm³
1 mark · foundation

A standard burette has scale divisions every 0.10 cm³, and readings can be estimated to the nearest 0.05 cm³. This gives a resolution of ±0.05 cm³, which is important for achieving accurate and precise results.

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15.

When phenolphthalein indicator is used in a titration of alkali with acid, what colour change is seen at the endpoint?

  • A. Colourless to pink
  • B. Pink to colourless
  • C. Yellow to red
  • D. Blue to red
1 mark · foundation

Phenolphthalein is pink in alkali and colourless in acid. When acid is added from the burette to alkali in the conical flask, the solution changes from pink to colourless at the endpoint when the alkali has been neutralised.

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16.

Explain why the conical flask is swirled during a titration.

1 mark · foundation

The conical flask is swirled to ensure that the acid added from the burette is thoroughly mixed with the alkali, so that the reaction occurs evenly throughout the solution and the endpoint can be identified accurately.

  • To mix/ensure thorough mixing of the acid and alkali solutions so the reaction occurs evenly (1m)

When acid drops from the burette into the alkali in the conical flask, it initially localises in the region where it falls. If the flask is not swirled, the indicator in that spot may change colour prematurely without the overall solution reaching the neutralisation point. Swirling ensures the acid disperses evenly throughout the alkali so the reaction happens uniformly across the entire solution. This gives a reliable endpoint: the permanent colour change seen after swirling indicates that all the alkali has been neutralised, not just the portion nearest to where the drops fell.

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17.

Why is a white tile placed under the conical flask during a titration?

1 mark · foundation

A white tile is placed under the conical flask to make it easier to see the colour change of the indicator at the endpoint. The white background provides contrast so even a slight colour change can be detected.

  • To make the colour change of the indicator easier to see / to identify the endpoint more easily (1m)

The indicator colour change at the endpoint is the most important visual signal in a titration. The white tile is placed under the conical flask to provide a plain, bright background that makes even a subtle change in colour easy to detect. Without a white background, small colour changes may be difficult to see, especially if the indicator change is from one pale colour to another (such as yellow to very pale orange in methyl orange). This simple step helps ensure the endpoint is identified accurately.

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18.

A student obtains titration results of 24.50, 24.10, 24.05, and 24.00 cm³. Which results are concordant?

  • A. All four results
  • B. 24.50, 24.10, and 24.05 cm³
  • C. 24.10, 24.05, and 24.00 cm³
  • D. 24.50 and 24.10 cm³ only
1 mark · standard

Concordant results are titre values that are within 0.10 cm³ of each other. 24.10, 24.05, and 24.00 cm³ all fall within a 0.10 cm³ range. The result of 24.50 cm³ is anomalous because it is 0.40 cm³ higher than the others.

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19.

Which formula correctly calculates the number of moles from concentration and volume?

  • A. moles = concentration ÷ volume
  • B. moles = concentration × volume
  • C. moles = volume ÷ concentration
  • D. moles = concentration + volume
1 mark · standard

The formula is n = c × V, where n is moles (mol), c is concentration (mol/dm³), and V is volume (in dm³). This can be rearranged to c = n ÷ V or V = n ÷ c. Remember that volume must be in dm³, not cm³.

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20.

Why is a pipette used to measure the alkali in a titration rather than a measuring cylinder?

  • A. A pipette can measure any volume
  • B. A pipette is cheaper than a measuring cylinder
  • C. A measuring cylinder cannot hold alkali solutions
  • D. A pipette measures a fixed volume more accurately than a measuring cylinder
1 mark · standard

A pipette delivers a precise, fixed volume (usually 25.0 cm³) with much greater accuracy than a measuring cylinder. This accuracy is essential in titrations because the volume of alkali used directly affects the final calculation of the unknown concentration.

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21.

A student uses methyl orange indicator in a titration. They add acid from a burette to alkali in a conical flask. What colour change indicates the endpoint?

  • A. Red to yellow
  • B. Pink to colourless
  • C. Yellow to orange/red
  • D. Green to blue
1 mark · standard

Methyl orange is yellow in alkali and red in acid. When acid is added to the alkali, the endpoint is seen as a colour change from yellow to orange (or red). The first permanent orange/red colour indicates the alkali has just been neutralised.

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22.

Explain why the funnel should be removed from the top of the burette before starting the titration.

1 mark · standard

The funnel should be removed because solution could drip from the funnel into the burette during the titration, adding extra solution that is not accounted for in the burette reading, making the titre volume inaccurate.

  • Solution may drip from the funnel into the burette, making the burette reading inaccurate / giving a larger than expected titre (1m)

The funnel is used only to pour acid into the burette at the start. Once filling is complete, it must be removed. If left in place, small residual drops of acid in the funnel can drip down into the burette during the titration. These extra drops are not shown in the initial burette reading, so they are not accounted for when calculating the titre. The true volume of acid that reacted would be smaller than the measured volume difference, making the titre erroneously large. Removing the funnel eliminates this source of systematic error.

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Chromatography

23
1.

A forensic scientist has a sample of an unknown powder. She needs to determine whether it is a pure substance or a mixture, and then identify the substance(s) present. She has access to a set of known reference compounds with published Rf values. Describe the full procedure she should follow, explain how she would interpret her results, and evaluate the limitations of her conclusions. [6 marks]

6 marks · challenge

Dissolve the unknown powder in a suitable solvent to produce a solution. Draw a pencil baseline on chromatography paper (pencil is insoluble in the solvent). Spot the unknown solution and all known reference compounds on the baseline. Lower the paper into the solvent, ensuring the baseline is above the solvent level. Allow the solvent to rise up the paper, then mark the solvent front. Calculate Rf = distance moved by spot / distance moved by solvent front for every spot, including the unknown. If the unknown produces a single spot, it is likely a pure substance. If it produces two or more spots, it is a mixture. Compare the Rf values of the unknown spots to those of the reference compounds (run under the same conditions). A matching Rf value suggests the unknown contains that reference compound. Limitation: two different substances can have the same Rf value, so a matching Rf does not provide conclusive proof of identity. The scientist should use an additional technique such as mass spectrometry to confirm her findings.

  • Dissolve the unknown powder in a suitable solvent to create a solution for spotting (1m)
  • Draw a pencil baseline on chromatography paper; spot the unknown alongside known reference compounds on the same baseline, under the same conditions / same solvent (1m)
  • Allow the solvent to rise; mark the solvent front; calculate Rf = distance moved by spot / distance moved by solvent front for each spot (1m)
  • If the unknown produces one spot it is likely a pure substance; two or more spots indicates a mixture (1m)
  • Compare Rf values of unknown spots to those of reference compounds — matching Rf values identify the substance(s) (1m)
  • Limitation: two different substances can have the same Rf value, so results are not conclusive — additional analytical methods (e.g. mass spectrometry) should be used to confirm identity (1m)

This 6-mark question requires a full procedure, interpretation, and evaluation. Full marks require: (1) dissolving the sample and setting up the chromatogram correctly with reference compounds alongside; (2) running the experiment and calculating Rf values; (3) using number of spots to determine purity; (4) comparing Rf values to references for identification; (5) recognising that the same Rf does not guarantee identity; (6) suggesting a confirmatory technique such as mass spectrometry.

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2.

A food manufacturer suspects that a batch of orange food colouring contains an unauthorised dye. Plan a method using paper chromatography to identify the dyes present in the sample. Include how you would compare the results with known reference dyes. [6 marks]

6 marks · challenge

Draw a pencil baseline near the bottom of a piece of chromatography paper — pencil is used because ink would dissolve in the solvent and interfere with the results. Spot the orange food colouring sample on the baseline, and also spot each known reference dye alongside it on the same baseline. Place the chromatography paper in a beaker of suitable solvent, making sure the solvent level is below the baseline so the spots do not dissolve directly into it. Allow the solvent to travel up the paper, then remove the paper and immediately mark the solvent front in pencil before it evaporates. For each spot, calculate Rf = distance moved by spot / distance moved by solvent front. Compare the Rf values of the spots from the food colouring sample with the Rf values of the known reference dyes. Any spot in the food colouring that shares an Rf value with a reference dye is likely that dye. Any spot with an Rf value that does not match any authorised reference dye may indicate the presence of an unauthorised substance.

  • Draw a pencil baseline on chromatography paper (pencil is insoluble in solvent so will not interfere with results) (1m)
  • Spot the food colouring sample and known reference dyes on the same baseline (1m)
  • Place paper in solvent with solvent level below the baseline so the spots do not dissolve directly into the solvent (1m)
  • Allow solvent to travel up the paper; remove paper and mark the solvent front (1m)
  • Calculate Rf = distance moved by spot / distance moved by solvent front for each spot (1m)
  • Compare Rf values of sample spots to Rf values of reference dyes — matching Rf values indicate which dye is present; unmatched spots may indicate an unauthorised dye (1m)

This is a 6-mark Level of Response question modelled on AQA November 2021 Paper 2 Higher Q3.1. Full marks require a logical, stepwise method covering: (1) pencil baseline — pencil is used because ink is soluble in the solvent and would run up the paper; (2) spotting both the sample and reference dyes on the same baseline so they experience identical conditions; (3) solvent level below the baseline to prevent spots dissolving directly; (4) marking the solvent front once the run is complete; (5) calculating Rf = distance spot moved / distance solvent front moved for every spot; (6) comparing sample Rf values to reference Rf values and concluding that any unmatched spot may be an unauthorised dye. A common error is forgetting to spot reference dyes or omitting the Rf formula entirely.

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3.

A student carries out paper chromatography on ink sample X. Spot A travels 4.8 cm and the solvent front travels 10.0 cm. When the experiment is repeated using a different solvent, spot A travels 7.2 cm and the solvent front travels 12.0 cm. Calculate both Rf values. Explain why the Rf values are different when a different solvent is used. [5 marks]

5 marks · challenge

Rf in solvent 1 = 4.8 / 10.0 = 0.48. Rf in solvent 2 = 7.2 / 12.0 = 0.60. The Rf value depends on the relative attraction of the dye molecules to the mobile phase (solvent) compared to the stationary phase (paper). When a different solvent is used, the attraction between the dye and that solvent changes. In solvent 2, the dye has a stronger attraction to the mobile phase than in solvent 1, so it spends more time in the mobile phase and travels a greater fraction of the solvent front distance — giving a higher Rf value.

  • Rf₁ = 4.8 / 10.0 = 0.48 (1m)
  • Rf₂ = 7.2 / 12.0 = 0.60 (1m)
  • Rf depends on relative attraction to mobile phase (solvent) compared to stationary phase (paper) (1m)
  • Different solvent has different attraction to dye molecules (1m)
  • Stronger attraction to mobile phase causes dye to travel further relative to solvent front, giving a higher Rf value (1m)

This question combines a two-step Rf calculation with a mechanistic explanation — a common AQA Higher pattern worth 5 marks (JUN23 P2H Q6 style). Rf₁ = 4.8/10.0 = 0.48 and Rf₂ = 7.2/12.0 = 0.60. The key concept is that Rf reflects how a substance distributes itself between the mobile phase (solvent) and the stationary phase (paper). Because different solvents have different polarities and intermolecular forces, they interact differently with the dye molecules. In the second solvent the dye has a greater attraction to the mobile phase, so it spends proportionally more time being carried along and therefore travels a greater fraction of the solvent front distance — a higher Rf. A common error is stating that Rf changes because the solvent moves faster or farther without explaining the underlying attraction between dye and solvent.

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4.

Evaluate the advantages and disadvantages of using gas chromatography-mass spectrometry (GC-MS) compared to paper chromatography for identifying substances in a mixture. Consider sensitivity, speed, the type of information provided, and cost. [5 marks]

5 marks · challenge

GC-MS is far more sensitive than paper chromatography — it can detect and identify substances present in very small quantities that would not produce a visible spot on paper. Unlike paper chromatography, which can only identify a substance by comparing its Rf value to known reference standards, GC-MS provides molecular mass information from the mass spectrometer and produces a fragmentation pattern that is compared to a database. This means GC-MS can identify completely unknown substances without needing a reference sample. GC-MS is also faster and more accurate for complex mixtures containing many components. However, the main disadvantage of GC-MS is that the equipment is very expensive and requires trained scientists to operate, whereas paper chromatography uses simple, cheap materials and requires no specialist training. For routine screening where reference dyes are known, paper chromatography is often sufficient.

  • GC-MS is more sensitive — can detect substances present in very small (trace) quantities (1m)
  • GC-MS can identify unknown substances from molecular mass / fragmentation pattern compared to database — does not need reference standards (1m)
  • Paper chromatography can only identify substances by comparing Rf values to known reference substances (1m)
  • GC-MS is faster and more accurate for complex mixtures with many components (1m)
  • Disadvantage of GC-MS: equipment is very expensive and requires trained operators / paper chromatography is cheap and simple (1m)

This evaluation question is modelled on AQA June 2024 Paper 2 Higher Q4.6, which asked students to evaluate the advantages of GC-MS for identifying substances in a yellow dye mixture. The key advantage of GC-MS is its sensitivity — it detects trace quantities invisible to paper chromatography. Crucially, GC-MS can identify completely unknown substances because the mass spectrometer produces a molecular mass and fragmentation pattern that is matched against a spectral database, removing the need for reference standards. Paper chromatography, by contrast, can only identify substances when reference samples are run alongside under identical conditions. GC-MS is also faster and more precise for complex mixtures. The key trade-off is cost and expertise: GC-MS instruments are very expensive and require trained scientists, making paper chromatography the practical choice for routine, low-cost screening.

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5.

Explain why two different substances produce spots at different positions on a chromatogram, and how Rf values are used to identify substances.

4 marks · higher

Different substances have different solubilities in the mobile phase (solvent) and different attractions to the stationary phase (paper). A substance with greater solubility in the solvent is carried further up the paper, giving a larger Rf value. A substance more strongly attracted to the paper moves less far, giving a smaller Rf value. The Rf value is calculated as: Rf = distance moved by substance / distance moved by solvent front. Each substance has a unique Rf value under the same conditions. To identify an unknown substance, its Rf value is compared to the Rf values of known reference substances run on the same chromatogram. A matching Rf value indicates the unknown is likely to be that substance.

  • Different substances have different solubilities in the mobile phase / different attractions to the stationary phase (1m)
  • More soluble substances travel further / higher Rf; less soluble (or more attracted to paper) travel less far / lower Rf (1m)
  • Rf = distance moved by substance / distance moved by solvent front (1m)
  • Compare Rf of unknown to Rf of known reference substances run under the same conditions to identify it (1m)

Separation in chromatography depends on each substance's unique balance of attractions: how soluble it is in the mobile phase (solvent) versus how strongly it bonds to the stationary phase (paper). Greater solubility in the solvent means travelling further (higher Rf). The Rf value formula quantifies this and allows identification by comparison to known standards.

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6.

Explain how paper chromatography can be used to detect illegal food colourings in a food sample. Include how you would obtain results and how you would interpret them.

4 marks · higher

Dissolve a sample of the food in a suitable solvent to extract the dye. Place a spot of the food extract and spots of known legal food colourings on a pencil baseline on chromatography paper. Lower the paper into a solvent with the baseline above the solvent level. Allow the solvent to travel up the paper and mark the solvent front. Calculate the Rf value for each spot (Rf = distance moved by spot / distance moved by solvent front). Compare the Rf values of the unknown food sample spots to those of the known legal colourings. If a spot in the food sample has an Rf value that does not match any legal colouring, it may be an illegal additive.

  • Run food sample and known legal reference dyes on the same chromatogram under the same conditions (1m)
  • Calculate Rf value for each spot (Rf = distance of spot / distance of solvent front) (1m)
  • Compare Rf values of food sample spots to those of the legal reference dyes (1m)
  • A spot with an Rf value not matching any legal colouring suggests an illegal additive / unexpected dye is present (1m)

Chromatography is a key analytical tool for detecting illegal food additives. By running the unknown food sample alongside known legal reference dyes under the same conditions, and comparing Rf values, any dye producing a spot with a non-matching Rf value is identified as a potential illegal additive. This technique is used widely in food safety testing.

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7.

A reference compound has an Rf value of 0.60. The solvent front in this experiment travels 12.5 cm. Calculate the distance this compound would travel from the baseline. Give your answer in cm.

3 marks · standard
  • Rearranges formula correctly: distance = Rf x distance of solvent front (1m)
  • Correct substitution: distance = 0.60 x 12.5 (1m)
  • Correct answer: 7.5 cm (1m)

Rearranging the Rf formula: distance moved by substance = Rf x distance moved by solvent front = 0.60 x 12.5 = 7.5 cm. This tests whether students can apply the formula in reverse, which is a common exam question style.

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8.

Explain how a chromatogram can be used to determine whether a substance is pure or a mixture.

3 marks · standard

A pure substance produces only one spot on the chromatogram, because it contains only one component. A mixture produces two or more spots, because its different components separate as they travel different distances through the stationary phase due to having different Rf values. If only one spot is present, the substance is pure.

  • A pure substance produces one spot on the chromatogram (1m)
  • A mixture produces two or more spots (because it contains more than one component) (1m)
  • Different components travel different distances because they have different Rf values / different attractions to the mobile and stationary phases (1m)

The number of spots on a chromatogram directly indicates the number of components in a sample. A pure substance has exactly one component and so produces one spot. A mixture contains multiple components; as they travel through the stationary phase with the mobile phase, they separate because each component has a unique Rf value (unique affinity for the mobile and stationary phases). This produces multiple spots at different positions.

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9.

Describe how you would use Rf values to identify an unknown substance using paper chromatography.

3 marks · standard

Run the unknown substance and a series of known reference substances on the same chromatogram using the same solvent. Measure the distance each spot travels from the baseline and the distance the solvent front travels. Calculate the Rf value for the unknown (Rf = distance moved by substance / distance moved by solvent front). Compare the Rf value of the unknown to the Rf values of the known reference substances. If the Rf values match, the unknown is likely to be that reference substance.

  • Calculate Rf = distance moved by substance / distance moved by solvent front (1m)
  • Run known reference substances alongside the unknown under the same conditions (1m)
  • Compare Rf values: if they match, the unknown is likely that substance (1m)

Rf values allow substances to be identified because each substance has a unique Rf value under the same conditions. By running an unknown alongside known reference substances, calculating their Rf values, and comparing, you can identify the unknown.

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10.

Describe the steps to set up a paper chromatography experiment correctly, including safety and accuracy points.

3 marks · standard

Draw a pencil baseline near the bottom of the chromatography paper, not touching the solvent. Place small spots of the substances to be tested on the baseline. Lower the paper into the solvent, ensuring the baseline is above the solvent level. Allow the solvent to travel up the paper until it reaches near the top. Mark the solvent front in pencil immediately when the experiment is stopped. Pencil is used for the baseline and solvent front because it is insoluble in the solvent and will not travel or interfere with the results.

  • Draw the baseline in pencil (not pen) near the bottom of the paper (1m)
  • Ensure the baseline is above the level of the solvent / spots must not touch the solvent (1m)
  • Pencil is used because it is insoluble in the solvent and does not interfere with results (1m)

Correct setup of paper chromatography requires: (1) pencil baseline (insoluble in solvent); (2) baseline above solvent level (so substances travel up rather than dissolving directly into the solvent); (3) spots placed on the baseline and allowed to dry before the paper enters the solvent.

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11.

Evaluate the limitations of using Rf values to identify unknown substances.

3 marks · higher

Rf values are only reliable for identification if the same solvent and conditions (temperature, paper type) are used. Different solvents will produce different Rf values for the same substance, so Rf values from different experiments cannot be directly compared. Additionally, two different substances may have the same Rf value under the same conditions, meaning a matching Rf does not conclusively identify a substance. For confident identification, other analytical methods such as mass spectrometry should be used alongside chromatography.

  • Rf values are only reliable if the same solvent and conditions are used / Rf changes with different solvents (1m)
  • Two different substances can have the same Rf value under the same conditions (1m)
  • Therefore a matching Rf does not conclusively identify a substance / other techniques should be used alongside (1m)

Two key limitations of Rf identification: (1) Rf values change with solvent/conditions, so cross-experiment comparison is invalid; (2) two substances can share an Rf value, so a match is not definitive proof. Confident identification requires additional techniques such as mass spectrometry.

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12.

State what is meant by the terms 'mobile phase' and 'stationary phase' in paper chromatography.

2 marks · foundation

The mobile phase is the solvent that moves up the paper, carrying dissolved substances with it. The stationary phase is the chromatography paper, which stays fixed and does not move.

  • Mobile phase: the solvent (liquid) that moves through/up the paper (1m)
  • Stationary phase: the paper that remains fixed/does not move (1m)

In paper chromatography, the mobile phase (the solvent) moves up through the paper by capillary action, carrying dissolved substances with it. The stationary phase (the paper) remains fixed and does not move. Separation occurs because different substances have different affinities for these two phases.

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13.

State the formula for calculating an Rf value and give the units.

2 marks · foundation

Rf = distance moved by the substance / distance moved by the solvent front. Rf values have no units because it is a ratio of two distances.

  • Rf = distance moved by substance / distance moved by solvent front (or equivalent correct formula) (1m)
  • Rf has no units (because it is a ratio) (1m)

The Rf formula is: Rf = distance moved by substance / distance moved by solvent front. Because both measurements are distances (usually in cm), dividing them gives a pure ratio with no units. Rf values are always between 0 and 1.

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14.

In a chromatography experiment, a spot travels 6.0 cm from the baseline. The solvent front travels 8.0 cm. Calculate the Rf value of the substance. Give your answer to 2 decimal places.

2 marks · standard
  • Correct substitution: Rf = 6.0 / 8.0 (1m)
  • Correct answer: Rf = 0.75 (no units) (1m)

Rf = distance moved by substance / distance moved by solvent front = 6.0 / 8.0 = 0.75. Rf values have no units because they are a ratio of two distances. The value 0.75 means the substance travelled 75% of the distance the solvent travelled.

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15.

Two compounds A and B are run alongside an unknown substance X. Compound A travels 3.2 cm and the solvent front travels 8.0 cm. Compound B travels 6.4 cm. The unknown X travels 6.4 cm. Which compound is X most likely to be, and what is its Rf value?

2 marks · higher
  • Identifies X as compound B (same distance travelled / same Rf value) (1m)
  • Calculates Rf = 6.4 / 8.0 = 0.80 (1m)

Rf of X = 6.4 / 8.0 = 0.80. Compound B also travels 6.4 cm, so its Rf = 6.4 / 8.0 = 0.80. Since X and B travel the same distance under the same conditions, they have the same Rf value and X is most likely compound B. Compound A has Rf = 3.2 / 8.0 = 0.40, which is different.

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16.

What is the purpose of chromatography?

  • A. To separate the components of a mixture
  • B. To measure the mass of a substance
  • C. To change a substance from a solid to a liquid
  • D. To make a substance more concentrated
1 mark · foundation

Chromatography is a separation technique used to separate and identify the components of a mixture. It works because different components travel different distances through the stationary phase depending on how strongly they interact with it.

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17.

Why is the baseline drawn in pencil rather than pen when setting up a paper chromatography experiment?

  • A. Pencil marks are easier to see under UV light
  • B. Pen ink would dissolve in the solvent and travel up the paper, creating extra spots
  • C. Pen ink is soluble in the solvent and would interfere with the results
  • D. Pencil is less expensive than pen
1 mark · foundation

The baseline must be drawn in pencil because pencil (graphite) is insoluble in the solvent used. Ink from a pen is soluble and would dissolve and travel up the paper with the solvent, creating additional spots that would interfere with the results and make identification of substances impossible.

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18.

In paper chromatography, which of the following correctly describes the stationary phase?

  • A. The solvent that moves up the paper
  • B. The chromatography paper
  • C. The substance being tested
  • D. The pencil baseline
1 mark · foundation

In paper chromatography, the stationary phase is the chromatography paper, which does not move. The mobile phase is the solvent, which moves up through the paper by capillary action, carrying the dissolved substances with it at different rates.

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19.

How can you tell from a chromatogram that a substance is pure?

  • A. It produces only one spot on the chromatogram
  • B. Its spot is at the bottom of the paper
  • C. It travels the same distance as the solvent front
  • D. Its spot is the largest on the chromatogram
1 mark · foundation

A pure substance contains only one component, so it produces exactly one spot on a chromatogram. A mixture would produce two or more spots because its different components separate as they travel different distances through the stationary phase. The position of the spot is irrelevant to purity — only the number of spots matters.

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20.

A chromatogram shows three separate spots for a sample. What does this tell you about the sample?

  • A. The sample is a pure substance with one component
  • B. The sample is a mixture of two substances
  • C. The sample is a mixture of three substances
  • D. The sample contains at least three different substances
1 mark · standard

Each spot on a chromatogram represents a different substance. Three spots indicate the sample contains at least three different substances. We say 'at least' because two substances with very similar Rf values might travel to the same position and appear as one spot — meaning there could be more substances present than spots visible.

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21.

A substance travels 4.5 cm from the baseline. The solvent front travels 9.0 cm. What is the Rf value of the substance?

  • A. 0.25
  • B. 2.00
  • C. 0.50
  • D. 4.50
1 mark · standard

Rf = distance moved by substance / distance moved by solvent front = 4.5 / 9.0 = 0.50. Rf values are always between 0 and 1 because a substance can never travel further than the solvent front. An Rf of 0.50 means the substance moved exactly halfway up the paper relative to the solvent.

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22.

Why do different substances travel different distances in paper chromatography?

  • A. Because they have different densities
  • B. Because they have different attractions to the mobile and stationary phases
  • C. Because they have different boiling points
  • D. Because heavier molecules sink to the bottom
1 mark · standard

Different substances travel different distances because they have different solubilities in the mobile phase (solvent) and different attractions to the stationary phase (paper). A substance that is more soluble in the solvent (stronger attraction to the mobile phase) will travel further. A substance with stronger attraction to the paper (stationary phase) will travel less far. This difference in affinity is the principle behind all forms of chromatography.

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23.

A student is trying to identify food colourings in a sweet. She runs chromatography and finds a spot with Rf = 0.62. She compares this to reference standards: Red 40 has Rf = 0.45, Yellow 5 has Rf = 0.62, Blue 1 has Rf = 0.78. Which dye is present?

  • A. Red 40
  • B. A mixture of Red 40 and Yellow 5
  • C. Blue 1
  • D. Yellow 5
1 mark · standard

The unknown substance has Rf = 0.62, which matches exactly with Yellow 5 (Rf = 0.62). To identify an unknown substance using chromatography, you compare its Rf value to the Rf values of known reference standards run under identical conditions. A match in Rf value strongly suggests the substances are the same. Red 40 (0.45) and Blue 1 (0.78) have different Rf values.

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Reversible Reactions

20
1.

Evaluate the conditions used in the Haber process (N₂(g) + 3H₂(g) ⇌ 2NH₃(g), forward reaction exothermic) to explain how chemists balance the competing demands of reaction rate and equilibrium yield. In your answer, discuss the effects of temperature, pressure, and catalysts.

6 marks · challenge

The Haber process requires balancing reaction rate against equilibrium yield. Temperature: the forward reaction is exothermic, so by Le Chatelier's principle a lower temperature shifts equilibrium to the right, favouring ammonia production and giving a higher yield. However, lower temperatures reduce the rate of reaction, making the process too slow to be commercially viable. The compromise temperature of 450°C gives an acceptable yield at an acceptable rate. Pressure: the left side has 4 moles of gas (1 mol N₂ + 3 mol H₂) and the right has 2 moles (2 mol NH₃). Higher pressure shifts equilibrium to the right (fewer gas moles), increasing yield. However, very high pressures require stronger, more expensive equipment and create greater safety hazards. The compromise of 200 atm gives a significantly improved yield without excessive cost or risk. Catalyst: an iron catalyst is used. It increases the rate of both forward and reverse reactions equally, allowing equilibrium to be reached much more quickly. Importantly, it does not change the position of equilibrium or increase yield. Its value is economic: it allows the reaction to proceed at a useful rate at the moderate temperature of 450°C.

  • Temperature: lower temperature favours ammonia yield (exothermic forward shifts equilibrium right at lower temperature) (1m)
  • Temperature: but lower temperature reduces rate too much to be economic - 450°C is a compromise between rate and yield (1m)
  • Pressure: higher pressure shifts equilibrium to the right (fewer gas moles on right side, 2 vs 4), increasing yield (1m)
  • Pressure: but very high pressure is expensive/dangerous - 200 atm is a compromise between yield and cost/safety (1m)
  • Catalyst (iron): speeds up both forward and reverse reactions equally, equilibrium reached faster (1m)
  • Catalyst: does not change the position of equilibrium or yield - its purpose is to increase rate at the moderate temperature used (1m)

The Haber process involves three key compromises. Temperature: the forward reaction is exothermic, so lower temperature shifts equilibrium right (more ammonia), but rate becomes too slow — 450°C balances rate and yield. Pressure: more gas moles on the left (4 mol) than right (2 mol), so higher pressure shifts equilibrium right, increasing ammonia yield, but very high pressures are expensive and hazardous — 200 atm is the economic compromise. Catalyst: the iron catalyst speeds up both forward and reverse reactions equally, reaching equilibrium faster without changing the equilibrium position or yield. A strong answer addresses the trade-off for each variable rather than just stating the direction of shift.

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2.

The Haber process uses the reaction N₂(g) + 3H₂(g) ⇌ 2NH₃(g), where the forward reaction is exothermic. The industrial conditions are 450°C and 200 atmospheres pressure. Explain why these conditions are described as a 'compromise'.

4 marks · higher

The forward reaction is exothermic, so a lower temperature would shift equilibrium to the right, giving a higher yield of ammonia. However, at low temperatures the rate of reaction is too slow to be economical. A temperature of 450°C is a compromise: it gives a reasonable yield in a reasonable time. Higher pressure shifts equilibrium to the right (fewer moles of gas on the right), increasing yield. However, very high pressures are expensive to maintain and create safety risks. 200 atmospheres is a compromise between yield and cost. A catalyst (iron) is also used to increase the rate of reaction without affecting the equilibrium position.

  • Lower temperature would give higher yield (equilibrium favours exothermic forward reaction) but the reaction would be too slow (1m)
  • 450°C is chosen as a compromise between acceptable rate and acceptable yield (1m)
  • Higher pressure favours the side with fewer moles of gas (right side), increasing yield of NH₃, but very high pressures are expensive and dangerous (1m)
  • 200 atm is a compromise between maximising yield and minimising cost/safety risk. (A catalyst is also used to increase rate without affecting equilibrium position - accept as additional mark point) (1m)

The conditions are a compromise because: (1) Temperature — a lower temperature would give a higher yield of ammonia (forward reaction is exothermic, Le Chatelier shifts equilibrium right at lower temperature), but the rate would be too slow. 450°C balances acceptable yield with acceptable rate. (2) Pressure — higher pressure favours the side with fewer gas moles (right: 2 moles vs left: 4 moles), increasing yield, but very high pressure requires expensive equipment and creates safety risks. 200 atm is the economic compromise. An iron catalyst is also used to reach equilibrium faster without changing the equilibrium position.

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3.

Explain what is meant by a dynamic equilibrium in a reversible reaction.

3 marks · standard

Dynamic equilibrium occurs in a closed system when both the forward and reverse reactions are taking place at the same rate. Because the rates are equal, the concentrations of reactants and products remain constant over time. The word 'dynamic' means both reactions are still occurring - the system has not stopped, it is balanced.

  • Both forward and reverse reactions are occurring simultaneously (1m)
  • The rate of the forward reaction equals the rate of the reverse reaction (1m)
  • Concentrations of reactants and products remain constant (not changing) (1m)

Dynamic equilibrium occurs in a closed system when both the forward and reverse reactions are taking place simultaneously at the same rate. Because both reactions proceed at equal rates, the concentrations of reactants and products remain constant — they are being produced and used up at the same rate. The word 'dynamic' means the reactions have not stopped; 'equilibrium' means they are balanced. A common mistake is saying the concentrations are equal — they are constant, not necessarily equal.

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4.

For the reaction N₂(g) + 3H₂(g) ⇌ 2NH₃(g), the forward reaction is exothermic. Explain using Le Chatelier's principle what happens to the equilibrium position and the yield of ammonia when the temperature is increased.

3 marks · higher

Increasing the temperature adds more heat energy to the system. According to Le Chatelier's principle, the system responds to oppose this by favouring the reaction that absorbs heat - the endothermic reaction. Since the forward reaction is exothermic, the reverse reaction is endothermic. Therefore, the equilibrium shifts to the left, and less ammonia is produced. The yield of ammonia decreases.

  • Le Chatelier's principle: the system responds to oppose the change (to absorb the extra heat) (1m)
  • The endothermic reaction is favoured, which is the reverse reaction (since forward is exothermic) - so equilibrium shifts to the left (1m)
  • The yield of ammonia decreases (less ammonia produced) (1m)

Increasing the temperature provides more heat energy to the system. Le Chatelier's principle states the system opposes this by favouring the reaction that absorbs heat — the endothermic direction. Since the forward reaction is exothermic, the reverse reaction is endothermic. Therefore, increasing temperature shifts the equilibrium to the left, decomposing ammonia back into nitrogen and hydrogen. The yield of ammonia decreases. Students often confuse this with reaction rate — higher temperature does increase the rate, but it lowers the equilibrium yield for exothermic reactions.

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5.

For the equilibrium N₂(g) + 3H₂(g) ⇌ 2NH₃(g), explain using Le Chatelier's principle what happens when the pressure is increased.

3 marks · higher

Increasing the pressure means the system has more gas molecules per unit volume. Le Chatelier's principle states that the system opposes this change by shifting equilibrium towards the side with fewer moles of gas. The left side has 4 moles of gas (1 mole N₂ + 3 moles H₂) and the right side has 2 moles of gas (2 moles NH₃). Therefore the equilibrium shifts to the right, increasing the yield of ammonia.

  • The system shifts to the side with fewer moles of gas (to reduce pressure) - Le Chatelier's principle (1m)
  • Left side has 4 moles of gas (1 N₂ + 3 H₂); right side has 2 moles of gas (2 NH₃) - fewer moles on the right (1m)
  • Equilibrium shifts to the right, increasing the yield of ammonia (1m)

Increasing pressure means more gas molecules are present per unit volume. Le Chatelier's principle states the system opposes this by shifting equilibrium to the side with fewer moles of gas. Counting the gas moles: left side = 1 mol N₂ + 3 mol H₂ = 4 moles; right side = 2 moles NH₃. The right side has fewer gas moles, so equilibrium shifts to the right, increasing the yield of ammonia. A common mistake is forgetting to count total gas moles on each side.

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6.

Explain the effect of adding a catalyst to a reversible reaction that is at equilibrium.

3 marks · higher

A catalyst increases the rate of both the forward and reverse reactions by the same amount. This means that equilibrium is reached more quickly. However, the position of equilibrium does not change - the same proportions of reactants and products are present. The catalyst does not increase the yield of products.

  • A catalyst increases the rate of BOTH the forward and reverse reactions (equally) (1m)
  • Equilibrium is reached more quickly / faster (1m)
  • The position of equilibrium does not change / the yield of products is unchanged (1m)

A catalyst speeds up both the forward and reverse reactions by the same factor, so equilibrium is reached more quickly. However, because both rates increase equally, the position of equilibrium does not change — the same proportions of reactants and products are present at equilibrium. A catalyst increases the rate of reaching equilibrium but does not increase the yield. A common misconception is that a catalyst shifts the equilibrium position — it does not.

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7.

Describe the reversible reaction involving copper sulfate crystals, including the colours of the two forms.

2 marks · foundation

Blue hydrated copper sulfate crystals can be heated to produce white anhydrous copper sulfate and water. This is reversible: adding water to the white anhydrous copper sulfate reforms the blue hydrated crystals.

  • Blue hydrated copper sulfate loses water on heating to give white anhydrous copper sulfate (colour change: blue to white) (1m)
  • Adding water to anhydrous copper sulfate reverses the reaction, producing blue hydrated copper sulfate (colour change: white to blue) (1m)

Heating blue hydrated copper sulfate (CuSO₄·5H₂O) removes water of crystallisation, producing white anhydrous copper sulfate (CuSO₄). This is the forward reaction. Adding water reverses the process: the white anhydrous copper sulfate absorbs the water and turns blue again, reforming the hydrated crystals. This colour change (blue ↔ white) is a classic example of a reversible reaction.

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8.

Explain how anhydrous copper sulfate can be used to test for the presence of water.

2 marks · foundation

White anhydrous copper sulfate is added to the substance being tested. If water is present, it reacts with the anhydrous copper sulfate and the white powder turns blue, indicating that water is present.

  • Anhydrous copper sulfate is white / add white anhydrous copper sulfate to the substance (1m)
  • If water is present, the white powder turns blue (positive result) (1m)

White anhydrous copper sulfate is added to the substance being tested. If water is present, the anhydrous copper sulfate absorbs the water and turns blue (forming hydrated copper sulfate). A colour change from white to blue is a positive result for water. Note: this test shows whether water is present but does not confirm it is pure water — use cobalt chloride paper as an alternative test.

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9.

Explain the relationship between the energy changes in the forward and reverse reactions of a reversible reaction.

2 marks · standard

If the forward reaction is exothermic, the reverse reaction is endothermic. The amount of energy released by the forward reaction is exactly equal to the amount of energy absorbed by the reverse reaction. Energy is conserved in reversible reactions.

  • If forward is exothermic, reverse is endothermic (or vice versa) - they are opposite types (1m)
  • The amount of energy released by the forward reaction equals the amount absorbed by the reverse reaction (same magnitude) (1m)

In a reversible reaction, if the forward reaction is exothermic (releases energy), the reverse reaction is endothermic (absorbs energy). The amount of energy involved is exactly the same in both directions — only the direction of energy transfer is reversed. This follows the law of conservation of energy. A common mistake is thinking both reactions release or absorb the same energy in the same direction.

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10.

Describe what happens when ammonium chloride is heated and then cooled, explaining why this is evidence of a reversible reaction.

2 marks · standard

When ammonium chloride is heated, it decomposes to form ammonia gas and hydrogen chloride gas. When these gases cool, they recombine to reform the solid white ammonium chloride. This is evidence of a reversible reaction because the products can react together to regenerate the original reactant.

  • Heating ammonium chloride produces ammonia (NH₃) and hydrogen chloride (HCl) gases (1m)
  • On cooling, the gases recombine to reform solid white ammonium chloride - showing the reaction can be reversed (1m)

When ammonium chloride (NH₄Cl) is heated, it decomposes into two gases: ammonia (NH₃) and hydrogen chloride (HCl). When cooled, these gases recombine and reform solid white ammonium chloride. This proves the reaction is reversible — the products (NH₃ and HCl) can react together to regenerate the original reactant. Students often confuse HCl gas with chlorine gas (Cl₂); it is hydrogen chloride, not chlorine.

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11.

A reaction reaches equilibrium: N₂(g) + 3H₂(g) ⇌ 2NH₃(g). More nitrogen gas is then added. Using Le Chatelier's principle, predict and explain what happens to the position of equilibrium.

2 marks · standard

Adding more nitrogen increases the concentration of a reactant. According to Le Chatelier's principle, the system responds to oppose this change. The position of equilibrium shifts to the right (forward direction), using up the extra nitrogen and producing more ammonia.

  • The position of equilibrium shifts to the right (forward direction) (1m)
  • This is because the system opposes the increased nitrogen concentration by using it up / Le Chatelier's principle states the system acts to reduce the disturbance (1m)

Adding more nitrogen increases the concentration of a reactant, disturbing the equilibrium. Le Chatelier's principle states that the system responds to oppose this change. To reduce the excess nitrogen, the forward reaction is favoured — nitrogen and hydrogen react to produce more ammonia. The equilibrium position shifts to the right. A common mistake is saying the equilibrium shifts left; it must shift in the direction that consumes the added substance.

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12.

What does the symbol ⇌ mean when used in a chemical equation?

  • A. The reaction is very fast
  • B. The reaction produces a gas
  • C. The reaction can proceed in both the forward and backward directions
  • D. The reaction requires a catalyst
1 mark · foundation

The ⇌ symbol indicates a reversible reaction. It shows that the reaction can proceed from left to right (forward reaction) AND from right to left (backward/reverse reaction). This is different from a one-way arrow (→) which indicates a reaction that goes to completion.

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13.

What colour is anhydrous copper sulfate?

  • A. Blue
  • B. White
  • C. Green
  • D. Yellow
1 mark · foundation

Anhydrous copper sulfate (CuSO₄) is white. When water is added it becomes hydrated copper sulfate (CuSO₄·5H₂O) which is blue. This reversible colour change makes anhydrous copper sulfate useful as a test for water.

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14.

When ammonium chloride is heated, what two gases are produced?

  • A. Ammonia and hydrogen chloride
  • B. Nitrogen and chlorine
  • C. Hydrogen and chlorine
  • D. Ammonia and water
1 mark · foundation

Ammonium chloride (NH₄Cl) decomposes on heating to form ammonia (NH₃) and hydrogen chloride (HCl): NH₄Cl(s) ⇌ NH₃(g) + HCl(g). On cooling, the two gases recombine to reform the white solid ammonium chloride. This is a classic example of a reversible reaction.

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15.

State what is meant by a reversible reaction.

1 mark · foundation

A reversible reaction is one that can proceed in both the forward direction (reactants to products) and the backward direction (products back to reactants).

  • A reaction that can proceed in both the forward and backward directions, or: products can re-form the original reactants (1m)

A reversible reaction is one that can go in both the forward direction (reactants forming products) and the backward direction (products reforming the original reactants). This is shown by the ⇌ symbol in equations. A common mistake is thinking all reactions can reverse — most reactions go to completion in one direction only.

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16.

In a reversible reaction, the forward reaction releases 150 kJ of energy. What can be said about the reverse reaction?

  • A. It also releases 150 kJ of energy
  • B. It releases a different amount of energy depending on temperature
  • C. It releases 75 kJ of energy
  • D. It absorbs 150 kJ of energy
1 mark · standard

In a reversible reaction, if the forward reaction is exothermic (releases energy), the reverse reaction is endothermic and absorbs exactly the same amount of energy. If the forward reaction releases 150 kJ, the reverse reaction must absorb 150 kJ. The energy change is equal in magnitude but opposite in direction.

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17.

At dynamic equilibrium in a closed system, which of the following statements is correct?

  • A. The forward reaction has stopped completely
  • B. The rate of the forward reaction equals the rate of the reverse reaction
  • C. The forward reaction has stopped but the reverse reaction continues
  • D. The concentrations of reactants and products are changing constantly
1 mark · standard

At dynamic equilibrium, both the forward and reverse reactions are still occurring but at the same rate. This means the concentrations of reactants and products remain constant (not changing). The word 'dynamic' means both reactions are still happening; 'equilibrium' means they are balanced.

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18.

A reversible reaction has an endothermic forward reaction. According to Le Chatelier's principle, what happens when the temperature is increased?

  • A. The position of equilibrium shifts to the right, producing more products
  • B. The position of equilibrium shifts to the left, producing more reactants
  • C. The position of equilibrium does not change
  • D. The reaction stops completely
1 mark · standard

Le Chatelier's principle states that if a change is made to a system at equilibrium, the system responds to oppose that change. Increasing temperature adds heat energy. The system opposes this by absorbing the extra heat — so the endothermic (heat-absorbing) forward reaction is favoured. The equilibrium shifts right, producing more products.

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19.

Why must a reversible reaction be carried out in a closed system for equilibrium to be established?

  • A. A closed system is needed to speed up the reaction
  • B. A closed system provides the pressure needed for the reaction
  • C. In an open system, reactants or products could escape, preventing the reverse reaction from occurring
  • D. Equilibrium can be established in either an open or closed system
1 mark · standard

Equilibrium can only be established in a closed system because no substances can enter or leave. In an open system, gaseous or volatile products would escape into the surroundings. If the products escape, the reverse reaction cannot occur, so equilibrium is never reached — the reaction simply goes to completion in the forward direction.

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20.

For the equilibrium A + B ⇌ C + D, the concentration of reactant A is suddenly increased. What happens to the position of equilibrium?

  • A. It shifts to the left, making more A and B
  • B. It shifts to the left, making more C and D
  • C. It does not shift because equilibrium is always maintained
  • D. It shifts to the right, making more C and D
1 mark · standard

When the concentration of reactant A is increased, the system is no longer at equilibrium. According to Le Chatelier's principle, the system responds to oppose this change by reducing the concentration of A. This is achieved by the forward reaction being favoured — A and B react to form more C and D. The equilibrium shifts to the right.

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Equilibrium (HT)

23
1.

The Haber process is one of the most important industrial chemical processes. N₂(g) + 3H₂(g) ⇌ 2NH₃(g) ΔH = −92 kJ/mol Describe and explain the industrial conditions used in the Haber process and discuss the scientific reasoning behind each choice of conditions. In your answer, refer to Le Chatelier's principle and economic considerations.

6 marks · challenge

The Haber process uses a temperature of approximately 450 °C, a pressure of approximately 200 atm, and an iron catalyst. Temperature choice: The forward reaction is exothermic (ΔH = −92 kJ/mol). By Le Chatelier's principle, a lower temperature would shift the equilibrium to the right, increasing the yield of ammonia. However, at very low temperatures the rate of reaction is too slow to be economically viable. At 450 °C the rate is fast enough whilst accepting a lower yield. This is a compromise between yield and rate. Pressure choice: On the left there are 4 moles of gas (1 N₂ + 3 H₂) and on the right there are 2 moles (2 NH₃). By Le Chatelier's principle, increasing pressure shifts the equilibrium to the right (fewer moles of gas), increasing the yield. However, very high pressures are expensive to achieve and maintain and create significant safety risks. 200 atm is chosen as a compromise between good yield and practical economics. Catalyst: The iron catalyst lowers the activation energy of both the forward and reverse reactions by the same amount. Both rates increase equally, so the equilibrium position is unchanged. The catalyst allows equilibrium to be reached more quickly, improving the economics without affecting the yield. In summary, the industrial conditions represent compromises between thermodynamics (maximum yield favours low temperature and high pressure) and kinetics/economics (viable rate and manageable cost favour higher temperature and moderate pressure).

  • Temperature of ~450 °C stated as the industrial condition used (1m)
  • Lower temperature gives higher yield (Le Chatelier: forward reaction exothermic so lower T favours forward reaction) but the reaction rate is too slow to be economically viable (1m)
  • Pressure of ~200 atm stated; higher pressure increases yield because there are 4 moles of gas on the left and 2 on the right (equilibrium shifts right to reduce pressure) (1m)
  • Very high pressure is expensive to maintain and creates safety hazards, so 200 atm is a compromise (1m)
  • Iron catalyst used; it speeds up both forward and reverse reactions equally so equilibrium is reached more quickly without changing the equilibrium position (1m)
  • Overall conclusion: conditions are a compromise between maximising yield (thermodynamic consideration) and achieving an economic rate of production (kinetic consideration) (1m)

The Haber process demonstrates the tension between thermodynamics (equilibrium yield) and kinetics (rate). Temperature: the forward reaction is exothermic (ΔH = −92 kJ/mol), so lower temperature gives higher ammonia yield by Le Chatelier's principle, but the rate is too slow — 450°C is the compromise. Pressure: 4 gas moles on the left vs 2 on the right, so higher pressure shifts equilibrium right and increases yield, but extreme pressures are costly and hazardous — 200 atm is the compromise. Catalyst (iron): speeds up both reactions equally, reaching equilibrium faster without changing the yield. A high-level answer discusses both thermodynamic and kinetic reasoning for each variable.

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2.

For the equilibrium: 2SO₂(g) + O₂(g) ⇌ 2SO₃(g) ΔH = −197 kJ/mol Predict and explain the effect of each of the following changes on the yield of SO₃: (a) increasing temperature (b) increasing pressure (c) removing SO₃ as it is formed

4 marks · higher

(a) Increasing temperature decreases the yield of SO₃. The forward reaction is exothermic so the equilibrium shifts left (towards the endothermic reverse reaction) to absorb the extra heat. (b) Increasing pressure increases the yield of SO₃. The left side has 3 moles of gas (2 SO₂ + 1 O₂) and the right has 2 moles (2 SO₃). The equilibrium shifts right towards fewer gas moles to reduce pressure. (c) Removing SO₃ decreases its concentration, so the equilibrium shifts right to replace the removed product, increasing the yield of SO₃.

  • (a) Yield decreases. Equilibrium shifts to the left because the reverse reaction is endothermic (absorbs heat to oppose the temperature increase) (1m)
  • (b) Yield increases. Left side has 3 moles of gas, right has 2 moles; equilibrium shifts right to reduce pressure by reducing gas moles (2m)
  • (c) Yield increases. Removing SO₃ decreases product concentration; equilibrium shifts right to replace it (1m)

(a) Increasing temperature decreases SO₃ yield. The forward reaction is exothermic (ΔH = −197 kJ/mol), so by Le Chatelier's principle, higher temperature favours the endothermic reverse reaction, shifting equilibrium left. (b) Increasing pressure increases SO₃ yield. Left side has 3 moles of gas (2SO₂ + 1O₂); right side has 2 moles (2SO₃). Equilibrium shifts right to reduce gas moles and pressure. (c) Removing SO₃ lowers product concentration; the system shifts right to replace it, increasing SO₃ yield — this technique is used industrially to drive reactions to completion.

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3.

The Contact process is used industrially to manufacture sulfuric acid. A key step is: 2SO₂(g) + O₂(g) ⇌ 2SO₃(g) ΔH = −197 kJ/mol The industrial plant uses a temperature of around 450 °C rather than a very high or very low temperature. Explain why a compromise temperature is used, referring to both yield and rate of reaction. [3 marks]

3 marks · standard

The forward reaction is exothermic. At higher temperatures, the equilibrium shifts to the left (towards reactants) according to Le Chatelier's principle, because the system tries to oppose the increase in temperature by favouring the endothermic reverse reaction. This would reduce the yield of sulfur trioxide. However, at very low temperatures the rate of reaction would be too slow to be economically viable, even though the equilibrium position favours more product. A compromise temperature of around 450 °C is used because it gives a sufficiently fast rate of reaction while still maintaining an acceptable yield of sulfur trioxide.

  • Higher temperature shifts equilibrium left / reduces yield of SO₃ because reaction is exothermic (1m)
  • Lower temperature gives higher yield but rate is too slow (economically unviable) (1m)
  • Compromise temperature balances acceptable yield with sufficient rate of reaction (1m)

Le Chatelier's principle states that if you change a condition of a system at equilibrium, the equilibrium shifts to oppose that change. Since the forward reaction (making SO₃) is exothermic, increasing temperature supplies 'extra heat' — the system responds by favouring the reverse endothermic reaction, shifting equilibrium left and reducing yield. Conversely, lower temperatures shift equilibrium right (higher yield) but make the reaction very slow. Industry needs both a reasonable yield AND a fast enough rate to be profitable, so a compromise temperature around 450 °C is chosen. OCR B Higher Depth papers regularly ask for this equilibrium-versus-rate trade-off in industrial contexts.

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4.

The Haber process: N₂(g) + 3H₂(g) ⇌ 2NH₃(g) ΔH = −92 kJ/mol Predict and explain the effect of increasing temperature on the yield of ammonia.

3 marks · higher

Increasing temperature decreases the yield of ammonia. By Le Chatelier's principle, the system shifts in the endothermic direction to absorb the extra heat. Because the forward reaction is exothermic (ΔH = −92 kJ/mol), the reverse reaction is endothermic. The equilibrium shifts to the left, decomposing ammonia back into nitrogen and hydrogen, reducing the yield of NH₃.

  • The yield of ammonia decreases (1m)
  • The equilibrium shifts in the endothermic direction / shifts to the left / towards reactants (1m)
  • The reverse reaction is endothermic and absorbs the extra heat energy, opposing the temperature increase (1m)

The negative ΔH (−92 kJ/mol) tells us the forward reaction is exothermic. Increasing temperature adds heat energy. By Le Chatelier's principle, the system absorbs the extra heat by favouring the endothermic direction — which is the reverse reaction. The equilibrium shifts left, decomposing ammonia back into N₂ and H₂, so the yield of ammonia decreases. Remember: for exothermic forward reactions, higher temperature = lower yield.

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5.

N₂(g) + 3H₂(g) ⇌ 2NH₃(g) Predict and explain the effect of increasing pressure on the position of equilibrium in the Haber process.

3 marks · higher

Increasing pressure shifts the equilibrium to the right, towards the products. On the left side there are 4 moles of gas (1 N₂ + 3 H₂) and on the right there are only 2 moles of gas (2 NH₃). The system opposes the pressure increase by shifting towards the side with fewer moles of gas, which is the right side, increasing the yield of ammonia.

  • Equilibrium shifts to the right / towards products / more NH₃ produced (1m)
  • There are fewer moles of gas on the right (2) than on the left (4) (1m)
  • The system shifts to oppose the pressure increase by reducing the number of gas molecules (1m)

Increasing pressure shifts equilibrium towards the side with fewer moles of gas. Left side: 1 mol N₂ + 3 mol H₂ = 4 moles of gas. Right side: 2 mol NH₃ = 2 moles of gas. The right side has fewer gas moles, so the equilibrium shifts right to reduce the total number of gas molecules, which reduces the pressure. This increases the yield of ammonia. Always count total gas moles on each side — only gaseous species count.

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6.

The Haber process uses conditions of 450 °C, 200 atm, and an iron catalyst. Explain why these are described as 'compromise conditions'.

3 marks · higher

These are compromise conditions because each one balances the competing demands of yield and rate. At 450 °C the yield of ammonia is lower than at lower temperatures, but the reaction is fast enough to be economically viable. At lower temperatures the yield would be higher but the rate would be too slow. At 200 atm the yield is favoured (more moles of gas on the left), but higher pressures would be too expensive and dangerous to maintain. The iron catalyst speeds up the reaction without changing the equilibrium position, allowing a lower temperature to be used.

  • Temperature is a compromise: lower temperature gives higher yield but rate too slow (or: 450 °C gives fast enough rate at the cost of some yield) (1m)
  • Pressure is a compromise: higher pressure increases yield (fewer moles on right) but is expensive / dangerous (or: 200 atm balances yield against cost and safety) (1m)
  • Iron catalyst speeds up rate (to reach equilibrium faster) without affecting the equilibrium position / yield (1m)

The conditions are a compromise because: Temperature (450°C) — lower temperature gives a higher equilibrium yield of ammonia (exothermic forward reaction, Le Chatelier), but the rate is too slow for commercial production. 450°C balances acceptable yield with acceptable rate. Pressure (200 atm) — higher pressure increases yield (4 gas moles on left vs 2 on right), but very high pressures require expensive, dangerous equipment. 200 atm is the economic compromise. Catalyst (iron) — speeds up equilibrium being reached without changing the equilibrium position, enabling the lower temperature to be viable.

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7.

Define the term 'dynamic equilibrium'.

2 marks · foundation

Dynamic equilibrium is the state reached in a closed system when the rate of the forward reaction equals the rate of the reverse reaction. The concentrations of reactants and products remain constant because the two reactions proceed at the same rate.

  • The rate of the forward reaction equals the rate of the reverse (backward) reaction (1m)
  • Occurs in a closed system AND concentrations of reactants and products remain constant (accept either) (1m)

Dynamic equilibrium has two key features: (1) the rate of the forward reaction equals the rate of the reverse reaction, and (2) the concentrations of all species remain constant. It only occurs in a closed system. The word 'dynamic' indicates that both reactions are still occurring — the system is not static. Students often think equilibrium means equal concentrations — in fact, concentrations are constant but not necessarily equal.

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8.

A student heats blue copper sulfate crystals. They turn white and lose mass. When the student adds water to the white solid, it turns blue again and becomes warm. Using this example, explain what is meant by a reversible reaction and state ONE condition that determines which direction the reaction goes. [2 marks]

2 marks · foundation

A reversible reaction is one that can go in both the forward and reverse directions — the products of the reaction can react together to re-form the original reactants. In this example, heating drives the forward reaction (blue copper sulfate losing water to form white anhydrous copper sulfate), while adding water drives the reverse reaction. The condition that determines which direction the reaction goes is whether heat or water is added.

  • Reversible reaction: can go in both directions / products can react to reform reactants (1m)
  • Condition affecting direction: adding water OR applying heat OR presence/absence of water (1m)

A reversible reaction is shown by the symbol ⇌ and means the reaction can proceed in BOTH directions — forward (reactants → products) and reverse (products → reactants). The direction depends on the conditions. For copper sulfate, heat drives the forward reaction (water is driven off, blue → white). Adding water drives the reverse reaction (white → blue, and the reaction is exothermic, releasing heat). This is a common OCR B example for reversible reactions and frequently appears in Foundation Depth papers.

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9.

Explain the effect of increasing temperature on the position of an equilibrium where the forward reaction is exothermic.

2 marks · standard

Increasing temperature shifts the equilibrium to the left, towards the reactants. This is because the system opposes the temperature increase by favouring the endothermic direction (the reverse reaction), which absorbs heat. As a result, the yield of products decreases.

  • Equilibrium shifts left / towards reactants / in the endothermic direction (reverse reaction is favoured) (1m)
  • Because the endothermic (reverse) reaction absorbs heat / opposes the temperature increase, reducing the yield of products (1m)

When temperature is increased, the system opposes the change by favouring the endothermic direction (the one that absorbs heat). If the forward reaction is exothermic, the reverse reaction is endothermic. Therefore, increasing temperature shifts equilibrium to the left — towards the reactants. This reduces the yield of products. A common mistake is thinking higher temperature always increases yield — it only does so if the forward reaction is endothermic.

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10.

Explain what happens to the position of equilibrium when the concentration of a reactant is increased.

2 marks · standard

When the concentration of a reactant is increased, the equilibrium shifts to the right towards the products. This is because the system opposes the change by removing the excess reactant, converting it into more product. The concentration of the reactant falls back but to a higher level than before the change.

  • Equilibrium shifts to the right / towards products (forward reaction is favoured) (1m)
  • The system opposes the increase in reactant concentration by converting reactant into product (1m)

Increasing the concentration of a reactant disturbs the equilibrium. Le Chatelier's principle predicts the system will shift to reduce the excess reactant — this means the forward reaction is favoured, shifting equilibrium to the right and producing more product. The concentration of the reactant will decrease again (though not back to its original value) as it is converted into products.

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11.

Explain why adding a catalyst to a system at equilibrium does not change the equilibrium position.

2 marks · standard

A catalyst lowers the activation energy of both the forward and the reverse reactions by the same amount. Both reactions therefore speed up by the same factor, so the ratio of their rates is unchanged. Because the forward and reverse rates remain equal, the equilibrium position does not change - only the time taken to reach equilibrium is reduced.

  • The catalyst increases the rate of BOTH the forward and reverse reactions (equally / by the same amount) (1m)
  • The equilibrium position is unchanged; equilibrium is reached more quickly (faster) (1m)

A catalyst lowers the activation energy of both the forward and reverse reactions by the same amount. Because both rates increase equally, the ratio of forward to reverse rate is unchanged and the equilibrium position does not shift. The catalyst's only effect is to allow equilibrium to be reached more quickly. It does not increase the yield of products. Confusing rate with equilibrium position is the most common mistake in this topic.

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12.

Consider the equilibrium: H₂(g) + I₂(g) ⇌ 2HI(g). Explain what happens to the equilibrium position when pressure is increased.

2 marks · standard

Increasing pressure has no effect on the equilibrium position. There are equal numbers of moles of gas on both sides of the equation: 2 moles on the left (1 H₂ + 1 I₂) and 2 moles on the right (2 HI). Because there is no difference in the number of gas moles, there is no advantage to shifting in either direction, so the equilibrium position remains unchanged.

  • Equilibrium position is unchanged / no effect on equilibrium position (1m)
  • There are equal (same) moles of gas on both sides of the equation (2 on each side) (1m)

The equation H₂(g) + I₂(g) ⇌ 2HI(g) has 2 moles of gas on both sides (1 H₂ + 1 I₂ on the left = 2; 2 HI on the right = 2). When pressure is increased, the system responds by shifting towards fewer gas moles — but both sides are equal. There is no direction that would reduce the number of gas molecules, so the equilibrium position is unchanged. This is a common exam trap.

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13.

At dynamic equilibrium, which of the following is true?

  • A. The rate of the forward reaction equals the rate of the reverse reaction
  • B. The concentrations of reactants and products are always equal
  • C. The forward reaction stops and only the reverse reaction continues
  • D. All chemical reactions have stopped
1 mark · foundation

At dynamic equilibrium the forward and reverse reactions continue simultaneously at equal rates. Concentrations remain constant but are not necessarily equal. Neither reaction stops.

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14.

Dynamic equilibrium can only be established in which type of system?

  • A. An open system where gases can escape
  • B. A closed system where nothing enters or leaves
  • C. A system kept at a very high temperature
  • D. A system that uses a catalyst
1 mark · foundation

Equilibrium requires a closed system because if products or reactants escape, the system cannot reach a constant composition. In an open system, gases would escape and the reverse reaction could not maintain its rate.

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15.

Le Chatelier's principle states that when a system at equilibrium is disturbed, the system will:

  • A. Amplify the disturbance to re-establish equilibrium faster
  • B. Remain unchanged because equilibrium is stable
  • C. Shift to oppose the change and establish a new equilibrium
  • D. Shift in a direction that counteracts the imposed change
1 mark · foundation

Le Chatelier's principle: when a system at equilibrium is disturbed, it shifts in whichever direction opposes or counteracts that disturbance. This is how the system reaches a new equilibrium position.

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16.

State Le Chatelier's principle.

1 mark · foundation

When a system at equilibrium is subjected to a change, the equilibrium will shift in the direction that opposes or counteracts that change.

  • Equilibrium shifts in the direction that opposes / counteracts the change imposed on the system (1 mark for this idea) (1m)

Le Chatelier's principle states that when a change is applied to a system at equilibrium, the equilibrium shifts in the direction that opposes or counteracts that change. The system does not go back exactly to the original position — it reaches a new equilibrium. This principle predicts the direction of shift for changes in temperature, pressure, and concentration.

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17.

What does the symbol ⇌ mean in a chemical equation?

1 mark · foundation

The symbol ⇌ indicates that the reaction is reversible - it can proceed in both the forward and the reverse direction. Reactants can form products and products can reform the reactants.

  • The reaction is reversible / can proceed in both directions / products can reform reactants (1m)

The ⇌ symbol means the reaction is reversible — it can proceed in both the forward direction (reactants forming products) and the reverse direction (products reforming reactants). It is used whenever a reaction can reach a dynamic equilibrium. This contrasts with the → symbol, which indicates a reaction that goes to completion in one direction only.

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18.

A reversible reaction has an exothermic forward reaction. What happens to the equilibrium position when temperature is increased?

  • A. Shifts to the right, favouring the exothermic forward reaction
  • B. Shifts to the left, favouring the endothermic reverse reaction
  • C. No change - temperature only affects rate, not equilibrium position
  • D. Shifts to the right because higher temperature means more energy for the forward reaction
1 mark · standard

Increasing temperature adds heat energy to the system. By Le Chatelier's principle, the equilibrium shifts to oppose this change by absorbing heat, which means favouring the endothermic direction. If the forward reaction is exothermic, the reverse reaction is endothermic, so equilibrium shifts left (towards reactants).

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19.

For the equilibrium N₂(g) + 3H₂(g) ⇌ 2NH₃(g), what is the effect of increasing pressure on the equilibrium position?

  • A. Shifts left, because the reverse reaction is favoured at high pressure
  • B. No change, because all species are gases
  • C. Shifts right, because higher pressure increases the forward reaction rate only
  • D. Shifts right, towards the side with fewer moles of gas
1 mark · standard

The left side has 4 moles of gas (1 N₂ + 3 H₂) and the right side has 2 moles (2 NH₃). Increasing pressure shifts equilibrium towards the side with fewer moles of gas (the right), to reduce pressure. This is predicted by Le Chatelier's principle.

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20.

A catalyst is added to a reaction at equilibrium. Which statement correctly describes its effect?

  • A. The catalyst speeds up both forward and reverse reactions equally, leaving the equilibrium position unchanged
  • B. The catalyst increases the rate of the forward reaction only
  • C. The catalyst shifts the equilibrium towards the products
  • D. The catalyst lowers the activation energy of the forward reaction only, shifting equilibrium right
1 mark · standard

A catalyst lowers the activation energy of both the forward and reverse reactions by the same amount. Both rates increase equally, so the equilibrium position is unchanged. The catalyst only helps equilibrium be reached more quickly.

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21.

In the Haber process (N₂ + 3H₂ ⇌ 2NH₃, forward reaction exothermic), the industrial temperature used is 450 °C. This is a compromise because:

  • A. Higher temperatures give maximum yield but the reaction is too slow at lower temperatures
  • B. At 450 °C the equilibrium lies entirely to the right, giving 100% yield
  • C. Lower temperatures give maximum yield but the reaction would be too slow; 450 °C balances acceptable yield with a practical rate
  • D. 450 °C is the exact temperature at which yield and rate are both maximised
1 mark · standard

The Haber process forward reaction is exothermic. Lower temperatures favour the forward reaction and give a higher equilibrium yield of NH₃. However, low temperatures mean the rate is unacceptably slow. At 450 °C the yield is lower than at, say, 200 °C, but the rate is fast enough to be economically viable. This is the industrial compromise.

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22.

A(aq) + B(aq) ⇌ C(aq) + D(aq). Some solid A is added to the equilibrium mixture. What happens to the concentration of C at the new equilibrium position, compared to the original equilibrium?

  • A. The concentration of C decreases because equilibrium shifts left
  • B. The concentration of C is unchanged because adding a solid has no effect
  • C. The concentration of C increases because the equilibrium shifts right
  • D. The concentration of C increases then returns to its original value
1 mark · standard

Adding reactant A increases its concentration. By Le Chatelier's principle the equilibrium shifts right (towards products) to reduce the excess A. This produces more C and D, so the concentration of C at the new equilibrium is higher than at the original equilibrium.

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23.

Consider an exothermic equilibrium reaction: A(g) + B(g) ⇌ C(g) What is the effect of increasing the temperature on the equilibrium position?

  • A. The equilibrium shifts to the right, producing more C
  • B. The equilibrium shifts to the left, producing less C
  • C. Temperature has no effect on the equilibrium position
  • D. Both the forward and reverse reaction rates increase equally, so equilibrium is unchanged
1 mark · standard

For an exothermic reaction, increasing temperature shifts the equilibrium position to the LEFT (towards reactants), reducing the yield of C. This is Le Chatelier's principle: the system opposes the change by favouring the endothermic direction (reverse reaction), which absorbs the extra heat. Increasing temperature does increase both forward and reverse rates, but NOT equally — the endothermic (reverse) reaction is increased more, shifting equilibrium left and reducing yield. Temperature always affects equilibrium position for reactions with an enthalpy change.

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Exothermic Reactions

20
1.

A student investigates the combustion of ethanol (C₂H₅OH). Explain what is meant by an exothermic reaction, describe the energy changes during combustion in terms of bond breaking and bond making, and explain how an energy profile diagram represents these changes including the role of a catalyst. Your answer should also include reference to an everyday application of an exothermic reaction.

6 marks · challenge

An exothermic reaction is one in which energy is released to the surroundings, causing the temperature of the surroundings to rise. The overall enthalpy change (ΔH) is negative for an exothermic reaction. During combustion of ethanol, bonds in the ethanol and oxygen molecules must first be broken. Bond breaking is endothermic - it requires energy input to overcome the forces holding atoms together. New bonds then form in the products (carbon dioxide and water). Bond making is exothermic - it releases energy. Because more energy is released making new bonds in CO2 and H2O than is required to break bonds in ethanol and O2, the overall reaction is exothermic and energy is released to the surroundings. On an energy profile diagram for exothermic combustion, the reactants are drawn at a higher energy level than the products. The curve rises to a peak above the reactant level - this peak represents the activation energy, the minimum energy that particles must have to react. After the peak, the curve falls to the product energy level. The difference in height between reactants and products represents the energy released (ΔH, which is negative). Adding a catalyst provides an alternative reaction pathway with a lower activation energy, shown as a lower peak on the diagram. The overall energy released is unchanged because the catalyst does not affect the reactant or product energy levels. An everyday application is hand warmers, which use the slow exothermic oxidation of iron powder. Energy released by this reaction warms the surrounding air and the user's hand.

  • Definition: exothermic reaction releases energy to surroundings / temperature of surroundings rises / negative ΔH (1m)
  • Bond breaking requires energy (endothermic) / energy is put in to break bonds in reactants (1m)
  • Bond making releases energy (exothermic) / more energy released making bonds than absorbed breaking bonds, so overall reaction is exothermic (1m)
  • Energy profile: reactants at higher energy than products / negative ΔH shown as the drop from reactant to product level / activation energy shown as the peak above reactant level (1m)
  • Catalyst lowers activation energy / provides alternative lower-energy pathway / does not change overall ΔH / the peak on the profile is lower with a catalyst (1m)
  • Valid everyday application described correctly (e.g., hand warmers use exothermic iron oxidation / combustion of fuels releases heat energy / neutralisation warms solution) (1m)

An exothermic reaction releases energy to the surroundings (negative ΔH), raising the temperature. During combustion of ethanol, bonds in the reactants (ethanol and O₂) must first be broken — bond breaking is endothermic (requires energy). New bonds then form in the products (CO₂ and H₂O) — bond making is exothermic (releases energy). Because more energy is released in bond making than is absorbed in bond breaking, the overall reaction is exothermic. On an energy profile diagram, reactants are at a higher energy level than products; the peak above the reactants represents the activation energy. A catalyst lowers this peak by providing an alternative pathway with lower activation energy, but does not change the energy levels of reactants or products, so ΔH is unchanged. Everyday applications include hand warmers (iron oxidation) and combustion of fuels.

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2.

Explain, at the ionic level, why neutralisation reactions are exothermic. Include reference to bond making and the energy change observed.

4 marks · higher

In neutralisation, hydrogen ions (H+) from the acid combine with hydroxide ions (OH-) from the alkali to form water molecules. This involves bond making: new O-H bonds form in the water molecule. Bond making releases energy. More energy is released forming new O-H bonds than is absorbed breaking the H-OH bond in water. The energy released to the surroundings causes the temperature of the solution to rise. For all neutralisation reactions, the ionic equation is H+(aq) + OH-(aq) → H₂O(l), and the same amount of energy is always released per mole of water formed.

  • H+(aq) ions and OH-(aq) ions combine to form water / the ionic equation H+ + OH- → H2O (1m)
  • Bond making / new bonds form in water / O-H bonds form, releasing energy (1m)
  • Energy is released to the surroundings, causing temperature of the solution to rise (1m)
  • The same amount of energy is released per mole of water formed for all strong acid-alkali neutralisations / the ionic equation is always the same (1m)

In neutralisation, H+ ions from the acid and OH- ions from the alkali combine to form water: H+(aq) + OH-(aq) → H₂O(l). This process involves bond making — new O-H bonds form in the water molecule. Bond making always releases energy to the surroundings, causing the temperature of the solution to rise, which is why neutralisation is exothermic. Because the same ionic equation applies to all strong acid-alkali neutralisations, the same quantity of energy is released per mole of water formed regardless of which acid and alkali are used.

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3.

A student adds 0.5 g of sodium hydroxide pellets to 25 cm³ of water in a polystyrene cup. The temperature rises from 20.0°C to 28.4°C. Explain how this data shows the reaction is exothermic and describe how you would use it to calculate the energy transferred. (Specific heat capacity of water = 4.2 J/g/°C)

4 marks · higher

The temperature of the water rises from 20.0°C to 28.4°C, a change of 8.4°C. A temperature rise in the surroundings indicates that energy has been transferred to the surroundings from the reaction - this is the definition of an exothermic reaction. To calculate the energy transferred, use the formula Q = mcΔT, where m is the mass of water (25 g), c is the specific heat capacity (4.2 J/g/°C), and ΔT is the temperature change (8.4°C). Q = 25 × 4.2 × 8.4 = 882 J. This value is positive because energy is released by the exothermic dissolving process.

  • Temperature rises by 8.4°C, which indicates energy is transferred to the surroundings, confirming the reaction is exothermic (1m)
  • States the formula Q = mcΔT (accept: energy = mass × specific heat capacity × temperature change) (1m)
  • Correct substitution: Q = 25 × 4.2 × 8.4 (accept mass of solution as 25 g) (1m)
  • Correct answer: Q = 882 J (accept 880 J if rounded differently) (1m)

The temperature rises from 20.0°C to 28.4°C, a change of +8.4°C. A temperature increase shows energy has been transferred from the reaction to the surroundings, which is the definition of an exothermic process. To calculate the energy transferred, use Q = mcΔT: mass of water = 25 g (since 25 cm³ of water has density 1 g/cm³), c = 4.2 J/g/°C, ΔT = 8.4°C. So Q = 25 × 4.2 × 8.4 = 882 J. A common mistake is forgetting to calculate ΔT first or using the wrong mass.

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4.

Explain how a hand warmer works, referring to energy transfer and the type of reaction involved.

3 marks · standard

A hand warmer works because it contains iron powder that undergoes slow oxidation when it is exposed to air. This oxidation reaction is exothermic, meaning energy is released to the surroundings. The energy released raises the temperature of the surroundings, including your hand, making it feel warm.

  • The reaction is exothermic (accept: an exothermic reaction takes place) (1m)
  • Energy is released to the surroundings (accept: heat is given out to surroundings) (1m)
  • The temperature of the surroundings / hand increases (accept: the surroundings get warmer) (1m)

A hand warmer works because it contains iron powder. When air (oxygen) is allowed in, the iron undergoes slow oxidation: 4Fe + 3O₂ → 2Fe₂O₃. This oxidation reaction is exothermic — it releases energy to the surroundings. The energy transferred raises the temperature of everything in contact with the hand warmer, including your hand. The three key points to include in an answer are: the type of reaction (exothermic), the direction of energy transfer (released to surroundings), and the observable effect (temperature of surroundings increases). A common error is saying it works because of an endothermic reaction — this is wrong; endothermic reactions absorb energy and cause cooling.

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5.

Describe the key features of an energy profile diagram for an exothermic reaction.

3 marks · standard

An energy profile diagram for an exothermic reaction shows the reactants at a higher energy level than the products. There is a peak in the curve representing the transition state, and the height of this peak above the reactant energy level shows the activation energy. The overall energy released (ΔH) is shown as the difference in energy between the reactants and the products, and this value is negative for an exothermic reaction.

  • Reactants shown at higher energy level than products (accept: products have lower energy than reactants) (1m)
  • A peak/hump above the reactant energy level representing the activation energy (1m)
  • The energy difference between reactants and products represents the energy released / ΔH is negative (1m)

An energy profile diagram (also called a reaction profile or energy level diagram) shows how the potential energy changes as reactants are converted to products. For an exothermic reaction, three features must be shown and described: (1) Reactants start at a higher energy level than the products — the products are drawn lower on the energy axis. (2) There is a curved peak between the reactants and products representing the transition state; the height of the peak above the reactant energy level is the activation energy. (3) The difference in energy between the reactant level and the product level represents the energy released to the surroundings (ΔH), and this is a negative value for exothermic reactions because energy is lost from the reaction system.

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6.

Explain, using the concept of activation energy, how a catalyst increases the rate of an exothermic reaction.

3 marks · higher

A catalyst provides an alternative reaction pathway that has a lower activation energy. This means that more reactant particles have enough energy to react successfully at a given temperature. As a result, a greater proportion of collisions lead to successful reactions, increasing the rate. The overall energy change of the reaction (ΔH) is not affected by the catalyst - the reactant and product energy levels remain the same.

  • Catalyst provides an alternative reaction pathway / lowers the activation energy (1m)
  • More particles have (enough) energy to react / more collisions are successful / greater proportion of particles exceed the activation energy (1m)
  • Overall energy change (ΔH) is not affected / product and reactant energy levels remain the same (1m)

A catalyst increases the rate of a reaction by providing an alternative reaction pathway — one with a lower activation energy. On an energy profile diagram, the catalysed reaction shows a lower peak than the uncatalysed reaction. Because the activation energy is lower, a greater proportion of the reactant particles have enough kinetic energy to overcome the energy barrier and react successfully. This increases the frequency of successful collisions per unit time, hence the rate increases. Importantly, a catalyst does not change the energy levels of the reactants or the products, so the overall enthalpy change (ΔH) is unaffected. Also, a catalyst is not consumed in the reaction — it is regenerated and can be used repeatedly.

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7.

The combustion of methane is: CH₄(g) + 2O₂(g) → CO₂(g) + 2H₂O(g). Using the bond energies C-H = 413 kJ/mol, O=O = 498 kJ/mol, C=O = 805 kJ/mol and O-H = 463 kJ/mol, calculate the overall energy change for this reaction and state whether it is exothermic or endothermic.

3 marks · higher

Energy to break bonds: 4(C-H) + 2(O=O) = 4 × 413 + 2 × 498 = 1652 + 996 = 2648 kJ/mol. Energy released forming bonds: 2(C=O) + 4(O-H) = 2 × 805 + 4 × 463 = 1610 + 1852 = 3462 kJ/mol. Overall energy change = 2648 − 3462 = −814 kJ/mol. The reaction is exothermic because the overall energy change is negative.

  • Correctly calculates energy to break bonds: 4 × 413 + 2 × 498 = 2648 kJ/mol (1m)
  • Correctly calculates energy released forming bonds: 2 × 805 + 4 × 463 = 3462 kJ/mol (1m)
  • Overall energy change = 2648 − 3462 = −814 kJ/mol, identifies reaction as exothermic (negative value) (1m)

Bond energy calculations follow a 3-step process. Step 1: identify and count all bonds broken in the reactants. CH₄ has 4 C-H bonds and each O₂ has one O=O double bond — 2O₂ gives 2 O=O bonds. Energy to break = (4 × 413) + (2 × 498) = 1652 + 996 = 2648 kJ/mol. Step 2: identify and count all bonds formed in the products. CO₂ has 2 C=O double bonds and each H₂O has 2 O-H bonds — 2H₂O gives 4 O-H bonds. Energy released = (2 × 805) + (4 × 463) = 1610 + 1852 = 3462 kJ/mol. Step 3: overall ΔH = energy in − energy out = 2648 − 3462 = √8814 kJ/mol. The negative sign confirms the reaction is exothermic (more energy is released forming bonds than is needed to break them).

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8.

Self-heating food cans contain calcium oxide and a small reservoir of water separated by a membrane. When the user presses a button, the membrane breaks and the water mixes with the calcium oxide. Explain why the food heats up, using knowledge of exothermic reactions and energy transfer.

3 marks · higher

When the membrane breaks, calcium oxide reacts with water in an exothermic reaction. Energy is released to the surroundings during this reaction. The surroundings include the food in the can, so the energy released transfers to the food, raising its temperature and heating it up.

  • Calcium oxide reacts with water in an exothermic reaction (accept: the reaction releases energy) (1m)
  • Energy is released to the surroundings from the exothermic reaction (1m)
  • The food (surroundings) absorbs this energy, causing its temperature to rise / the food heats up (1m)

Calcium oxide reacting with water is an exothermic reaction, meaning it releases energy to the surroundings. In this system, the food is the surroundings. The energy released by the CaO + H₂O reaction transfers to the food, raising its temperature and heating it up. This is a useful application of exothermic reactions — no external power source is needed. A common mistake is not identifying what counts as 'the surroundings' in context.

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9.

Give two examples of exothermic reactions.

2 marks · foundation

Two examples of exothermic reactions are combustion (for example burning methane in air) and neutralisation (for example adding sodium hydroxide solution to hydrochloric acid).

  • First example: combustion / burning a fuel / burning methane / burning wood (accept any valid exothermic reaction) (1m)
  • Second example: neutralisation / oxidation / respiration / hand warmer reaction (any second valid different example) (1m)

Exothermic reactions release energy to the surroundings, causing a temperature rise. The most common examples students need to know are: combustion (burning fuels like methane, ethanol, or wood), neutralisation (acid + alkali reactions), oxidation (including slow oxidation like iron rusting and fast oxidation like burning), and respiration. Everyday applications include hand warmers (slow iron oxidation), self-heating cans (calcium oxide + water), and fireworks (rapid combustion). Students commonly confuse exothermic reactions with endothermic ones — remember: exothermic feels hot (temperature rises), endothermic feels cold (temperature falls).

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10.

Explain, in terms of bond breaking and bond making, why combustion is an exothermic reaction.

2 marks · standard

In combustion, energy is first needed to break the bonds in the fuel and oxygen molecules. Energy is then released when new bonds form in the products (carbon dioxide and water). Because more energy is released making new bonds than is needed to break the original bonds, the overall reaction releases energy to the surroundings, making it exothermic.

  • Bond breaking requires energy (endothermic process) / energy is taken in when bonds break (1m)
  • More energy is released in bond making than is required for bond breaking / net energy is released to surroundings (1m)

All chemical reactions involve breaking bonds in the reactants and forming new bonds in the products. Bond breaking always requires energy — it is an endothermic process. Bond making always releases energy — it is an exothermic process. Whether the overall reaction is exothermic or endothermic depends on the balance between these two. In combustion, the energy released when new bonds form in CO₂ and H₂O is greater than the energy required to break the bonds in the fuel and O₂. This means there is a net release of energy to the surroundings, making the reaction exothermic. The most common exam mistake is reversing this: saying bond breaking releases energy or bond making requires energy — both are wrong.

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11.

What is the activation energy of a reaction? Explain what it represents on an energy profile diagram.

2 marks · standard

The activation energy is the minimum amount of energy that colliding particles must have in order for a reaction to take place. On an energy profile diagram, it is shown as the difference in energy between the reactants and the top of the energy peak (the transition state). It represents the energy barrier that must be overcome to break bonds in the reactants.

  • Minimum energy that particles/reactants must have for a reaction to occur (accept: minimum energy for collisions to be successful) (1m)
  • Shown on the energy profile as the difference between the reactant energy level and the top of the energy peak / the height of the energy barrier (1m)

Activation energy is the minimum energy that colliding particles must possess in order for a reaction to occur. Not every collision between reactant particles results in a reaction — only those collisions where the particles have at least the activation energy will break existing bonds and allow new ones to form. On an energy profile diagram, the activation energy is represented as the vertical distance between the energy level of the reactants and the highest point of the curve (the transition state or energy barrier). A reaction with a high activation energy is slow because fewer particles have sufficient energy to react. A catalyst works by providing an alternative reaction pathway with a lower activation energy.

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12.

In an exothermic reaction, energy is transferred:

  • A. From the surroundings to the reaction mixture
  • B. From the reaction mixture to the surroundings
  • C. Neither absorbed nor released
  • D. Only as light, not heat
1 mark · foundation

In an exothermic reaction, energy is released to the surroundings. This causes the temperature of the surroundings to rise. The prefix 'exo' means 'out of', indicating energy flows out of the reaction system.

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13.

Which observation confirms that a reaction is exothermic?

  • A. The temperature of the reaction mixture decreases
  • B. The temperature of the reaction mixture increases
  • C. The temperature of the surroundings increases
  • D. The temperature of the surroundings decreases
1 mark · foundation

An exothermic reaction is confirmed by the temperature of the surroundings increasing. The energy released by the reaction is transferred to the surroundings. In a simple test-tube reaction, the surroundings (including the test tube and the solution) warm up.

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14.

Which of the following is an example of an exothermic reaction?

  • A. Dissolving ammonium nitrate in water
  • B. Thermal decomposition of calcium carbonate
  • C. Photosynthesis
  • D. Combustion of natural gas
1 mark · foundation

Combustion of natural gas (methane) is exothermic - it releases energy as heat and light. Dissolving ammonium nitrate is endothermic (used in cold packs). Thermal decomposition and photosynthesis both require energy input and are endothermic.

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15.

Define the term 'exothermic reaction'.

1 mark · foundation

An exothermic reaction is one in which energy is released to the surroundings, causing the temperature of the surroundings to rise.

  • Energy is released to the surroundings (accept: temperature of surroundings rises / reaction gives out heat) (1m)

An exothermic reaction releases energy to the surroundings. The surroundings include everything outside the reaction — the container, the air, and anything the container touches. Because energy is transferred out, the temperature of the surroundings increases. Common examples include combustion, neutralisation, oxidation, and respiration. The term 'exothermic' comes from Greek: 'exo' means outside and 'thermic' means heat. The opposite is endothermic, where energy is taken in from the surroundings and the temperature falls.

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16.

On an energy profile diagram for an exothermic reaction, which statement is correct?

  • A. Products have a higher energy than reactants
  • B. Activation energy is shown as a trough below reactant energy level
  • C. The overall energy change (ΔH) is negative
  • D. The activation energy equals the energy released
1 mark · standard

For an exothermic reaction, the products are at a lower energy level than the reactants, so the overall energy change (ΔH) is negative. The reaction releases energy to the surroundings. The activation energy is a peak above the reactant energy level, not a trough.

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17.

Which statement correctly describes bond breaking and bond making in terms of energy?

  • A. Bond breaking requires energy; bond making releases energy
  • B. Bond breaking releases energy; bond making requires energy
  • C. Both bond breaking and bond making require energy
  • D. Both bond breaking and bond making release energy
1 mark · standard

Bond breaking is always endothermic (requires energy input to overcome the attraction between atoms). Bond making is always exothermic (releases energy as new bonds form). In an overall exothermic reaction, more energy is released making bonds than is required to break bonds.

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18.

In a reaction, 860 kJ/mol of energy is needed to break bonds and 1120 kJ/mol is released when new bonds form. What is the overall energy change and reaction type?

  • A. −260 kJ/mol, endothermic
  • B. +260 kJ/mol, endothermic
  • C. +260 kJ/mol, exothermic
  • D. −260 kJ/mol, exothermic
1 mark · standard

Energy change = energy absorbed (breaking) − energy released (making) = 860 − 1120 = −260 kJ/mol. The negative value means energy is released overall, so the reaction is exothermic. More energy is released making bonds than is needed to break bonds.

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19.

A student uses a hand warmer that contains iron powder and sodium chloride solution. The hand warmer works because iron undergoes slow oxidation. Which row correctly identifies both the type of reaction and the energy change?

  • A. Exothermic; temperature of surroundings increases
  • B. Exothermic; temperature of surroundings decreases
  • C. Endothermic; temperature of surroundings increases
  • D. Endothermic; temperature of surroundings decreases
1 mark · standard

Oxidation of iron is an exothermic reaction. Energy is released to the surroundings, which is why the hand warmer feels warm. The temperature of the surroundings (your hand) increases because energy is transferred to them from the reaction.

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20.

On an energy profile diagram for an exothermic reaction, adding a catalyst would change the diagram by:

  • A. Raising the energy level of the products
  • B. Lowering the activation energy peak but not changing the overall energy released
  • C. Increasing the overall energy released by the reaction
  • D. Lowering both the activation energy and the overall energy released
1 mark · standard

A catalyst lowers the activation energy by providing an alternative reaction pathway, so the energy peak on the profile is lower. However, the overall energy change (ΔH) is not affected - the reactant and product energy levels remain the same, so the total energy released stays the same.

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Bond Energies (HT)

25
1.

Describe how bond energies can be used to calculate whether a reaction is exothermic or endothermic. In your answer you should: explain why bond breaking and bond making have opposite energy changes; describe the method for calculating ΔH using bond energy data; interpret what the sign of ΔH tells you; and evaluate the limitations of this method.

6 marks · challenge

Bond energies can be used to calculate the enthalpy change (ΔH) of a reaction. Bond breaking is always endothermic because energy must be supplied to overcome the electrostatic forces holding atoms together — this is why the bond energy values are always positive. Bond making is always exothermic because atoms achieve a more stable, lower energy state when they bond together, releasing energy to the surroundings. To calculate ΔH, use the formula: ΔH = energy absorbed breaking bonds − energy released making bonds. First, identify and count all the bonds that are broken in the reactant molecules, then multiply each bond count by the bond energy value from the data table. Do the same for all the bonds formed in the product molecules. Subtracting the total bonds made from the total bonds broken gives ΔH. If ΔH is negative, the reaction is exothermic — more energy was released making bonds in the products than was absorbed breaking bonds in the reactants, so energy is transferred to the surroundings. If ΔH is positive, the reaction is endothermic — more energy was absorbed breaking bonds than was released making new ones. The main limitation of this method is that bond energy values in data tables are averages calculated from many different molecules. The actual bond energy of, for example, a C-H bond varies slightly depending on the other atoms in the molecule. This means the calculated ΔH value is always approximate and may differ from the experimental value. Calculations also assume all species are in the gaseous state, which is an additional source of inaccuracy.

  • Bond breaking is endothermic — energy must be absorbed from surroundings to overcome the attractive forces between bonded atoms (1m)
  • Bond making is exothermic — energy is released to the surroundings as atoms form stable bonds with lower potential energy (1m)
  • ΔH is calculated using: ΔH = Σ(bond energies of bonds broken) − Σ(bond energies of bonds made) (1m)
  • Count all bonds broken in reactant molecules and all bonds formed in product molecules using bond energy values from a data table (1m)
  • A negative ΔH indicates an exothermic reaction (more energy released making bonds); a positive ΔH indicates an endothermic reaction (more energy absorbed breaking bonds) (1m)
  • Limitation: bond energy values in tables are average values and actual bond energies vary depending on the molecular environment; calculations also assume gaseous state for all species (1m)

This 6-mark question covers the full bond energy topic. A full-marks answer must address all four bullet points: (1) bond breaking is endothermic because energy must be put in to separate atoms; bond making is exothermic because energy is released as atoms form a stable arrangement. (2) Method: list all bonds broken in reactants and multiply by their bond energies; list all bonds made in products and multiply; delta H = total breaking - total making. (3) Negative delta H = exothermic; positive delta H = endothermic. (4) Limitations: values are averages (vary with molecular environment); assumes gaseous state. Partial credit is awarded for each correctly addressed bullet point.

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2.

Methane burns in oxygen: CH₄ + 2O₂ → CO₂ + 2H₂O. Bond energies: C-H = 413 kJ/mol, O=O = 498 kJ/mol, C=O = 805 kJ/mol, O-H = 463 kJ/mol. (a) Use bond energies to calculate ΔH for the combustion of methane. Show all your working. (b) Sketch a reaction profile for this reaction and label the activation energy and overall energy change.

6 marks · challenge

Bonds broken: 4 C-H = 4 × 413 = 1652 kJ/mol. 2 O=O = 2 × 498 = 996 kJ/mol. Total broken = 2648 kJ/mol. Bonds made: CO₂ contains 2 C=O bonds = 2 × 805 = 1610 kJ/mol. 2H₂O contains 4 O-H bonds = 4 × 463 = 1852 kJ/mol. Total made = 3462 kJ/mol. ΔH = 2648 − 3462 = −814 kJ/mol. The reaction is exothermic. The reaction profile shows reactants at a higher energy level than products. The peak is above both. Activation energy is labelled from reactants level to the peak. Overall energy change (ΔH, negative) is labelled from reactants level down to products level.

  • Bonds broken: 4 × C-H = 4 × 413 = 1652 kJ/mol AND 2 × O=O = 2 × 498 = 996 kJ/mol. Total broken = 2648 kJ/mol (1m)
  • Bonds made: CO₂ has 2 C=O bonds = 2 × 805 = 1610 kJ/mol AND 2H₂O has 4 O-H bonds = 4 × 463 = 1852 kJ/mol. Total made = 3462 kJ/mol (1m)
  • ΔH = 2648 − 3462 = −814 kJ/mol (accept −812 to −816 for rounding) (1m)
  • Reaction profile correctly drawn as exothermic: reactants at higher energy than products, peak above reactants (1m)
  • Activation energy correctly labelled: arrow/bracket from reactants energy level to peak (1m)
  • Overall energy change (ΔH) correctly labelled: arrow/bracket from reactants level down to products level, with negative sign or downward arrow indicating exothermic (1m)

This question combines two topics: bond energy calculation (topic 32) and reaction profiles (topic 31). For part (a): bonds broken in CH₄ + 2O₂: 4 C-H bonds (4 × 413 = 1652) + 2 O=O bonds (2 × 498 = 996) = 2648 kJ/mol total. Bonds made in CO₂ + 2H₂O: 2 C=O bonds in CO₂ (2 × 805 = 1610) + 4 O-H bonds in 2H₂O (4 × 463 = 1852) = 3462 kJ/mol total. ΔH = 2648 − 3462 = −814 kJ/mol. Negative = exothermic. For part (b): the reaction profile should show reactants at a higher energy than products (since ΔH is negative/exothermic), a peak representing the transition state, the activation energy as the energy gap from reactants to the peak, and the overall energy change (ΔH) as the gap from reactants down to products. A common mistake is drawing an endothermic profile (products higher than reactants) when the ΔH is clearly negative.

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3.

A chemist uses bond energy data to calculate ΔH for a reaction and obtains a value of −320 kJ/mol. The true experimentally measured value is −347 kJ/mol. Evaluate the use of bond energy calculations to predict whether a reaction will be exothermic or endothermic, discussing the limitations that explain the difference between the calculated and experimental values.

6 marks · challenge

The calculation and the experimental value are both negative (−320 and −347 kJ/mol), so bond energy calculations correctly predict the reaction is exothermic. This shows bond energy calculations are useful for determining the direction of energy change. However, the calculated value differs from the experimental value because of limitations in the method. First, the bond energy values used are average values taken from measurements across many different molecules. The actual energy of any specific bond depends on its molecular environment — the atoms surrounding it — so average values are only an approximation. Second, bond energy calculations assume all species are in the gaseous state throughout the reaction. If any reactant or product is a liquid or solid, the energy involved in overcoming intermolecular forces during phase changes is not accounted for. These factors together mean the calculated value is only an estimate, explaining the 27 kJ/mol difference.

  • The calculation correctly predicts the sign of ΔH (both values are negative, confirming the reaction is exothermic) — bond energy calculations are useful for identifying direction of energy change (1m)
  • Tabulated bond energies are average values obtained from measurements across many different molecules and reaction environments (1m)
  • The actual bond energy of a given bond type varies depending on the surrounding atoms (molecular environment), so using average values introduces inaccuracy (1m)
  • Bond energy calculations assume all reactants and products are in the gaseous state (1m)
  • If reactants or products are liquids or solids in reality, the energy associated with changing state (intermolecular forces) is not included in the calculation (1m)
  • Therefore the calculated value is only an estimate/approximation of the true enthalpy change, which accounts for the −27 kJ/mol discrepancy (1m)

This question demands two layers of analysis: (1) what bond energy calculations CAN do well and (2) what their inherent limitations are. On the positive side, bond energy calculations reliably predict the DIRECTION of energy change (exothermic vs endothermic) — a negative ΔH from the calculation correctly predicts an exothermic reaction. The calculation is also quick and requires only a data table. However, three key limitations explain why −320 ≠ −347: First, tabulated bond energies are AVERAGE values measured across many molecules. The actual energy of a C-H bond in methane is not identical to a C-H bond in ethanol because the surrounding atoms affect the electron density. Second, bond energy calculations assume ALL species are in the gaseous state. If reactants or products are liquids or solids, the energy cost of phase change is not accounted for. Third, the calculation treats the reaction as if it proceeds purely through bond breaking then bond making, ignoring intermolecular interactions in condensed phases. For full marks, students must identify at least the averages limitation and the gaseous state assumption, and explain WHY they cause a discrepancy.

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4.

Compare an exothermic and an endothermic reaction in terms of: the direction of energy transfer with the surroundings; the relative energy levels of reactants and products; the shape of the reaction profile. Then explain how a catalyst affects the reaction profile and activation energy of both types of reaction.

6 marks · challenge

In an exothermic reaction, energy is transferred to the surroundings and the temperature of the surroundings rises. In an endothermic reaction, energy is absorbed from the surroundings and the temperature of the surroundings falls. On a reaction profile, an exothermic reaction shows reactants at a higher energy than products (ΔH is negative). An endothermic reaction shows products at a higher energy than reactants (ΔH is positive). Both profiles show a peak above the reactant energy level representing the transition state. The activation energy is the energy difference from reactants to this peak. Adding a catalyst provides an alternative pathway with a lower activation energy — the peak on the profile is lowered. However, the catalyst does not change the energy levels of reactants or products, so the overall energy change (ΔH) stays the same. This is true for both exothermic and endothermic reactions.

  • Exothermic: energy transferred TO the surroundings; temperature of surroundings increases. Endothermic: energy transferred FROM the surroundings; temperature of surroundings decreases (1m)
  • Exothermic: reactants are at a higher energy level than products (ΔH negative). Endothermic: products are at a higher energy level than reactants (ΔH positive) (1m)
  • Both profiles have a peak (transition state) above the reactant energy level. In an exothermic profile the products end lower than reactants; in an endothermic profile the products end higher than reactants (1m)
  • A catalyst provides an alternative reaction pathway with a lower activation energy — the peak on the profile is lower with a catalyst than without (1m)
  • A catalyst does NOT change the energy levels of reactants or products, and does NOT change ΔH (1m)
  • This applies equally to both exothermic and endothermic reactions — a catalyst lowers the activation energy for both, making the reaction faster without altering the overall energy change (1m)

This question is a direct cross-topic synthesis drawing on topics 29 (exothermic), 30 (endothermic), and 31 (reaction profiles), with the catalyst element from rates of reaction. For energy transfer: exothermic reactions transfer energy TO the surroundings (temperature rises); endothermic reactions transfer energy FROM the surroundings (temperature falls). For energy levels on profiles: exothermic shows reactants higher, products lower (ΔH negative); endothermic shows products higher, reactants lower (ΔH positive). For profile shape: both have a peak (transition state) above the reactant level — but in endothermic reactions the products are above the reactant starting level, while in exothermic they are below. For catalysts: a catalyst provides an alternative reaction pathway with a lower activation energy. On the reaction profile, adding a catalyst lowers the peak — the hill is shorter. Crucially, a catalyst does NOT change the energy levels of reactants or products, and does NOT change ΔH. The overall energy change remains the same; only the activation energy decreases. For 6 marks, students must address all three comparison areas AND the catalyst effect, explaining both what changes and what stays the same.

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5.

Explain why breaking bonds is endothermic and forming bonds is exothermic. Use this to explain why the overall energy change for neutralisation between a strong acid and a strong alkali is exothermic.

5 marks · challenge

Bond breaking is endothermic because energy must be absorbed from the surroundings to overcome the electrostatic attraction holding atoms together. Bond forming is exothermic because energy is released to the surroundings as atoms come together in a stable, lower-energy arrangement. In neutralisation, bonds are broken in the acid and alkali — this requires energy. New bonds then form in the water molecules and salt produced. Because the energy released making these new bonds is greater than the energy absorbed breaking the original bonds, the overall energy change is negative. The reaction is exothermic — more energy is released to the surroundings than was taken in.

  • Bond breaking is endothermic because energy must be absorbed/input to overcome the attractive forces (electrostatic attraction) between bonded atoms (1m)
  • Bond forming is exothermic because energy is released to the surroundings as atoms form a more stable, lower-energy arrangement (1m)
  • In neutralisation, bonds are broken in the acid and alkali (e.g. O-H bonds) (1m)
  • New bonds form in the products (water molecules and salt) — more energy is released making bonds than was absorbed breaking them (1m)
  • Because the energy released (bond making) exceeds the energy absorbed (bond breaking), the overall energy change is negative/exothermic — energy is transferred to the surroundings (1m)

This question links bond energy principles (topic 32) to exothermic reactions (topic 29) and asks students to apply them to a specific context. Breaking bonds is endothermic because energy must be supplied to overcome the electrostatic attraction between atoms — separating atoms from a stable arrangement requires an energy input. Forming bonds is exothermic because when atoms come together, they move to a lower energy, more stable arrangement, releasing energy to the surroundings. For neutralisation: the bonds broken (O-H in acid, N-H or O-H in alkali) require less energy than the energy released when new bonds form (O-H in water and ionic bonds in the salt). Because bond making releases more energy than bond breaking requires, the overall reaction is exothermic — energy is released to the surroundings. A common misconception is that exothermic means energy is created. Remind students that energy is transferred, not made.

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6.

A reaction has a total bond-breaking energy of 1648 kJ/mol and a total bond-forming energy of 1856 kJ/mol. (a) Calculate ΔH for this reaction. (b) State whether the reaction is exothermic or endothermic. (c) Describe the key features of the reaction profile you would draw for this reaction, including the relative positions of reactants and products and the labels for activation energy and overall energy change.

5 marks · challenge

ΔH = 1648 − 1856 = −208 kJ/mol. The negative value shows the reaction is exothermic — the energy released making bonds (1856 kJ/mol) is greater than the energy absorbed breaking bonds (1648 kJ/mol). On the reaction profile, reactants are drawn at a higher energy level than products. The curve rises from reactants to a peak (transition state) then falls down to the products level. Activation energy is labelled as the upward arrow from reactants to the peak. The overall energy change (ΔH = −208 kJ/mol) is the downward arrow from reactants to products.

  • ΔH = bonds broken − bonds made = 1648 − 1856 = −208 kJ/mol (1m)
  • The reaction is exothermic (ΔH is negative, so more energy released making bonds than absorbed breaking bonds) (1m)
  • Reactants drawn at a higher energy level than products on the profile (exothermic = products lower) (1m)
  • A peak (transition state) shown above the reactants energy level, representing the activation energy barrier (1m)
  • Activation energy labelled as the energy difference from reactants to the peak; overall energy change (ΔH, −208 kJ/mol) labelled from reactants level down to products level (1m)

This question tests three linked skills: bond energy arithmetic, classifying a reaction, and translating a numerical result into a reaction profile description. ΔH = bonds broken − bonds made = 1648 − 1856 = −208 kJ/mol. The negative sign tells us the reaction is exothermic — more energy was released making bonds than was absorbed breaking them. For the reaction profile: since the reaction is exothermic (energy released), the products are at a LOWER energy level than the reactants. The curve rises from reactants to a peak (transition state) then falls to products below the reactant level. The activation energy is the energy difference from the reactant level to the peak. The overall energy change (ΔH = −208 kJ/mol) is the downward arrow from reactants to products. Students commonly mix up which way ΔH points on the profile, or draw products higher than reactants for an exothermic reaction.

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7.

Hydrogen burns in oxygen according to: 2H₂ + O₂ → 2H₂O. Bond energies: H-H = 436 kJ/mol, O=O = 498 kJ/mol, O-H = 463 kJ/mol. Calculate ΔH for this reaction, showing all your working.

4 marks · higher

Bonds broken: 2 × H-H = 2 × 436 = 872 kJ/mol. 1 × O=O = 498 kJ/mol. Total broken = 1370 kJ/mol. Bonds made: 2H₂O has 4 O-H bonds. 4 × O-H = 4 × 463 = 1852 kJ/mol. ΔH = 1370 − 1852 = −482 kJ/mol. The negative value shows the reaction is exothermic.

  • Bonds broken: 2 × H-H = 2 × 436 = 872 kJ/mol (1m)
  • Bonds broken: 1 × O=O = 498 kJ/mol. Total bonds broken = 872 + 498 = 1370 kJ/mol (1m)
  • Bonds made: 4 × O-H = 4 × 463 = 1852 kJ/mol (2H₂O gives 4 O-H bonds) (1m)
  • ΔH = 1370 − 1852 = −482 kJ/mol (exothermic) (1m)

Bonds broken: 2H₂ gives 2 H-H bonds (2 × 436 = 872) + 1 O₂ gives 1 O=O bond (498). Total broken = 1370 kJ/mol. Bonds made: 2H₂O gives 4 O-H bonds (4 × 463 = 1852). Delta H = 1370 - 1852 = -482 kJ/mol. Exothermic because negative. Note that 2H₂O contains 4 O-H bonds (2 per molecule × 2 molecules) — forgetting the coefficient is a very common error.

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8.

Ammonia is made by the Haber process: N₂ + 3H₂ → 2NH₃. Bond energies: N≡N = 945 kJ/mol, H-H = 436 kJ/mol, N-H = 391 kJ/mol. Calculate ΔH and state whether this reaction is exothermic or endothermic.

4 marks · higher

Bonds broken: 1 × N≡N (945) + 3 × H-H (3 × 436 = 1308) = 2253 kJ/mol. Bonds made: 2NH₃ has 6 N-H bonds total. 6 × N-H = 6 × 391 = 2346 kJ/mol. ΔH = 2253 − 2346 = −93 kJ/mol. The negative value shows the reaction is exothermic.

  • Bonds broken: 1 × N≡N = 945 kJ/mol, 3 × H-H = 3 × 436 = 1308 kJ/mol. Total = 2253 kJ/mol (1m)
  • Bonds made: 2 × NH₃ = 6 N-H bonds. 6 × N-H = 6 × 391 = 2346 kJ/mol (1m)
  • ΔH = 2253 − 2346 = −93 kJ/mol (1m)
  • The reaction is exothermic (negative ΔH) (1m)

Bonds broken: N₂ has 1 N≡N (945) + 3H₂ have 3 H-H (3 × 436 = 1308). Total = 2253 kJ/mol. Bonds made: 2NH₃ contain 6 N-H bonds (6 × 391 = 2346). Delta H = 2253 - 2346 = -93 kJ/mol. Negative value = exothermic. A key detail: 2NH₃ has 6 N-H bonds in total (3 per molecule), not just 3. Failing to account for the coefficient of 2 is a common error.

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9.

Methane burns in oxygen: CH₄ + 2O₂ → CO₂ + 2H₂O. Bond energies: C-H = 413 kJ/mol, O=O = 498 kJ/mol, C=O = 805 kJ/mol, O-H = 463 kJ/mol. Show how to calculate ΔH for this reaction.

3 marks · standard

Bonds broken: 4 × C-H = 4 × 413 = 1652 kJ/mol and 2 × O=O = 2 × 498 = 996 kJ/mol. Total bonds broken = 2648 kJ/mol. Bonds made: 2 × C=O = 2 × 805 = 1610 kJ/mol and 4 × O-H = 4 × 463 = 1852 kJ/mol. Total bonds made = 3462 kJ/mol. ΔH = 2648 − 3462 = −814 kJ/mol. The reaction is exothermic.

  • Energy to break bonds in reactants: 4 × C-H (4 × 413 = 1652) + 2 × O=O (2 × 498 = 996) = 2648 kJ/mol (1m)
  • Energy released making bonds in products: 2 × C=O (2 × 805 = 1610) + 4 × O-H (4 × 463 = 1852) = 3462 kJ/mol (1m)
  • ΔH = 2648 − 3462 = −814 kJ/mol (exothermic) (1m)

Step 1 — count bonds broken in reactants: CH₄ has 4 C-H bonds (4 × 413 = 1652); 2O₂ has 2 O=O bonds (2 × 498 = 996). Total broken = 2648 kJ/mol. Step 2 — count bonds made in products: CO₂ has 2 C=O bonds (2 × 805 = 1610); 2H₂O has 4 O-H bonds (4 × 463 = 1852). Total made = 3462 kJ/mol. Step 3: delta H = 2648 - 3462 = -814 kJ/mol. Negative sign confirms exothermic. Counting bonds carefully (especially the coefficients) is the most common source of error.

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10.

Explain, in terms of bond energies, why combustion reactions are always exothermic.

3 marks · higher

In combustion, bonds are broken in the fuel and in oxygen molecules. New bonds are then formed in the products, carbon dioxide and water. More energy is released when the strong C=O and O-H bonds in the products form than is absorbed when the weaker bonds in the fuel and O=O bonds are broken. Because more energy is released than absorbed, the overall reaction is exothermic.

  • Bonds are broken in the fuel molecules and in oxygen (O=O bonds) (1m)
  • New bonds are formed in the products (C=O in CO₂ and O-H in H₂O) (1m)
  • More energy is released making the new bonds in the products than is absorbed breaking bonds in the reactants (1m)

Combustion breaks bonds in the fuel and O₂ (absorbs energy), then forms very strong C=O bonds in CO₂ and O-H bonds in H₂O (releases energy). The C=O and O-H bonds in the products are very strong, so the energy released making them always exceeds the energy required to break the weaker bonds in the fuel. Therefore, the overall energy change is always negative (exothermic).

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11.

A student calculates ΔH = +180 kJ/mol for a reaction. Explain what this value tells us about bond breaking and bond making in this reaction.

3 marks · higher

A ΔH of +180 kJ/mol means the reaction is endothermic. More energy was absorbed breaking the bonds in the reactants than was released when new bonds formed in the products. The energy needed to break bonds exceeded the energy released making bonds by 180 kJ/mol.

  • The positive ΔH indicates the reaction is endothermic (1m)
  • More energy was absorbed breaking bonds in the reactants than was released making bonds in the products (1m)
  • The energy absorbed breaking bonds exceeds the energy released making bonds by 180 kJ/mol (1m)

A positive delta H (+180 kJ/mol) indicates an endothermic reaction. This means the energy required to break bonds in the reactants (absorbed) was greater than the energy released when new bonds formed in the products. The difference between these two energy values is 180 kJ/mol, which was absorbed from the surroundings. A common error is interpreting a positive delta H as exothermic.

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12.

A student calculates ΔH for a reaction as −750 kJ/mol using bond energy data. The experimentally measured value is −803 kJ/mol. Evaluate the limitations of using bond energy data to calculate ΔH.

3 marks · higher

Bond energy values used in calculations are average values obtained from measurements across many different molecules and bonds. The actual energy of a specific bond varies depending on the atoms surrounding it in the molecule. Additionally, bond energy calculations assume all reactants and products are in the gaseous state, but reactions often involve liquids or solids, meaning the calculated value will differ from the true experimental value.

  • Bond energy values used in calculations are average values taken from many different molecules (1m)
  • The actual bond energy of a specific bond varies depending on its molecular environment (neighbouring atoms) (1m)
  • Bond energy calculations assume all species are in the gaseous state, which may not reflect the actual reaction conditions (1m)

The discrepancy (-750 vs -803 kJ/mol) arises because of the limitations of bond energy data. Limitation 1: tabulated values are averages across many molecules; the actual bond energy depends on the specific molecular environment. Limitation 2: bond energy calculations assume all species are gases, but real reactions may involve liquids or solutions. For 3 marks, cover: averages, environment-dependent variation, and gas-phase assumption. This is a higher-tier evaluate question requiring critical analysis.

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13.

State whether bond breaking and bond making are endothermic or exothermic processes. Give a reason for each.

2 marks · foundation

Bond breaking is endothermic because energy must be absorbed to overcome the forces holding the atoms together. Bond making is exothermic because energy is released to the surroundings when atoms form a more stable bonded arrangement.

  • Bond breaking is endothermic — energy must be absorbed/input to overcome the attraction between atoms (1m)
  • Bond making is exothermic — energy is released to the surroundings as atoms form a more stable arrangement (1m)

This is a foundational fact: bond BREAKING is endothermic (energy must be absorbed to pull atoms apart), while bond MAKING is exothermic (energy is released as atoms come together in a more stable arrangement). Confusing these two is one of the most common errors in energy change questions.

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14.

Explain how you would determine, from a bond energy calculation, whether a reaction is exothermic or endothermic.

2 marks · standard

If the energy released when making bonds in the products is greater than the energy absorbed when breaking bonds in the reactants, the reaction is exothermic and ΔH is negative. If the energy absorbed breaking bonds is greater, the reaction is endothermic and ΔH is positive.

  • If energy released making bonds is greater than energy absorbed breaking bonds, the reaction is exothermic (ΔH is negative) (1m)
  • If energy absorbed breaking bonds is greater than energy released making bonds, the reaction is endothermic (ΔH is positive) (1m)

Calculate delta H = (energy to break bonds in reactants) minus (energy released making bonds in products). If the result is negative, forming bonds released more energy than breaking bonds absorbed — the reaction is exothermic. If positive, more energy was absorbed than released — the reaction is endothermic. A helpful memory rule: positive delta H = endothermic (energy 'put in'); negative delta H = exothermic (energy 'given out').

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15.

In a reaction, the total energy needed to break bonds is 840 kJ/mol and the total energy released when bonds form is 1050 kJ/mol. Calculate ΔH for this reaction. Give the sign and units in your answer.

2 marks · standard
  • ΔH = 840 − 1050 (correct method shown) (1m)
  • ΔH = −210 kJ/mol (correct answer with negative sign) (1m)

ΔH = energy absorbed breaking bonds − energy released making bonds = 840 − 1050 = −210 kJ/mol. The negative sign shows this is an exothermic reaction.

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16.

Explain why bond energy calculations give approximate values rather than exact values for the enthalpy change of a reaction.

2 marks · standard

Bond energy values used in calculations are average values taken from measurements across many different molecules. The actual energy of a specific C-H bond, for example, varies slightly depending on the other atoms in the molecule, so the calculation gives an approximate rather than exact answer.

  • Bond energies in data tables are average values measured across many different molecules (1m)
  • The actual bond energy for a specific bond varies depending on the surrounding atoms/rest of the molecule (1m)

Bond energies listed in data tables are AVERAGE values calculated from measurements across many different molecules. However, the actual energy of, say, a C-H bond in methane is slightly different from a C-H bond in ethanol because the surrounding atoms influence the bond. Since the tabulated values are averages, calculations give an approximate delta H rather than an exact value. This is a key limitation of the method.

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17.

Which statement correctly describes the energy change when chemical bonds are broken?

  • A. Energy is released to the surroundings
  • B. Energy is absorbed from the surroundings
  • C. No energy change occurs
  • D. Energy may be released or absorbed depending on the bond
1 mark · foundation

Breaking bonds always requires energy input from the surroundings. This is an endothermic process because energy must be supplied to overcome the attraction holding atoms together.

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18.

When new chemical bonds are formed during a reaction, energy is:

  • A. Always absorbed from the surroundings
  • B. Never changed
  • C. Always released to the surroundings
  • D. Sometimes released, sometimes absorbed
1 mark · foundation

Bond making always releases energy to the surroundings. New bonds are more stable than separated atoms, so the system loses energy (exothermic) when they form.

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19.

In a reaction, the energy needed to break bonds is 500 kJ/mol and the energy released when bonds form is 700 kJ/mol. The overall reaction is:

  • A. Exothermic, because more energy is released making bonds than is absorbed breaking bonds
  • B. Endothermic, because more energy is needed to break bonds
  • C. Neither exothermic nor endothermic
  • D. Endothermic, because energy is always needed to start a reaction
1 mark · foundation

Energy released making bonds (700 kJ) > energy absorbed breaking bonds (500 kJ). The extra 200 kJ is released to surroundings, making the reaction exothermic. ΔH = 500 − 700 = −200 kJ/mol.

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20.

State what is meant by the term 'bond energy'.

1 mark · foundation

Bond energy is the energy required to break one mole of a particular covalent bond in gaseous molecules.

  • The energy required to break one mole of a specific bond (in gaseous molecules) (1m)

Bond energy is the energy needed to break one mole of a specific covalent bond. It is always a positive value because bond breaking always requires energy (it is endothermic). Bond energies are measured in kJ/mol and are used to calculate overall energy changes in reactions.

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21.

What is the correct definition of bond energy?

  • A. The energy released when one mole of a substance burns completely
  • B. The energy needed to break one mole of a particular bond in gaseous molecules
  • C. The total energy stored in all bonds of one mole of a compound
  • D. The energy released when atoms form one mole of ionic bonds
1 mark · standard

Bond energy (units: kJ/mol) is the energy required to break one mole of a specific covalent bond in gaseous molecules under standard conditions. It is always positive because bond breaking requires energy.

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22.

Which formula is used to calculate the overall energy change (ΔH) of a reaction using bond energies?

  • A. ΔH = energy released making bonds − energy absorbed breaking bonds
  • B. ΔH = energy absorbed breaking bonds × energy released making bonds
  • C. ΔH = energy released making bonds + energy absorbed breaking bonds
  • D. ΔH = energy absorbed breaking bonds − energy released making bonds
1 mark · standard

ΔH = energy in (bonds broken) − energy out (bonds made). A negative result means exothermic (more energy released than absorbed); a positive result means endothermic.

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23.

A student uses bond energies from a data table to calculate ΔH for a reaction. The student notices their answer differs from the experimentally measured value. Which statement best explains this?

  • A. Bond energy values in tables are average values and may not match the exact bond in the molecule
  • B. The student used the wrong formula
  • C. Bond energies are only valid for ionic compounds
  • D. Bond energy calculations always give the exact experimental value
1 mark · standard

Tabulated bond energies are average values measured across many different molecules. The actual bond energy for a specific C-H bond, for example, varies slightly depending on the rest of the molecule. This is why bond energy calculations give approximate, not exact, results.

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24.

For the reaction H₂ + ½O₂ → H₂O, using bond energies H-H = 436 kJ/mol, O=O = 498 kJ/mol, O-H = 463 kJ/mol, what is ΔH?

  • A. +241 kJ/mol
  • B. +685 kJ/mol
  • C. −241 kJ/mol
  • D. −926 kJ/mol
1 mark · standard

Bonds broken: 1×H-H (436) + ½×O=O (249) = 685 kJ. Bonds made: 2×O-H (926) = 926 kJ. ΔH = 685 − 926 = −241 kJ/mol. Negative = exothermic.

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25.

A reaction has ΔH = +320 kJ/mol. Which conclusion can be drawn about the bond energies involved?

  • A. More energy was released making bonds than was absorbed breaking bonds
  • B. Equal energy was absorbed and released
  • C. No bonds were broken in this reaction
  • D. More energy was absorbed breaking bonds than was released making bonds
1 mark · standard

A positive ΔH indicates an endothermic reaction. Using ΔH = energy in (breaking) − energy out (making): a positive result means energy in > energy out, so more energy was absorbed breaking bonds than was released making bonds.

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Group 7: Halogens

22
1.

Describe the trend in reactivity of halogens going down Group 7 and explain this trend in terms of atomic structure.

6 marks · higher

Reactivity decreases as you go down Group 7. All halogens have 7 electrons in their outer shell and react by gaining 1 electron to form -1 ions. Going down the group, atoms have more electron shells and a larger atomic radius. This means the outer shell is further from the nucleus. There is therefore a weaker electrostatic attraction between the nucleus and an incoming electron, making it harder to gain an electron. As a result, the halogens become less reactive going down the group.

  • Reactivity decreases going down Group 7 (1m)
  • All halogens have 7 electrons in their outer shell (1m)
  • They react by gaining 1 electron to form -1 ions (1m)
  • Going down the group, atoms have more electron shells and are larger (1m)
  • The outer shell is further from the nucleus going down the group (1m)
  • Weaker nuclear attraction for incoming electrons, so harder to gain an electron — less reactive (1m)

This 6-mark extended question requires a complete explanation. Key mark points: (1) reactivity decreases down Group 7; (2) halogens all have 7 outer electrons; (3) they react by gaining 1 electron to form -1 ions; (4) going down the group, atoms have more electron shells / larger radius; (5) outer shell is further from the nucleus; (6) weaker nuclear attraction makes it harder to gain an electron / reactivity falls. A common error is to describe reactivity of metals (losing electrons) instead of halogens (gaining electrons).

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2.

Explain the trend in reactivity of the halogens going down Group 7. Use ideas about electron configuration, nuclear attraction, and the ease of gaining an electron to construct a complete explanation.

5 marks · challenge

Reactivity decreases going down Group 7 from fluorine to iodine. All halogens have 7 electrons in their outer shell and react by gaining 1 electron to form a -1 ion (a halide ion), completing the outer shell to 8 electrons. Going down Group 7, each element has one more electron shell than the element above, so the outer shell is progressively further from the nucleus and there is more shielding of the outer shell from the nuclear charge by the inner electron shells. As a result, the electrostatic attraction between the nucleus and an incoming electron becomes weaker going down the group. This means it becomes progressively harder to gain an electron, so the halogens become less reactive going down the group. This is the opposite trend to Group 1 metals: in Group 1, reactivity increases down the group because the outer electron becomes easier to lose, whereas in Group 7, reactivity decreases because gaining an electron becomes harder.

  • Reactivity decreases going down Group 7 (1m)
  • Halogens have 7 outer electrons and react by gaining 1 electron to form -1 (halide) ions (1m)
  • Going down the group, atoms have more electron shells — outer shell is further from the nucleus (1m)
  • More inner shells provide more shielding — nuclear attraction for incoming electron is reduced (1m)
  • Gaining an electron becomes progressively harder down the group — reactivity decreases; contrast with Group 1 where losing an electron becomes easier (1m)

This 5-mark extended answer requires a complete causal chain: (1) state the trend — reactivity decreases; (2) link the reaction type to electron gain (gaining 1e⁻ to form -1 ion); (3) more shells, outer shell further from nucleus; (4) more shielding, weaker nuclear attraction for incoming electron; (5) harder to gain electron — less reactive. The contrast with Group 1 (opposite trend because losing vs gaining electrons) is a high-quality addition that earns the fifth mark. A very common error is mixing up the direction of electron transfer — halogens GAIN electrons, Group 1 metals LOSE electrons. Students who write 'halogens react by losing electrons' receive a negativeKeyword penalty.

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3.

Chlorine water is added to potassium bromide solution and a colour change is observed. When chlorine water is replaced with iodine solution and added to potassium bromide solution, no colour change occurs. Explain these observations in terms of halogen reactivity and electron gain, and state what this tells us about the relative reactivity of chlorine, bromine, and iodine.

4 marks · challenge

Chlorine is more reactive than bromine. When chlorine water is added to potassium bromide solution, chlorine displaces bromide ions from the solution because chlorine is a more reactive halogen. Chlorine gains electrons from the bromide ions: Cl₂ + 2Br⁻ → 2Cl⁻ + Br₂. Bromine is produced, which turns the solution orange-brown. Iodine is less reactive than bromine, so it cannot displace bromide ions from potassium bromide solution. Iodine has less tendency to gain electrons than bromine because iodine atoms have more electron shells, placing the outer shell further from the nucleus with more shielding, so the nuclear attraction for an incoming electron is weaker. Since iodine cannot gain electrons from bromide ions in competition, no displacement occurs and there is no colour change. This confirms that reactivity decreases down Group 7: chlorine > bromine > iodine. A more reactive halogen can displace a less reactive one from its salt solution, but not the reverse.

  • Chlorine displaces bromide from KBr because Cl is more reactive than Br — produces bromine (orange/brown colour change) (1m)
  • Iodine does not displace bromide because iodine is less reactive than bromine — no colour change (1m)
  • Explanation using atomic structure: iodine has more electron shells / outer shell further from nucleus / more shielding — nuclear attraction for incoming electron is weaker (1m)
  • Conclusion: reactivity order is Cl > Br > I; a more reactive halogen can displace a less reactive one from its salt, but not vice versa (1m)

This question tests displacement reactions as evidence for the halogen reactivity series. The key principle is: a more reactive halogen can displace a less reactive one from a solution of its salt, because the more reactive halogen gains electrons more readily. Chlorine can displace bromide (Cl more reactive than Br), but iodine cannot displace bromide (I less reactive than Br). The atomic structure explanation — more electron shells, greater shielding, weaker nuclear attraction, harder to gain an electron — explains why reactivity decreases from Cl to Br to I. Students often know the observations but struggle to link them to electron gain and nuclear attraction.

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4.

State the colour and physical state at room temperature of chlorine, bromine, and iodine.

3 marks · foundation

Chlorine is a green gas at room temperature. Bromine is an orange-brown liquid at room temperature. Iodine is a grey-black solid at room temperature.

  • Chlorine: green (or yellow-green) gas (1m)
  • Bromine: orange (or orange-brown or reddish-brown) liquid (1m)
  • Iodine: grey (or grey-black or dark) solid (1m)

You need to learn these three: Chlorine — pale green gas; Bromine — orange-brown liquid (the only non-metal liquid at room temperature); Iodine — grey-black solid. Going down Group 7, the halogens get darker in colour and their boiling points increase (gas to liquid to solid).

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5.

Explain why chlorine is more reactive than bromine.

3 marks · standard

Chlorine has fewer electron shells than bromine, so its outer shell is closer to the nucleus. This means there is a stronger electrostatic attraction between the nucleus and an incoming electron, making it easier for chlorine to gain an electron and form a chloride ion.

  • Chlorine has fewer electron shells than bromine / is a smaller atom (1m)
  • The outer shell is closer to the nucleus in chlorine (1m)
  • Stronger nuclear attraction for incoming electrons, so easier to gain an electron / more reactive (1m)

Halogen reactivity decreases down Group 7. Chlorine is more reactive than bromine because chlorine has fewer electron shells, so its outer shell is closer to the nucleus. The stronger nuclear attraction means chlorine more easily gains an electron (is reduced). Bromine has more electron shells (more shielding), so the outer shell is further from the nucleus and electrons are less strongly attracted. Key point: reactivity of halogens is about gaining electrons, not losing them.

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6.

Explain why iodine is less reactive than chlorine.

3 marks · standard

Iodine has more electron shells than chlorine, so its outer shell is much further from the nucleus. This means there is a weaker nuclear attraction for an incoming electron, making it harder for iodine to gain an electron and form an iodide ion.

  • Iodine has more electron shells than chlorine / is a larger atom (1m)
  • The outer shell is further from the nucleus in iodine (1m)
  • Weaker nuclear attraction for incoming electrons, so harder to gain an electron / less reactive (1m)

Iodine is less reactive than chlorine because iodine has more electron shells (5 compared to chlorine's 3). The extra shells mean iodine's outer shell is further from the nucleus and there is more electron shielding. The weaker nuclear attraction makes it harder for iodine to attract and gain an electron. This is the same argument as for chlorine vs bromine, but reversed.

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7.

Describe the trend in physical properties of halogens as you go down Group 7.

3 marks · standard

Going down Group 7, the colour of the halogens gets darker (from pale yellow to grey-black). Melting points and boiling points increase down the group. The physical state changes from gas (fluorine, chlorine) to liquid (bromine) to solid (iodine) at room temperature.

  • Colour gets darker going down the group (pale yellow to grey-black) (1m)
  • Melting points and boiling points increase down the group (1m)
  • State changes from gas to liquid to solid at room temperature going down the group (1m)

Three trends going down Group 7: (1) colour becomes darker — fluorine is pale yellow, chlorine is yellow-green, bromine is orange-brown, iodine is grey-black; (2) melting and boiling points increase, so physical state changes from gas to liquid to solid at room temperature; (3) molecules become larger so intermolecular forces (van der Waals) are stronger, requiring more energy to separate them. All three trends are needed for full marks.

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8.

Chlorine gas is bubbled through potassium bromide solution. Describe what you observe and explain why this happens. Include a balanced symbol equation.

3 marks · standard

The solution turns orange-brown. This is because chlorine is more reactive than bromine, so it displaces bromine from the potassium bromide solution. The balanced equation is: Cl₂(g) + 2KBr(aq) → 2KCl(aq) + Br₂(aq).

  • Solution turns orange-brown (as bromine is displaced) (1m)
  • Chlorine is more reactive than bromine / displaces bromine because it is more reactive (1m)
  • Balanced equation: Cl₂ + 2KBr → 2KCl + Br₂ (accept with or without state symbols) (1m)

Observable change: solution turns orange-brown (bromine released). Explanation: chlorine is more reactive than bromine, so it displaces bromine from its salt solution. Equation: Cl₂(g) + 2KBr(aq) → 2KCl(aq) + Br₂(aq). This is a redox reaction: chlorine is reduced (gains electrons from Br⁻ ions); bromide ions are oxidised. All three mark points — observation, explanation, equation — must be present for full marks.

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9.

Chlorine water is added to potassium iodide solution. Describe what you observe, explain why, and write a balanced equation for the reaction.

3 marks · standard

The solution turns brown as iodine is released. This is because chlorine is more reactive than iodine, so it displaces iodine from the potassium iodide solution. The balanced equation is: Cl₂(g) + 2KI(aq) → 2KCl(aq) + I₂(aq).

  • Solution turns brown (or dark orange-brown) as iodine is released (1m)
  • Chlorine is more reactive than iodine / displaces iodine because it is more reactive (1m)
  • Balanced equation: Cl₂ + 2KI → 2KCl + I₂ (accept with or without state symbols) (1m)

Observation: solution turns brown (iodine released). Explanation: chlorine is more reactive than iodine (higher up Group 7), so it displaces iodine from KI solution. Equation: Cl₂(g) + 2KI(aq) → 2KCl(aq) + I₂(aq). Note the colour change is brown (iodine in water), not orange-brown like bromine. All three parts — observation, explanation, equation — are required for full marks.

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10.

Astatine (At) is the halogen below iodine in Group 7. Using trends in Group 7, predict the physical state, colour, and reactivity of astatine at room temperature, giving a reason for the reactivity prediction.

3 marks · higher

Astatine would be a dark-coloured solid at room temperature, following the trend that colour gets darker and state changes from gas to liquid to solid going down the group. Astatine would be the least reactive halogen because it has the most electron shells, so its outer shell is furthest from the nucleus and the attraction for an incoming electron is the weakest.

  • Solid at room temperature (following the gas → liquid → solid trend down the group) (1m)
  • Dark colour (darker than iodine / black) — colour gets darker down the group (1m)
  • Least reactive because it has the most electron shells / outer shell is furthest from the nucleus / weakest attraction for an incoming electron (1m)

This question tests whether you can extrapolate Group 7 trends. Trends from top to bottom: darker colour, higher melting/boiling point (so solid at room temperature), lower reactivity. Astatine predictions: solid (following trend); very dark/black (following colour trend); least reactive halogen (most electron shells means outer shell furthest from nucleus and weakest nuclear attraction for electrons). Three distinct mark points need three distinct statements.

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11.

Describe the structure of a halogen molecule.

2 marks · foundation

Halogen molecules are diatomic, meaning they consist of two atoms. The two atoms are joined by a single covalent bond, sharing one pair of electrons.

  • Halogens exist as diatomic molecules (two atoms per molecule) (1m)
  • The two atoms are joined by a single covalent bond / share one pair of electrons (1m)

Halogens exist as diatomic molecules (e.g. Cl₂, Br₂, I₂). The two atoms are held together by a single covalent bond — a shared pair of electrons. A common misconception is that halogens are monatomic (single atoms), but they always exist as pairs bonded together.

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12.

What is a halogen displacement reaction? Give a definition.

2 marks · foundation

A halogen displacement reaction occurs when a more reactive halogen takes the place of a less reactive halogen in a compound, pushing the less reactive halogen out of solution.

  • A more reactive halogen takes the place of (displaces) a less reactive halogen (1m)
  • The less reactive halogen is released / pushed out of its compound or solution (1m)

Halogen displacement follows the reactivity trend in Group 7: more reactive halogens can displace less reactive halogens from their salt solutions. For example, chlorine (more reactive) displaces bromine from potassium bromide solution because chlorine gains electrons more easily. This is a redox reaction — the more reactive halogen is reduced (gains electrons) and the halide ion is oxidised (loses electrons).

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13.

Explain why bromine does NOT displace chlorine from sodium chloride solution.

2 marks · standard

Bromine cannot displace chlorine from sodium chloride solution because bromine is less reactive than chlorine. Only a more reactive halogen can displace a less reactive one from its compound.

  • Bromine is less reactive than chlorine (1m)
  • A less reactive halogen cannot displace a more reactive one from its compound (no reaction occurs) (1m)

Displacement only works if the halogen being added is MORE reactive than the halide in solution. Chlorine is higher in Group 7 than bromine, so chlorine is more reactive. Bromine cannot displace chlorine because you need a more reactive halogen to push out a less reactive one. No colour change would be observed if bromine water was added to NaCl solution.

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14.

Fluorine is at the top of Group 7. Predict and explain why fluorine is the most reactive halogen.

2 marks · higher

Fluorine is the most reactive halogen because it has the smallest atom with the fewest electron shells. Its outer shell is closest to the nucleus, giving the strongest nuclear attraction for an incoming electron, so fluorine can gain an electron most easily.

  • Fluorine is the most reactive halogen / has the smallest atom / fewest electron shells (1m)
  • Its outer shell is closest to the nucleus, giving the strongest attraction for an incoming electron / easiest to gain an electron (1m)

Fluorine has just 2 electron shells (electronic structure 2,7), so its outer shell is extremely close to the nucleus. The strong nuclear attraction makes fluorine the most powerful at gaining electrons — it is the most reactive halogen. This is an extension of the Group 7 reactivity trend applied to the top of the group. Fluorine is so reactive it is rarely used in school labs.

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15.

How many electrons do halogens have in their outer shell?

  • A. 1
  • B. 5
  • C. 7
  • D. 8
1 mark · foundation

Halogens are in Group 7 of the periodic table, so they have 7 electrons in their outer shell. This means they need to gain just 1 electron to achieve a full outer shell of 8, which drives their high reactivity.

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16.

What happens to the reactivity of halogens as you go down Group 7?

  • A. Increases
  • B. Stays the same
  • C. Varies unpredictably
  • D. Decreases
1 mark · foundation

Reactivity decreases down Group 7. As atoms get larger going down the group, the outer shell is further from the nucleus, so the attraction for an incoming electron is weaker. This is the opposite of Group 1, where reactivity increases down the group.

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17.

What charge do halide ions carry?

  • A. +2
  • B. +1
  • C. -1
  • D. -2
1 mark · foundation

Halogens gain 1 electron to achieve a full outer shell, forming halide ions with a 1- charge (e.g., Cl⁻, Br⁻, I⁻). This is why they are called halide ions in ionic compounds.

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18.

In what form do halogen elements naturally exist?

  • A. As diatomic molecules (pairs of atoms)
  • B. As single atoms
  • C. As giant ionic lattices
  • D. As triatomic molecules (three atoms)
1 mark · foundation

Halogens exist as diatomic molecules: F₂, Cl₂, Br₂, and I₂. Each molecule consists of two atoms joined by a single covalent bond, sharing one pair of electrons.

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19.

Chlorine gas is bubbled through potassium bromide solution. Which observation correctly describes what happens?

  • A. The solution remains colourless because no reaction occurs
  • B. The solution turns orange-brown as bromine is displaced
  • C. The solution turns purple as iodine is produced
  • D. The solution turns blue as chlorine dissolves
1 mark · standard

Chlorine is more reactive than bromine, so it displaces bromine from potassium bromide solution. The displaced bromine turns the solution orange-brown. The equation is: Cl₂(g) + 2KBr(aq) → 2KCl(aq) + Br₂(aq).

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20.

Which of the following correctly predicts whether bromine will displace iodine from potassium iodide solution?

  • A. Yes, because bromine is more reactive than iodine
  • B. No, because bromine is less reactive than iodine
  • C. Yes, because iodine is more reactive than bromine
  • D. No, because halogens cannot displace each other
1 mark · standard

Bromine is above iodine in Group 7, so it is more reactive and can displace iodine from potassium iodide solution. The solution turns brown as iodine is released: Br₂(aq) + 2KI(aq) → 2KBr(aq) + I₂(aq).

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21.

Which statement correctly describes iodine at room temperature?

  • A. Yellow gas
  • B. Orange-brown liquid
  • C. Green gas
  • D. Grey-black solid that produces a purple vapour
1 mark · standard

Iodine is a shiny grey-black solid at room temperature. When heated it sublimes (turns directly to gas), producing a distinctive purple vapour. It is the only halogen that is a solid at room temperature.

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22.

Astatine (At) is below iodine in Group 7. Using the trends in Group 7, which prediction about astatine is most likely correct?

  • A. It is a gas and is more reactive than chlorine
  • B. It is a solid and is the least reactive halogen
  • C. It is a liquid and has a lower boiling point than iodine
  • D. It is a gas and has a lower melting point than bromine
1 mark · standard

Following Group 7 trends, melting and boiling points increase down the group (F₂ and Cl₂ are gases, Br₂ is a liquid, I₂ is a solid), so astatine is predicted to be a solid. Reactivity decreases down the group, so astatine is the least reactive halogen.

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Atomic Structure

27
1.

Compare the plum pudding model and the nuclear model of the atom. Explain how the alpha particle scattering experiment provided evidence that led scientists to abandon the plum pudding model and adopt the nuclear model.

5 marks · challenge

The plum pudding model proposed by Thomson described the atom as a sphere of diffuse positive charge with electrons embedded throughout it, like plums in a pudding. The nuclear model, developed by Rutherford after the alpha scattering experiment, describes the atom as having a tiny, dense, positively charged nucleus at the centre, surrounded by electrons in mostly empty space. In the alpha scattering experiment, a thin gold foil was bombarded with positively charged alpha particles. If the plum pudding model were correct, the diffuse positive charge would have caused only small deflections of the alpha particles. However, the results showed that most alpha particles passed straight through the foil (evidence that the atom is mostly empty space), a small proportion were deflected at large angles (evidence that there is a concentrated region of positive charge), and very few — about 1 in 8000 — bounced directly back (evidence that the nucleus is very small relative to the atom). This evidence was inconsistent with the plum pudding model and led to the nuclear model: a tiny, dense, positively charged nucleus containing protons, with electrons orbiting at a distance in mostly empty space.

  • Plum pudding model: diffuse/spread-out positive charge with electrons embedded throughout — compared to nuclear model which has a tiny, dense, positive nucleus with electrons in empty space around it (1m)
  • Most alpha particles passed straight through — evidence that the atom is mostly empty space (1m)
  • Some alpha particles deflected at large angles — evidence for a concentrated region of positive charge (the nucleus) (1m)
  • A very small number bounced straight back — evidence that the nucleus is very small relative to the size of the atom (1m)
  • The plum pudding model could not explain large-angle deflections / bouncing back — the results were inconsistent with diffuse positive charge, so the nuclear model was adopted (1m)

The plum pudding model had positive charge spread evenly through the atom, predicting only small deflections for any incoming particle. The nuclear model instead places all the positive charge in a tiny dense nucleus surrounded by mostly empty space. Rutherford's alpha scattering experiment was decisive: the three types of result (straight through, large deflections, bounce-back) mapped directly onto three features of the nuclear model (empty space, concentrated nucleus, tiny nucleus). A common error is to describe only one observation — the full mark scheme requires all three alpha particle outcomes and their interpretations. Another error is to confuse the models: it is the plum pudding model that was disproved, not the nuclear model.

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2.

Neon has three isotopes: Ne-20 (90.48% abundance), Ne-21 (0.27% abundance) and Ne-22 (9.25% abundance). Explain why the relative atomic mass of neon is closer to 20 than to 21 or 22, and calculate its relative atomic mass to two decimal places. [4 marks]

4 marks · higher

Neon-20 has the highest abundance at 90.48%, so it contributes most to the weighted average. The relative atomic mass is close to 20 because the vast majority of neon atoms are neon-20. Calculation: Ar = (20 x 0.9048) + (21 x 0.0027) + (22 x 0.0925) = 18.096 + 0.057 + 2.035 = 20.19.

  • Ne-20 has by far the highest abundance (90.48%), so it contributes most to the weighted average (1m)
  • Because most atoms are Ne-20, the Ar is close to (but slightly above) 20 (1m)
  • Correct calculation method: multiply each isotope mass by fractional abundance and sum (1m)
  • Correct answer: Ar = 20.19 (accept 20.18-20.20 for rounding) (1m)

The relative atomic mass of neon is close to 20 because Ne-20 is by far the most abundant isotope (90.48%). In a weighted average, the most abundant isotope contributes most to the result. Ne-21 (0.27%) and Ne-22 (9.25%) shift the value slightly above 20. Calculation: Ar = (20 x 0.9048) + (21 x 0.0027) + (22 x 0.0925) = 18.096 + 0.057 + 2.035 = 20.19. This demonstrates why relative atomic mass is a weighted mean, not a simple average.

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3.

Describe the Rutherford alpha-particle scattering experiment and explain what the results revealed about the structure of the atom. [4 marks]

4 marks · higher

In the Rutherford scattering experiment, alpha particles were fired at a thin gold foil. Most passed straight through, a small number were deflected at small angles, and a very small number bounced straight back. Most particles passing through showed the atom is mostly empty space. The small, dense, positively charged nucleus was deduced from the few large-angle deflections: these particles must have passed close to a concentrated positive charge that repelled them.

  • Alpha particles fired at thin gold foil; most passed straight through (1m)
  • A small number deflected at large angles or bounced back (1m)
  • Most particles passing through shows the atom is mostly empty space (1m)
  • Large deflections show a small, dense, positively charged nucleus at the centre (1m)

In the Rutherford gold foil experiment, positively charged alpha particles were fired at thin gold foil. Three observations were made: (1) Most passed straight through — showing atoms are mostly empty space. (2) A small number were deflected at small angles — showing some positive charge in the atom. (3) A very small number bounced almost straight back — showing there is a tiny, dense, positively charged nucleus at the centre. The nucleus repels the positive alpha particles when they pass close to it.

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4.

Chlorine has two naturally occurring isotopes: chlorine-35 and chlorine-37. A chlorine atom can also form a chloride ion (Cl⁻). Evaluate how the atomic structure of chlorine-35, chlorine-37, and the chloride ion differ, and explain why isotopes of the same element have identical chemical properties but different relative atomic masses.

4 marks · challenge

Chlorine-35 has 17 protons, 18 neutrons, and 17 electrons. Chlorine-37 has 17 protons, 20 neutrons, and 17 electrons. The chloride ion (Cl⁻) has 17 protons, 18 neutrons, and 18 electrons (one more electron than neutral chlorine-35). Isotopes of chlorine have the same number of protons and therefore the same number of electrons in the same electron configuration. Since chemical properties depend on electron configuration — particularly the arrangement of outer shell electrons — isotopes react identically. Both chlorine-35 and chlorine-37 have 7 outer shell electrons, giving them the same reactivity. However, because they have different numbers of neutrons, the two isotopes have different masses. The relative atomic mass of chlorine (approximately 35.5) is a weighted average of the masses of its isotopes based on their abundances: chlorine-35 is more abundant (~75%) and chlorine-37 less abundant (~25%), giving a weighted average between 35 and 37.

  • Correct subatomic particles for two of the three species: Cl-35 (17p, 18n, 17e), Cl-37 (17p, 20n, 17e), Cl⁻ (17p, 18n, 18e) (1m)
  • Isotopes have the same number of protons and therefore the same electron configuration (1m)
  • Chemical properties depend on electron configuration (especially outer shell electrons) — so isotopes have identical chemical properties (1m)
  • Different numbers of neutrons give different masses; relative atomic mass is the weighted mean of isotope masses based on their abundances (1m)

This question links three related concepts: isotopes, ions, and the link between electron configuration and chemical properties. Key points: (1) isotopes differ only in neutron number — same protons, same electrons; (2) the chloride ion forms when chlorine gains one electron, so it has 18 electrons; (3) chemical properties are governed by electron configuration, so isotopes react identically; (4) different neutron counts mean different masses, and the relative atomic mass is a weighted mean. A common error is saying isotopes have different chemical properties — they do not, because their electron configurations are identical. Another error is confusing the chloride ion with an isotope.

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5.

Explain what is meant by the relative atomic mass of an element and how it is calculated from isotopic data. [3 marks]

3 marks · standard

The relative atomic mass (Ar) is the weighted mean mass of an atom of an element compared to one-twelfth of the mass of a carbon-12 atom. It is calculated by multiplying each isotope's mass by its percentage abundance, summing the results, and dividing by 100. For example, if an element has two isotopes, the more abundant one contributes more to the Ar value.

  • Relative atomic mass is a weighted mean/average mass of an atom relative to 1/12 of carbon-12 (or compared to carbon-12 scale) (1m)
  • Each isotope mass is multiplied by its percentage abundance (or fractional abundance) (1m)
  • The sum of these products is divided by 100 (if using percentages) to give the weighted average (1m)

The relative atomic mass (Ar) is the weighted mean mass of an atom of an element compared to one-twelfth of the mass of a carbon-12 atom. To calculate it: multiply each isotope's mass number by its percentage abundance, sum the results, then divide by 100. The more abundant an isotope, the more it contributes to the Ar value. A simple average of mass numbers would be wrong because it ignores the different proportions of each isotope.

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6.

Describe the rules for filling electron shells in an atom and write the electron configuration for chlorine (atomic number 17). [3 marks]

3 marks · standard

Electrons fill the lowest available energy level (shell) first. The first shell holds a maximum of 2 electrons; the second and third shells each hold a maximum of 8 electrons. Chlorine has 17 electrons, so its configuration is 2, 8, 7.

  • Electrons fill lowest energy shell first; first shell holds maximum 2 electrons (1m)
  • Second and third shells each hold a maximum of 8 electrons (1m)
  • Chlorine configuration: 2, 8, 7 (1m)

Electrons fill the lowest energy shell (closest to the nucleus) first. The first shell holds a maximum of 2 electrons; the second and third shells each hold a maximum of 8 electrons. Chlorine has atomic number 17, so it has 17 electrons. The configuration is: first shell 2, second shell 8, third shell 7 — written as 2,8,7. The outer shell with 7 electrons explains why chlorine needs one more electron to react.

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7.

Using the diagram, describe the structure of an atom. [3 marks]

3 marks · standard

An atom has a small, dense, positively charged nucleus at its centre. The nucleus contains protons (positive charge) and neutrons (no charge). Electrons, which have a negative charge, are arranged in shells (energy levels) that surround the nucleus at various distances. Most of the atom is empty space.

  • The nucleus is at the centre / the nucleus contains protons and neutrons (1m)
  • Electrons are arranged in shells / energy levels around the nucleus (1m)
  • Most of the atom is empty space / the nucleus is very small / dense compared to the size of the atom (1m)

An atom has a tiny, dense, positively charged nucleus at its centre, containing protons (+1) and neutrons (0 charge). Electrons (-1) occupy shells (energy levels) at increasing distances around the nucleus. The nucleus is approximately 100,000 times smaller than the atom itself — so most of the volume of an atom is empty space.

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8.

Describe the Bohr model of the atom, including how it improved on the earlier nuclear model. [3 marks]

3 marks · higher

The Bohr model proposed that electrons orbit the nucleus in fixed shells (energy levels) at specific distances. Electrons in lower shells have less energy than those in outer shells. This improved on the earlier nuclear model by explaining why electrons do not spiral into the nucleus and by introducing the concept of quantised energy levels.

  • Electrons orbit the nucleus in fixed shells or energy levels at specific distances/energies (1m)
  • Electrons in inner shells have lower energy than those in outer shells (1m)
  • The model improved on the nuclear model by explaining atomic stability or by introducing quantised energy levels (1m)

The Bohr model (1913) proposed that electrons orbit the nucleus in fixed shells (energy levels) at specific distances and energies. Electrons in inner shells have less energy than those in outer shells. This improved on the earlier nuclear model (Rutherford, 1911) by explaining why electrons do not spiral into the nucleus: they can only occupy fixed energy levels. The Bohr model also introduced the concept of quantised (discrete) energy levels for electrons.

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9.

A magnesium atom (atomic number 12) loses two electrons to form an ion. Describe the magnesium ion formed, including its charge and the number of each subatomic particle it contains. [3 marks]

3 marks · higher

When a magnesium atom loses two electrons it forms an Mg2+ ion with a 2+ charge. The ion contains 12 protons, 12 neutrons (for Mg-24), and 10 electrons. It has a positive charge because there are more protons than electrons.

  • Ion has a 2+ charge (Mg2+) (1m)
  • 12 protons and 10 electrons in the ion (1m)
  • The ion has a positive charge because the number of protons exceeds the number of electrons (1m)

A neutral magnesium atom (atomic number 12) has 12 protons and 12 electrons. When it loses 2 electrons to form an ion, it has 12 protons but only 10 electrons. The ion is written Mg2+ because there are 2 more protons (+) than electrons (-), giving a net charge of 2+. The proton number does not change during ion formation — only electron count changes. A common misconception is that protons are lost, but it is always electrons that are lost or gained.

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10.

Explain how the emission of light by atoms provides evidence for the existence of electron energy levels. [3 marks]

3 marks · higher

When atoms are excited, electrons absorb energy and move to higher energy levels. When electrons return to lower energy levels they release this energy as light of specific wavelengths. Because only specific wavelengths are emitted, this shows electrons can only exist at fixed (quantised) energy levels.

  • Electrons absorb energy and move to higher energy levels when atoms are excited (1m)
  • Electrons release energy as light (photons) of specific wavelengths when they fall to lower energy levels (1m)
  • Only specific wavelengths emitted proves electrons occupy fixed/quantised energy levels (1m)

When atoms absorb energy (e.g. from heat or light), electrons jump from lower to higher energy levels. When these excited electrons fall back to lower energy levels, they release energy as light of specific wavelengths. Because only specific (discrete) wavelengths are emitted — seen as a line spectrum — this proves that electrons can only exist at fixed, quantised energy levels. A continuous spectrum would suggest electrons could have any energy, but the observed line spectra prove this is not the case.

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11.

Describe the structure of an atom, including the location of subatomic particles. [2 marks]

2 marks · foundation

The nucleus is at the centre of the atom and contains protons and neutrons. Electrons are arranged in shells (energy levels) around the nucleus.

  • Nucleus at centre containing protons and neutrons (1m)
  • Electrons arranged in shells/energy levels around the nucleus (1m)

An atom has a small, dense nucleus at its centre containing protons (charge +1) and neutrons (charge 0). Electrons (charge -1) are arranged in shells (energy levels) that surround the nucleus. The nucleus makes up almost all of the atom's mass, while electrons have negligible mass. Most of the volume of an atom is empty space between the nucleus and the electron shells.

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12.

Define the term isotope and give one example of a pair of isotopes. [2 marks]

2 marks · foundation

Isotopes are atoms of the same element that have the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons. An example is carbon-12 and carbon-14.

  • Same number of protons (same element) but different number of neutrons (different mass numbers) (1m)
  • A named correct example of a pair of isotopes (1m)

Isotopes are atoms of the same element (same number of protons) but with different numbers of neutrons, giving different mass numbers. Because the proton number is identical, the electron configuration is the same, so isotopes have identical chemical properties. Physical properties (such as density and melting point) can differ slightly. Common examples include carbon-12 and carbon-14, or chlorine-35 and chlorine-37.

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13.

State the relative charge and mass of each sub-atomic particle shown in the diagram. [2 marks]

2 marks · foundation

Protons have a relative charge of +1 and a relative mass of 1. Neutrons have a relative charge of 0 and a relative mass of 1. Electrons have a relative charge of -1 and a relative mass of approximately 1/1836 (effectively negligible or 0).

  • Proton: charge +1, mass 1 AND Neutron: charge 0, mass 1 (1m)
  • Electron: charge -1, mass negligible / 1/1836 / effectively zero (1m)

Sub-atomic particle data: Proton — relative charge +1, relative mass 1. Neutron — relative charge 0, relative mass 1. Electron — relative charge -1, relative mass 1/1836 (negligible). Protons and neutrons are located in the nucleus; electrons orbit in shells outside the nucleus. Because the electron mass is so tiny compared to protons and neutrons, the mass of an atom is concentrated almost entirely in the nucleus.

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14.

Explain what information can be obtained from the mass number and atomic number of an atom. [2 marks]

2 marks · standard

The atomic number gives the number of protons in the nucleus (and the number of electrons in a neutral atom). The mass number gives the total number of protons plus neutrons, so the number of neutrons can be calculated as mass number minus atomic number.

  • Atomic number = number of protons (= electrons in a neutral atom) (1m)
  • Mass number = protons + neutrons, so neutrons = mass number - atomic number (1m)

The atomic number gives the number of protons in the nucleus (and also the number of electrons in a neutral atom, since atoms have no overall charge). The mass number is the total count of protons plus neutrons in the nucleus. Subtracting the atomic number from the mass number therefore gives the number of neutrons. A common mistake is confusing these two numbers — remember: atomic number = protons; mass number = protons + neutrons.

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15.

Explain why isotopes of the same element have identical chemical properties. [2 marks]

2 marks · standard

Isotopes have the same number of protons and therefore the same number of electrons in a neutral atom. Chemical properties depend on the electron configuration, so isotopes behave identically in chemical reactions.

  • Isotopes have the same number of protons and therefore the same number of electrons (in a neutral atom) (1m)
  • Chemical properties depend on electron configuration, so isotopes react identically (1m)

Isotopes of the same element have identical numbers of protons and therefore the same number of electrons in the neutral atom. Chemical properties depend entirely on electron configuration — how many electrons an atom has and how they are arranged. Since isotopes have the same electron arrangement, they participate in chemical reactions in exactly the same way. Their only differences are physical (related to their different masses and neutron numbers).

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16.

Copper exists as two isotopes: copper-63 (69% abundance) and copper-65 (31% abundance). Calculate the relative atomic mass of copper. Give your answer to one decimal place. [2 marks]

2 marks · standard
  • Correct method: (63 x 69/100) + (65 x 31/100) or (63 x 0.69) + (65 x 0.31) (1m)
  • Correct answer: 63.62 (accept 63.6) (1m)

Ar = (63 x 0.69) + (65 x 0.31) = 43.47 + 20.15 = 63.62, which rounds to 63.6.

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17.

Explain why atoms are electrically neutral using the diagram. [2 marks]

2 marks · standard

Atoms are electrically neutral because the number of protons (positive charge) in the nucleus is equal to the number of electrons (negative charge) in the shells. Each proton has a charge of +1 and each electron has a charge of -1. Because the positive and negative charges are equal in number, they cancel out, giving the atom an overall charge of zero.

  • Number of protons equals the number of electrons in a neutral atom (1m)
  • Positive and negative charges cancel / balance out, giving an overall charge of zero (1m)

A neutral atom always has the same number of protons as electrons. Protons carry a charge of +1 and electrons carry -1. With equal numbers of each, the total positive charge exactly cancels the total negative charge, resulting in an overall charge of zero. If an atom loses or gains electrons it becomes an ion with a net positive or negative charge.

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18.

What does the atomic number of an element tell you?

  • A. The number of neutrons in the nucleus
  • B. The total mass of the atom
  • C. The number of protons in the nucleus
  • D. The number of electrons in the outer shell
1 mark · foundation

The atomic number (also called proton number) gives the number of protons in the nucleus. Since atoms are neutral, this also equals the number of electrons. It defines which element the atom belongs to.

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19.

A sodium atom has an atomic number of 11 and a mass number of 23. How many neutrons does it contain?

  • A. 11
  • B. 23
  • C. 34
  • D. 12
1 mark · foundation

Number of neutrons = mass number - atomic number = 23 - 11 = 12. The mass number includes both protons and neutrons, so subtracting the proton count gives neutrons.

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20.

In a neutral atom of lithium (atomic number 3), how are the electrons arranged?

  • A. 2 electrons in the first shell and 1 in the second shell
  • B. 3 electrons all in the first shell
  • C. 1 electron in the first shell and 2 in the second shell
  • D. 3 electrons all in the second shell
1 mark · foundation

The first electron shell holds a maximum of 2 electrons. Lithium has 3 electrons, so 2 fill the first shell and the third goes into the second shell. Electron configuration: 2,1.

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21.

Which row in the table correctly shows the charges of the three subatomic particles?

  • A. Proton: +1, Neutron: 0, Electron: -1
  • B. Proton: 0, Neutron: +1, Electron: -1
  • C. Proton: +1, Neutron: -1, Electron: 0
  • D. Proton: -1, Neutron: 0, Electron: +1
1 mark · foundation

Proton has a charge of +1, neutron is neutral (0), and electron has a charge of -1. In a neutral atom the number of protons equals the number of electrons, so the charges cancel.

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22.

Which part of the atom shown in the diagram has a positive charge?

  • A. The electrons in the outer shell
  • B. The nucleus
  • C. The electron shells
  • D. The whole atom
1 mark · foundation

The nucleus contains protons, which each carry a charge of +1. Neutrons in the nucleus are neutral. Electrons carry a charge of -1 and orbit in shells around the nucleus. In a neutral atom the number of protons equals the number of electrons, so the atom as a whole is neutral — only the nucleus itself is positively charged.

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23.

Where is most of the mass of an atom concentrated according to the diagram?

  • A. In the outer electron shells
  • B. Spread evenly throughout the atom
  • C. In the first electron shell only
  • D. In the nucleus
1 mark · foundation

The nucleus contains protons and neutrons, each with a relative mass of 1. Electrons have a negligible mass (approximately 1/1836 of a proton). Because the nucleus contains all the protons and neutrons, almost all the mass of the atom is concentrated in the tiny nucleus.

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24.

Chlorine has two isotopes: chlorine-35 and chlorine-37. Which statement correctly describes these isotopes?

  • A. They have the same number of neutrons but different numbers of protons
  • B. They have the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons
  • C. They have different numbers of protons and different chemical properties
  • D. They have the same mass number but different atomic numbers
1 mark · standard

Isotopes are atoms of the same element with the same number of protons (atomic number = 17 for chlorine) but different numbers of neutrons. Cl-35 has 18 neutrons; Cl-37 has 20 neutrons. Their chemical properties are identical because chemical behaviour depends on electron configuration, which depends on proton number.

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25.

Boron exists as two isotopes: boron-10 (20% abundance) and boron-11 (80% abundance). What is the relative atomic mass of boron?

  • A. 10.2
  • B. 10.8
  • C. 10.5
  • D. 11.0
1 mark · standard

Relative atomic mass = (mass x abundance / 100) for each isotope, summed. Ar = (10 x 20/100) + (11 x 80/100) = 2.0 + 8.8 = 10.8.

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26.

An atom has the electron configuration 2, 8, 6. In which period and group of the periodic table is this element?

  • A. Period 2, Group 6
  • B. Period 6, Group 3
  • C. Period 3, Group 6
  • D. Period 3, Group 16
1 mark · standard

The number of occupied electron shells gives the period (3 shells = Period 3). The number of electrons in the outermost shell gives the group (6 outer electrons = Group 6). This element is sulfur (atomic number 16).

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27.

Why is the mass of an atom approximately equal to its mass number, even though atoms also contain electrons?

  • A. Electrons are located outside the nucleus so their mass is not counted
  • B. Electrons have a relative mass of approximately 1/1836 compared to protons, so their contribution to total mass is negligible
  • C. The mass number only counts protons, and neutrons have zero mass
  • D. Each electron has a relative mass of approximately 1/1836, making the total electron mass negligible compared to the nuclear mass
1 mark · standard

Each electron has a relative mass of approximately 1/1836 of a proton. Even in an atom with many electrons, their combined mass is a tiny fraction of the nuclear mass. The mass number (protons + neutrons, each relative mass ~1) therefore closely approximates the total atomic mass.

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The Periodic Table

22
1.

Evaluate the significance of Mendeleev's decision to leave gaps in his periodic table. In your answer, compare his original table with the modern periodic table and explain why his approach was scientifically important.

5 marks · challenge

Mendeleev arranged elements by increasing relative atomic mass and noticed that elements with similar chemical properties appeared at regular intervals. However, to maintain these property patterns (periodicity), he left gaps for elements he believed existed but had not yet been discovered. He used these gaps to predict the properties of undiscovered elements — for example, he predicted the existence of eka-silicon (later discovered as germanium), correctly forecasting its atomic mass, density, and chemical behaviour. When germanium was discovered in 1886 with properties closely matching Mendeleev's predictions, this provided powerful evidence that his periodic table was a scientifically valid model and not just a coincidental arrangement. The modern periodic table differs from Mendeleev's in two key ways. First, it is ordered by atomic number (proton number) rather than atomic mass, which resolved anomalies such as the tellurium-iodine pair. Second, it includes Group 0 (noble gases) which were unknown in Mendeleev's time. Despite these differences, Mendeleev's original pattern of periodicity and his use of predictive gaps showed exceptional scientific thinking — proposing a model that could be tested and potentially falsified by future discoveries.

  • Mendeleev left gaps for undiscovered elements to preserve the pattern of chemical properties (periodicity) (1m)
  • He used the gaps to make specific predictions about undiscovered elements (e.g. eka-silicon / germanium) — naming at least one predicted property (atomic mass, density, behaviour) (1m)
  • When predicted elements were discovered with matching properties, this validated (provided evidence for) his model (1m)
  • Comparison with modern table: modern table ordered by atomic number (not atomic mass), resolving anomalies like Te/I or Ar/K (1m)
  • The scientific significance: his table made testable predictions — the hallmark of a good scientific model — and the predictions were confirmed (1m)

This is a 5-mark evaluate question requiring both comparison and judgement about scientific significance. Key points: (1) gaps preserved periodicity; (2) gaps allowed specific predictions — this is scientifically vital; (3) confirmed predictions validated the model; (4) modern table differs by using atomic number and including noble gases; (5) the scientific importance is that Mendeleev made a model that could be falsified. A common weakness is describing what Mendeleev did without evaluating WHY it was significant. Students should explain that making verifiable predictions is a core hallmark of good scientific models — when germanium matched the predictions, it gave the strongest possible evidence for the periodic table's validity.

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2.

Evaluate how the development of the modern periodic table represents an improvement over Mendeleev's original table. Include reference to the evidence that led scientists to accept the modern arrangement.

4 marks · higher

Mendeleev arranged elements by relative atomic mass, which worked well for most elements but caused anomalies where pairs like tellurium and iodine, or argon and potassium, had to be placed in an order that contradicted their atomic masses to preserve the pattern of chemical properties. The discovery of subatomic particles — specifically the proton — showed that each element has a unique atomic number (proton number). Moseley's work with X-ray spectroscopy in 1913 confirmed the atomic number sequence. Ordering by atomic number resolved all the anomalies in Mendeleev's table, as atomic number always increases without exception. The development of quantum theory and electron shell models provided a scientific explanation for why elements in the same group have similar properties — they all have the same number of outer shell electrons. This theoretical underpinning, combined with the resolution of anomalies, led scientists to accept the modern periodic table as a more accurate and explanatory model.

  • Mendeleev used atomic mass and this caused anomalies — naming a specific pair (Te/I or Ar/K) that had to be swapped (1m)
  • The modern table uses atomic number (proton number); this resolved the anomalies as proton number always increases in sequence (1m)
  • Evidence that supported the modern table: discovery of the proton / Moseley's X-ray work / confirmed atomic number as the organising principle (1m)
  • Electron shell configuration explains group properties — elements in the same group have the same outer electrons, providing a theoretical basis lacking in Mendeleev's table (1m)

Mendeleev's table ordered elements by atomic mass, causing anomalies for pairs like tellurium/iodine and argon/potassium. The discovery of the proton and Moseley's 1913 X-ray work established atomic number as the correct ordering principle, resolving all anomalies. Electron shell theory provided a theoretical explanation: elements in the same group have the same number of outer electrons, explaining similar chemical properties.

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3.

Compare metals and non-metals in terms of their structure, bonding, and position in the periodic table. Explain how the differences in structure and bonding account for their contrasting physical properties.

4 marks · challenge

Metals are found on the left and centre of the periodic table, while non-metals are found on the right side (with the exception of hydrogen). Metals have a giant metallic structure: a regular lattice of positive metal ions surrounded by a sea of delocalised electrons. Non-metals typically have either simple molecular structures (e.g. Cl₂, H₂O) or giant covalent structures (e.g. diamond, silicon dioxide), held together by covalent bonds. Because metals have delocalised electrons, they conduct electricity and heat. The strong electrostatic attraction between positive ions and the electron sea gives metals high melting points. Layers of ions can slide over each other, making metals malleable and ductile. Simple molecular non-metals have weak intermolecular forces between molecules, giving them low melting and boiling points. They do not conduct electricity because there are no delocalised electrons or free ions. Giant covalent non-metals (like diamond) have very high melting points due to the many strong covalent bonds throughout the structure, but still do not conduct electricity in most cases.

  • Position: metals on left/centre; non-metals on right of periodic table (hydrogen exception acceptable) (1m)
  • Metals: giant metallic structure with delocalised electrons — conduct electricity; malleable; high melting points due to strong electrostatic attraction (1m)
  • Simple molecular non-metals: weak intermolecular forces — low melting/boiling points; do not conduct electricity (1m)
  • Giant covalent non-metals: many strong covalent bonds — very high melting points; generally do not conduct (except graphite) (1m)

This compare question requires students to address three dimensions (structure, bonding, position) and link them to properties for both metals and non-metals. The key contrasts are: metallic bonding with delocalised electrons (conductors, malleable) vs. covalent bonding in molecular or giant structures (non-conductors, low or very high melting points depending on type). Students often forget to distinguish simple molecular from giant covalent non-metals — both are non-metals but have very different melting points. Position in the periodic table is a simple mark often dropped: metals left and centre, non-metals right.

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4.

Mendeleev's periodic table was eventually accepted by other scientists. Explain why scientists were convinced that his table was correct.

3 marks · standard

Mendeleev left gaps in his periodic table for elements he predicted had not yet been discovered. He was able to predict the properties of these missing elements from their position in the table, such as their relative atomic mass, density and type of compounds they would form. When these elements were later discovered — for example gallium and germanium — their actual properties closely matched Mendeleev's predictions, which convinced scientists that his arrangement was fundamentally correct.

  • Mendeleev left gaps / predicted undiscovered elements (1m)
  • He predicted the properties (e.g. atomic mass, density, formula of oxide) of the missing elements from their position in the table (1m)
  • The discovered elements (e.g. gallium, germanium) had properties that matched / were close to his predictions, so the table was validated / accepted (1m)

Mendeleev left gaps in his table where he predicted undiscovered elements would fit, and he used patterns in the table to predict their properties. When gallium (1875) and germanium (1886) were later discovered, their properties closely matched his predictions, which convinced scientists his arrangement was fundamentally correct.

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5.

Describe how the properties of elements change across Period 3, from sodium to argon.

3 marks · standard

Across Period 3, elements change from metals (sodium, magnesium, aluminium) through a metalloid (silicon) to non-metals (phosphorus, sulfur, chlorine) and finally to a noble gas (argon). As you move across the period, metallic character decreases and non-metallic character increases. The elements also change from solids with high melting points (metals) to solids, liquids and gases with lower melting points on the right side.

  • Left side elements (Na, Mg, Al) are metals; right side elements (P, S, Cl) are non-metals (1m)
  • Metallic character decreases across the period / non-metallic character increases across the period (1m)
  • Any correct specific property trend: e.g. melting point trend, change in state, reactivity changes, or silicon is a metalloid on the boundary (1m)

Across Period 3, elements transition from metals on the left (sodium, magnesium, aluminium) through the metalloid silicon to non-metals on the right (phosphorus, sulfur, chlorine), ending with the noble gas argon. Metallic character decreases and non-metallic character increases from left to right. Melting points and states also change across the period.

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6.

Explain why the reactivity of Group 1 metals increases going down the group.

3 marks · higher

Going down Group 1, each successive element has one more electron shell. The outer electron is therefore further from the nucleus and more shielded by inner shell electrons. This means the electrostatic attraction between the nucleus and the outer electron is weaker. As a result, the outer electron is lost more easily during reactions, making the element more reactive.

  • Down the group each element has more electron shells / the outer electron is in a higher energy level / the outer electron is further from the nucleus (1m)
  • There is more electron shielding from inner shells / greater shielding effect reduces nuclear attraction on the outer electron (1m)
  • The outer electron is lost more easily / the electrostatic attraction is weaker / reactivity increases because electron loss is easier (1m)

Going down Group 1, each element has one more electron shell, placing the outer electron further from the nucleus. Greater shielding by inner shells also reduces the effective nuclear attraction on the outer electron. This weaker attraction means the outer electron is lost more easily, so reactivity increases down Group 1. A common misconception is that a bigger nucleus causes greater reactivity — it is the increased distance and shielding that lowers the force holding the outer electron.

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7.

Explain why the reactivity of the halogens (Group 7) decreases going down the group.

3 marks · higher

Going down Group 7, each element has one more electron shell so the outer shell is further from the nucleus. There is also greater electron shielding by inner shells. Both factors reduce the force of attraction between the nucleus and an incoming electron. As a result, halogens are less able to attract an electron into the outer shell during reactions, so they become less reactive going down the group.

  • Down the group each element has more electron shells / outer shell is further from the nucleus (1m)
  • Greater electron shielding from inner shells reduces the effective nuclear attraction on the outer shell (1m)
  • Halogens react by gaining an electron; down the group the attraction for an incoming electron is weaker / so they are less reactive (1m)

Going down Group 7, each halogen has one more electron shell, so the outer shell is further from the nucleus and more shielded. Halogens react by gaining one electron into the outer shell. The nuclear attraction for an incoming electron decreases down the group, so gaining an electron becomes increasingly difficult. Therefore reactivity decreases going down Group 7 — the opposite trend to Group 1.

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8.

State three properties of transition metals that differ from Group 1 metals.

3 marks · higher

Transition metals are much harder and denser than Group 1 metals, with much higher melting and boiling points. They form coloured compounds, unlike Group 1 metals which form white or colourless compounds. Transition metals can act as catalysts in chemical reactions, for example iron in the Haber process. They also have variable oxidation states, meaning they can form ions with different charges (e.g. Fe2+ and Fe3+).

  • Higher melting / boiling points OR harder OR denser OR stronger — any one physical property comparison with Group 1 (1m)
  • Form coloured compounds (Group 1 compounds are white / colourless) (1m)
  • Can act as catalysts OR have variable oxidation states / can form ions with different charges (1m)

Transition metals differ from Group 1 metals in several ways: they have much higher melting points, are harder and denser, and are much less reactive. Their compounds are characteristically coloured (e.g. copper compounds are blue, iron(III) is orange-brown), whereas Group 1 metal compounds are usually white or colourless. Transition metals can also act as catalysts and display variable oxidation states, forming ions with different charges (e.g. Fe2+ and Fe3+).

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9.

Tellurium (Te) has a higher relative atomic mass than iodine (I), yet it appears before iodine in the modern periodic table. Explain why this is correct and why Mendeleev's arrangement would have caused a problem here.

3 marks · higher

Tellurium (atomic number 52) has a lower atomic number than iodine (atomic number 53), so in the modern periodic table — ordered by atomic number — tellurium correctly precedes iodine. However, tellurium has a higher relative atomic mass (127.6) than iodine (126.9). If Mendeleev had kept strict mass order, iodine would have appeared before tellurium. This would have placed iodine in Group 6 alongside oxygen and sulfur instead of Group 7 alongside fluorine and chlorine, which does not match its chemical properties. Mendeleev solved this by swapping their positions, correctly prioritising properties over mass, but this anomaly was only fully explained by the modern concept of atomic number.

  • The modern table is ordered by atomic number; tellurium (52) has a lower atomic number than iodine (53) so the order is correct despite the mass anomaly (1m)
  • Mendeleev's mass-based arrangement would have placed iodine before tellurium (1m)
  • This would have put iodine in the wrong group (Group 6) and its properties would not match its group neighbours / iodine belongs in Group 7 with fluorine and chlorine (1m)

The modern periodic table is ordered by atomic number (proton number). Tellurium has atomic number 52 and iodine has atomic number 53, so tellurium correctly precedes iodine despite having a higher relative atomic mass. Mendeleev's mass-based ordering would have placed iodine before tellurium, incorrectly putting it in Group 6 instead of Group 7. The anomaly was fully resolved only when atomic numbers were discovered.

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10.

State two ways in which Mendeleev's arrangement of elements was different from the modern periodic table.

2 marks · foundation

Mendeleev arranged elements in order of increasing relative atomic mass, whereas the modern table uses atomic number. Mendeleev also left gaps in his table where he predicted undiscovered elements would fit, and in some places he swapped the order of elements to preserve the pattern of chemical properties.

  • Mendeleev ordered elements by relative atomic mass; modern table orders by atomic number / proton number (1m)
  • Mendeleev left gaps / spaces for undiscovered elements OR Mendeleev swapped the order of some elements to preserve patterns in properties (1m)

Mendeleev arranged elements by increasing relative atomic mass, whereas the modern table uses atomic number (proton number). Mendeleev also left deliberate gaps where he believed undiscovered elements should fit, and in some places swapped the order of elements to preserve patterns of chemical properties.

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11.

Explain why elements in the same group of the periodic table have similar chemical properties.

2 marks · foundation

Elements in the same group have the same number of electrons in their outer shell. Because chemical reactions involve the outer shell electrons, elements with the same number of outer electrons react in similar ways and form compounds with similar formulae.

  • Same number of electrons in the outer shell / same number of outer electrons / same outer electron configuration (1m)
  • Chemical properties depend on / are determined by the outer shell electrons; so same outer electrons means similar reactions / similar bonding / similar formulae (1m)

Elements in the same group all have the same number of electrons in their outermost shell. Chemical reactions involve gaining, losing, or sharing outer electrons, so elements with the same number of outer electrons react in similar ways and form compounds with similar formulae.

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12.

State two differences in properties between metals and non-metals.

2 marks · foundation

Metals are good conductors of electricity and heat, whereas non-metals are generally poor conductors or insulators. Metals are also shiny solids (at room temperature, except mercury) with high melting points, whereas many non-metals are gases or solids with low melting points at room temperature.

  • Metals conduct electricity / heat; non-metals do not (accept: non-metals are insulators) — any one valid conductivity distinction (1m)
  • Metals are shiny / have high melting points / are hard / are solid at room temperature; non-metals are often gases / dull / have low melting points — any one valid physical property distinction (1m)

Metals are good conductors of electricity and heat because they have delocalised electrons that move freely. Non-metals generally do not conduct (except graphite). Metals are also typically shiny solids with high melting points, while non-metals are often gases or brittle solids with low melting points.

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13.

The noble gases are placed in Group 0 (or Group 8) of the periodic table. Explain why they are unreactive.

2 marks · standard

Noble gases have a full outer electron shell, meaning they do not need to gain, lose or share electrons to become stable. Because chemical reactions involve the transfer or sharing of outer electrons, noble gases do not participate in reactions under normal conditions.

  • Noble gases have a full / complete outer shell of electrons (1m)
  • They do not need to gain, lose or share electrons / they are already stable / no tendency to react (1m)

Noble gases have a completely full outer electron shell — helium has 2 electrons filling its only shell, all other noble gases have 8 outer electrons. Because atoms react to achieve a full outer shell, and noble gases are already complete, they have no tendency to gain, lose, or share electrons, making them chemically unreactive.

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14.

A student is told that element X is in Group 2, Period 3 of the periodic table. Predict two properties of element X.

2 marks · standard

Element X is in Group 2 so it has 2 outer shell electrons and will form 2+ ions / is a metal that reacts to form compounds with formula XO or XCl2. It is in Period 3 so it has 3 electron shells and 12 protons. It is a metal with relatively high melting point and will react with water, though less vigorously than Group 1 metals.

  • Has 2 outer shell electrons / forms 2+ ions / is a metal / reacts to form XO or XCl2 type compounds — any one valid Group 2 property (1m)
  • Has 3 electron shells / 3 occupied energy levels / atomic number 12 — any one valid Period 3 property (1m)

In the periodic table, the group number gives the number of outer shell electrons and the period number gives the number of occupied electron shells. Element X in Group 2 has 2 outer electrons and will form 2+ ions. Being in Period 3 means it has 3 occupied electron shells and 12 protons — the element is magnesium.

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15.

How are elements arranged in the modern periodic table?

  • A. In order of increasing atomic number
  • B. In order of increasing relative atomic mass
  • C. Alphabetically by element name
  • D. In order of decreasing density
1 mark · foundation

The modern periodic table arranges elements in order of increasing atomic number (number of protons). Mendeleev originally used atomic mass, but this caused anomalies with pairs like argon/potassium and tellurium/iodine. Ordering by atomic number resolved these problems.

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16.

Elements in the same group of the periodic table have similar chemical properties because they have the same number of:

  • A. Protons in the nucleus
  • B. Neutrons in the nucleus
  • C. Electron shells
  • D. Electrons in the outer shell
1 mark · foundation

The number of electrons in the outer (highest energy) shell determines how an element reacts chemically. Elements in the same group all have the same number of outer shell electrons, which is why they show similar reactivity and form compounds with similar formulae.

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17.

What does the period number of an element tell you?

  • A. The number of occupied electron shells
  • B. The number of neutrons in the nucleus
  • C. The number of protons in the nucleus
  • D. The number of outer shell electrons
1 mark · foundation

The period number tells you how many electron shells are occupied in an atom of that element. Period 1 elements have electrons only in shell 1; period 2 elements have electrons in shells 1 and 2; period 3 elements have electrons in shells 1, 2 and 3, and so on.

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18.

Mendeleev left gaps in his periodic table. What was his reason for doing this?

  • A. He had not yet discovered all the elements himself
  • B. He predicted that undiscovered elements would fill the gaps and have specific properties
  • C. He left gaps where he was unsure about the atomic mass
  • D. The gaps represented elements that were radioactive and dangerous
1 mark · standard

Mendeleev noticed that when he arranged elements by atomic mass, some did not fit the pattern of properties he expected. Rather than disrupting the pattern, he left gaps and boldly predicted that new elements would be discovered to fill them, with properties he could predict from their position. The later discovery of gallium and germanium confirmed his predictions.

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19.

Which of the following correctly describes the position of metals in the periodic table?

  • A. Metals are found on the right-hand side of the periodic table
  • B. Metals are found at the bottom of every group
  • C. Metals are evenly distributed throughout the periodic table
  • D. Metals are found on the left and towards the centre of the periodic table
1 mark · standard

The majority of elements are metals, found on the left-hand side and in the central block (transition metals) of the periodic table. Non-metals are clustered in the top-right corner. A diagonal 'staircase' line separates metals from non-metals, with metalloids (e.g., silicon, germanium) on the boundary.

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20.

Argon (Ar = 39.9) comes before potassium (Ar = 39.1) in the modern periodic table, even though argon has a higher atomic mass. Why is this ordering correct?

  • A. Argon was discovered before potassium
  • B. Argon has a lower atomic number (18) than potassium (19)
  • C. Argon is a gas so it comes before solid potassium
  • D. Argon has more neutrons, which is the deciding factor
1 mark · standard

The modern periodic table is ordered by atomic number (proton number), not atomic mass. Argon has 18 protons and potassium has 19 protons, so argon correctly precedes potassium. This is one of the key improvements of the modern table over Mendeleev's mass-based arrangement — ordering by proton number eliminates such anomalies.

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21.

An element has the electronic configuration 2, 8, 3. Which of the following correctly identifies its group and period?

  • A. Group 3, Period 2
  • B. Group 8, Period 3
  • C. Group 3, Period 3
  • D. Group 2, Period 8
1 mark · standard

The electronic configuration 2, 8, 3 means the atom has 3 occupied electron shells (period 3) with 3 electrons in the outermost shell (group 3). The element is aluminium (atomic number 13). The period equals the number of shells; the group equals the number of outer electrons (for main group elements).

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22.

Which statement correctly describes the trend in metallic character across Period 3 (Na to Ar)?

  • A. Metallic character increases across Period 3 from Na to Ar
  • B. Metallic character stays the same across Period 3
  • C. Metallic character decreases across Period 3 from Na to Cl
  • D. Metallic character increases then decreases across Period 3
1 mark · standard

Across a period, the nuclear charge increases while electrons are added to the same shell. This makes it progressively harder to lose outer electrons, so metallic character (tendency to lose electrons) decreases across a period. Sodium (Na) and magnesium (Mg) are typical metals; aluminium (Al) is a metal but shows some non-metal character; silicon (Si) is a metalloid; phosphorus, sulfur, chlorine and argon are non-metals.

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Electronic Configuration

24
1.

A student claims that two elements must be in the same period if they have the same number of electrons in their outer shell. Evaluate this claim.

4 marks · challenge

The student's claim is incorrect. Elements with the same number of outer shell electrons are in the same GROUP, not the same period. For example, lithium (2,1) and sodium (2,8,1) both have 1 outer electron but are in different periods (period 2 and period 3 respectively). The period number tells you the number of occupied shells, not the outer electrons. Two elements are in the same period if they have the same number of occupied shells.

  • Claim is incorrect — same outer electrons means same GROUP (not same period) (1m)
  • Period number equals number of occupied shells (not outer electrons) (1m)
  • Correct example: two elements with same outer electrons but in different periods (e.g. Li 2,1 and Na 2,8,1 are both group 1 but period 2 and 3 respectively) (1m)
  • Correct definition of what places elements in the same period: same number of occupied shells (1m)

The claim is incorrect. Same outer electrons = same GROUP. Period = number of occupied shells. Li (2,1) and Na (2,8,1) are both group 1 (1 outer electron) but different periods (2 and 3). A student claiming they are in the same period is confusing group with period.

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2.

An element has atomic number 16. Write its electronic configuration, identify the element, and state its group and period.

3 marks · standard

The electronic configuration is 2, 8, 6. The element is sulfur. It is in period 3 (three occupied shells) and group 6 (six outer electrons).

  • Correct electronic configuration: 2, 8, 6 (1m)
  • Period 3 (three occupied shells) (1m)
  • Group 6 (six electrons in outer shell) (1m)

16 electrons: shell 1 = 2, shell 2 = 8, shell 3 = 16 - 2 - 8 = 6. Configuration: 2, 8, 6 (sulfur). Three shells — period 3. Six outer electrons — group 6.

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3.

Explain the link between an element's electronic configuration and its position in the periodic table.

3 marks · higher

The period number equals the number of occupied electron shells. The group number equals the number of electrons in the outer shell. For example, sodium with configuration 2, 8, 1 is in period 3 (three shells) and group 1 (one outer electron).

  • Period number = number of occupied/used electron shells (1m)
  • Group number = number of electrons in the outer shell (1m)
  • Correct example linking configuration to period and group (e.g. sodium 2,8,1 is period 3, group 1) (1m)

Period number = number of occupied shells. Group number = outer electrons. These two rules mean you can work out any element's position from its electronic configuration, or write its configuration from its position.

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4.

An element has atomic number 20. Write its electronic configuration and state its period and group.

3 marks · higher

The electronic configuration is 2, 8, 8, 2. It is in period 4 because it has 4 occupied shells, and in group 2 because it has 2 electrons in the outer shell. This element is calcium.

  • Correct electronic configuration: 2, 8, 8, 2 (1m)
  • Period 4 (because 4 shells are occupied) (1m)
  • Group 2 (because 2 electrons in outer shell) (1m)

20 electrons fill as 2, 8, 8, 2 (calcium). Four shells are occupied — period 4. The outer shell has 2 electrons — group 2.

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5.

Using electronic configurations, explain why lithium and sodium are placed in the same group of the periodic table.

3 marks · higher

Lithium has electronic configuration 2, 1 and sodium has electronic configuration 2, 8, 1. Both have 1 electron in the outer shell, so both are in group 1. Elements in the same group have the same number of outer electrons and therefore similar chemical properties.

  • Lithium configuration: 2, 1 (or correct electronic configuration stated) (1m)
  • Sodium configuration: 2, 8, 1 (or correct electronic configuration stated) (1m)
  • Both have 1 outer electron so both are in group 1 / same number of outer electrons means same group (1m)

Lithium (2,1) and sodium (2,8,1) both have 1 outer electron, placing them both in group 1. Different period (different shells), but same group (same outer electrons).

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6.

Explain why elements in the same group of the periodic table have similar chemical properties, using the electron shell diagram. [3 marks]

3 marks · higher

Elements in the same group have the same number of electrons in their outer shell (outermost energy level), as shown by the electron shell diagrams. It is the outer electrons that are involved in chemical reactions — they are the electrons that can be lost, gained, or shared when atoms bond. Because elements in the same group all have the same number of outer electrons, they react in similar ways and form similar types of bonds and compounds.

  • Elements in the same group have the same number of electrons in the outer shell / same number of outer electrons (1m)
  • Chemical reactions involve / are determined by the outer electrons (electrons that can be transferred or shared) (1m)
  • Same number of outer electrons therefore similar chemical reactions / form similar compounds / react in similar ways (1m)

Elements in the same periodic table group have the same number of electrons in their outer shell. Chemical reactions involve the outer electrons — they are transferred (ionic bonding) or shared (covalent bonding). Because all elements in a group have the same outer electron count, they react in the same way and form compounds with the same formulae and structures. For example, all Group 1 elements (Li, Na, K) have 1 outer electron, so they all form +1 ions and react vigorously with water.

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7.

State the maximum number of electrons each of the first three shells can hold.

2 marks · foundation

The first shell can hold a maximum of 2 electrons. The second and third shells can each hold a maximum of 8 electrons.

  • First shell: maximum 2 electrons (1m)
  • Second and third shells: maximum 8 electrons each (1m)

The GCSE shell pattern is 2, 8, 8. Shell 1: max 2, Shell 2: max 8, Shell 3: max 8. This gives the filling pattern seen in elements of periods 1-3.

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8.

Explain why noble gases are unreactive.

2 marks · standard

Noble gases have a full outer shell of electrons. This is a very stable arrangement, so they do not need to gain or lose electrons, making them unreactive.

  • Noble gases have a full/complete outer shell of electrons (1m)
  • This arrangement is stable, so no need to gain, lose or share electrons (unreactive) (1m)

Noble gases are unreactive because they have a full outer shell of electrons, which is the most stable arrangement. They have no tendency to gain, lose, or share electrons.

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9.

An element has electronic configuration 2, 8, 8. What is its atomic number, and why is this element particularly stable?

2 marks · standard

The atomic number is 18 (2 + 8 + 8 = 18 electrons, so 18 protons). This element is argon and it is stable because it has a full outer shell of 8 electrons.

  • Atomic number = 18 (total electrons = 2 + 8 + 8 = 18) (1m)
  • Stable because it has a full outer shell / 8 electrons in the outer shell (1m)

2 + 8 + 8 = 18 total electrons, so atomic number = 18 (argon). Argon is stable because its outer shell holds its maximum of 8 electrons — the noble gas configuration.

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10.

Using the electron shell diagram, write the electronic configuration of sodium (atomic number 11). [2 marks]

2 marks · standard

Sodium has 11 electrons. The first shell holds 2 electrons, the second shell holds 8 electrons, and the remaining 1 electron goes into the third shell. The electronic configuration of sodium is 2,8,1.

  • Correctly identifies sodium has 11 electrons / states 2 in first shell and 8 in second shell (1m)
  • States 1 electron in the third shell / gives correct final configuration as 2,8,1 (1m)

Sodium has atomic number 11, so it has 11 electrons. Filling from the innermost shell outwards using the diagram: shell 1 = 2 (full), shell 2 = 8 (full), shell 3 = 11 - 2 - 8 = 1. Electronic configuration: 2, 8, 1. This single outer electron is why sodium is in Group 1 of the periodic table.

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11.

Explain why elements in the same group of the periodic table have similar chemical properties.

2 marks · higher

Elements in the same group have the same number of electrons in their outer shell. Because chemical reactions involve outer electrons, elements with the same number of outer electrons react in similar ways.

  • Elements in the same group have the same number of outer shell electrons (1m)
  • Chemical reactions involve outer electrons, so same outer electrons means similar reactions / chemical properties (1m)

Group members share the same number of outer electrons. Since outer electrons are what participate in chemical reactions and bonding, elements in the same group undergo similar reactions.

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12.

What is the maximum number of electrons the first electron shell can hold?

  • A. 2
  • B. 8
  • C. 18
  • D. 1
1 mark · foundation

The first electron shell can hold a maximum of 2 electrons. This is why helium, with 2 electrons, has a full first shell and is in period 1. The GCSE pattern for shells is 2, 8, 8.

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13.

The period number of an element tells you:

  • A. The number of outer shell electrons
  • B. The number of protons in the nucleus
  • C. The number of neutrons
  • D. The number of occupied electron shells
1 mark · foundation

The period number equals the number of occupied electron shells. For example, sodium (period 3) has electrons in 3 shells: configuration 2, 8, 1.

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14.

The group number of an element in the periodic table tells you:

  • A. The number of electrons in the outer shell
  • B. The number of occupied electron shells
  • C. The total number of electrons
  • D. The number of protons and neutrons
1 mark · foundation

Group number = number of electrons in the outer shell. For example, Group 1 elements (like lithium, sodium) all have 1 outer electron, which explains their similar chemistry.

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15.

Write the electronic configuration of sodium (atomic number 11).

1 mark · foundation

2, 8, 1

  • Correct configuration: 2, 8, 1 (accept 2.8.1 or 2 8 1) (1m)

Sodium has 11 electrons: shell 1 fills with 2, shell 2 fills with 8, leaving 11 - 2 - 8 = 1 in the third shell. Configuration: 2, 8, 1.

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16.

Write the electronic configuration of carbon (atomic number 6).

1 mark · foundation

2, 4

  • Correct configuration: 2, 4 (accept 2.4 or 2 4) (1m)

Carbon has 6 electrons: 2 fill the first shell, leaving 4 for the second shell. Configuration: 2, 4. Carbon is in Group 4, period 2.

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17.

How many electrons can the first shell hold according to the diagram?

  • A. 8
  • B. 2
  • C. 4
  • D. 18
1 mark · foundation

The first electron shell (closest to the nucleus) can hold a maximum of 2 electrons. The second shell can hold up to 8 electrons, and so can the third shell (for GCSE purposes). This is why helium (atomic number 2) has a full first shell with configuration 2, and hydrogen (atomic number 1) has just one electron in the first shell.

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18.

Which of the following is the correct electronic configuration of chlorine (atomic number 17)?

  • A. 2, 8, 8
  • B. 2, 7, 8
  • C. 2, 8, 7
  • D. 8, 8, 1
1 mark · standard

Chlorine has 17 electrons. The first shell takes 2, the second takes 8, leaving 17 - 2 - 8 = 7 for the third shell. Configuration: 2, 8, 7. This places chlorine in Group 7.

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19.

An element has the electronic configuration 2, 8, 3. In which period and group of the periodic table is it found?

  • A. Period 2, Group 3
  • B. Period 3, Group 8
  • C. Period 3, Group 3
  • D. Period 8, Group 3
1 mark · standard

Electronic configuration 2, 8, 3 has 3 occupied shells (period 3) and 3 outer electrons (group 3). This element is aluminium (atomic number 13).

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20.

Why are noble gases particularly stable and unreactive?

  • A. They have no electrons at all
  • B. They have an odd number of electrons
  • C. They are located in period 8
  • D. They have a full outer shell of electrons
1 mark · standard

Noble gases are stable because they already have a full outer electron shell (8 electrons, or 2 for helium). They have no need to gain or lose electrons, so they do not react with other elements.

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21.

Which of the following correctly describes how electrons fill shells in an atom?

  • A. Electrons fill the outermost shell first
  • B. Electrons fill the lowest energy (innermost) shell first
  • C. Electrons fill all shells equally at the same time
  • D. Electrons are placed randomly across shells
1 mark · standard

Electrons always occupy the lowest available energy shell first, which is the innermost shell closest to the nucleus. Each shell must be filled before electrons start filling the next one outward.

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22.

An element is in period 2 and Group 6 of the periodic table. What is its electronic configuration?

  • A. 2, 4
  • B. 2, 6
  • C. 6, 2
  • D. 2, 8, 6
1 mark · standard

Period 2 means 2 occupied shells. Group 6 means 6 outer electrons. So shell 1 has 2 electrons and shell 2 has 6 electrons: configuration 2, 6. This is oxygen (atomic number 8).

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23.

State the rule that determines the order in which electrons fill electron shells.

1 mark · standard

Electrons fill the lowest energy shell first, starting with the innermost shell closest to the nucleus.

  • Electrons fill the lowest energy / innermost shell first (before moving to the next shell) (1m)

Electrons fill shells from the inside outward, always occupying the lowest available energy level first. Shell 1 fills before shell 2, which fills before shell 3.

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24.

Which electron shell diagram shows an element in Group 1?

  • A. An atom with electronic configuration 2,8,8
  • B. An atom with electronic configuration 2,8
  • C. An atom with electronic configuration 2,8,1
  • D. An atom with electronic configuration 2,4
1 mark · standard

Group 1 elements have one electron in their outer shell. The configuration 2,8,1 (sodium) has 1 electron in the third (outer) shell — making it a Group 1 element. Configuration 2,8,8 (argon) has 8 outer electrons (Group 0/noble gas). Configuration 2,8 (magnesium or neon) either has 8 outer electrons (Group 0) or 2 outer electrons (Group 2). Configuration 2,4 has 4 outer electrons (Group 4).

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Finite & Renewable Resources

20
1.

Evaluate the advantages and disadvantages of switching from finite to renewable resources for energy production. Use scientific knowledge to justify your conclusion.

6 marks · higher

Advantages of switching to renewable resources: they will not run out unlike fossil fuels, which are finite and will eventually be depleted. Renewable sources such as solar and wind produce very little CO2 during operation, which reduces the greenhouse effect and slows climate change. They also improve energy security by reducing dependence on imported fossil fuels. Disadvantages: the initial cost of building renewable infrastructure such as wind farms and solar panels is very high. Renewable sources are intermittent — solar panels only work in daylight and wind turbines only generate power when the wind blows — so backup power or large-scale energy storage is needed. Conclusion: Overall, switching to renewable resources is scientifically justified because fossil fuels are finite and their combustion drives climate change. However, energy storage technology must improve to make renewables fully reliable. A phased transition using a mix of renewable sources alongside improved storage would be the most practical approach.

  • Advantage: renewable resources (wind/solar/biomass) will not run out — they are replenished naturally within human timescales (1m)
  • Advantage: renewable energy sources produce little or no CO2 during operation, reducing contribution to climate change / greenhouse effect (1m)
  • Advantage: reduces dependence on finite fossil fuel reserves, improving energy security / price stability (1m)
  • Disadvantage: high initial capital cost of building renewable infrastructure (wind farms, solar panels) (1m)
  • Disadvantage: intermittent supply — wind and solar depend on weather conditions, so reliable backup or storage is needed (1m)
  • Justified conclusion: overall, switching to renewables is beneficial because [reason], though challenges of [limitation] must be addressed through [e.g. better energy storage technology] (1m)

This is a 6-mark extended response. The best answers: (1) give at least 2 advantages (sustainability, reduced CO2/greenhouse effect, energy security); (2) give at least 2 disadvantages (high capital cost, intermittency/reliability); (3) write a justified conclusion that weighs the evidence. Purely listing points without explanation or a conclusion will not reach the top band.

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2.

Explain why scientists develop synthetic alternatives to natural products. In your answer, refer to natural rubber and synthetic rubber as an example.

4 marks · standard

Scientists develop synthetic alternatives to natural products because natural products are often obtained from finite or limited sources. Natural rubber is obtained from the sap (latex) of rubber trees, which grow in tropical regions and have limited supply. Synthetic rubber is made from petrochemicals (derived from crude oil), meaning it can be manufactured at large scale and at a more consistent quality. However, synthetic rubber also uses finite resources (crude oil), so developing bio-based synthetic alternatives is an ongoing area of research.

  • Natural products come from limited/finite sources (supply may be insufficient or unreliable) (1m)
  • Natural rubber comes from rubber trees/latex/sap of trees in tropical regions (1m)
  • Synthetic rubber is made from petrochemicals/crude oil derivatives (1m)
  • Synthetic alternative allows large-scale/consistent/reliable production (1m)

Natural rubber (polyisoprene) is harvested from the latex of the Hevea brasiliensis tree, predominantly grown in tropical regions. Supply can be disrupted by disease, weather or political factors. Synthetic rubber (e.g. styrene-butadiene rubber, SBR) is manufactured from petrochemicals, allowing consistent large-scale production. However, it relies on crude oil — a finite resource. This illustrates the trade-off: replacing a limited natural product with a synthetic one that uses a different finite resource.

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3.

Explain how copper is extracted from copper-rich ores by smelting. Include a word equation in your answer.

4 marks · higher

In smelting, copper-rich ore (such as copper sulfide) is heated to high temperatures in a furnace. Carbon or carbon monoxide acts as a reducing agent, removing oxygen from the copper compound. The copper ore is reduced to copper metal: copper oxide + carbon -> copper + carbon dioxide. The impure copper produced can then be purified by electrolysis.

  • Copper ore is heated to high temperatures (in a furnace) (1m)
  • Carbon (or carbon monoxide) acts as a reducing agent / removes oxygen from copper compound (1m)
  • Word equation: copper oxide + carbon -> copper + carbon dioxide (or equivalent correct equation) (1m)
  • The copper produced is impure and can be purified further (e.g. by electrolysis) (1m)

Smelting extracts copper from copper-rich ores. The ore is heated in a furnace to high temperatures with carbon (a reducing agent). Carbon removes oxygen from copper compounds: copper oxide + carbon -> copper + carbon dioxide. This reduction produces impure copper which is then purified by electrolysis (the anode dissolves and pure copper deposits at the cathode).

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4.

Explain the benefits of recycling copper compared with extracting copper from its ore. Refer to both economic and environmental reasons.

4 marks · higher

Recycling copper uses less energy than smelting copper from ore, which reduces both the cost and the carbon dioxide emissions associated with energy production. It also conserves finite copper ore reserves, meaning they will last longer for future generations. Recycling copper reduces the need for open-cast mining, which causes less habitat destruction and land damage. Economically, recycled copper can be cheaper to process than mining and smelting new ore, especially as high-grade ore deposits become scarcer.

  • Recycling uses less energy than smelting from ore (economic benefit: lower cost / environmental benefit: less CO2 emitted) (1m)
  • Conserves finite copper ore reserves (ores will last longer / available for future generations) (1m)
  • Reduces environmental damage from mining (less habitat destruction / less land damage) (1m)
  • Economically beneficial as ore grades decline / recycling becomes more cost-effective compared to mining deeper, lower-grade ores (1m)

Recycling copper has multiple benefits: (1) Energy: melting scrap copper uses far less energy than smelting ore — reducing costs and CO2 from energy generation. (2) Resource conservation: finite copper ores are preserved for future use. (3) Environmental: open-cast copper mining destroys large areas of habitat — recycling reduces this. (4) Economic: as easily-accessible high-grade ores are depleted, mining costs rise, making recycled copper increasingly competitive.

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5.

Compare phytomining and bioleaching as methods of extracting copper from low-grade ores. Include both advantages and disadvantages of each method.

4 marks · higher

Phytomining uses plants to absorb copper from low-grade ore-bearing soil. The plants are then burned and copper is extracted from the ash. Bioleaching uses bacteria to break down low-grade copper ores, producing a leachate from which copper is extracted. Both methods are useful for low-grade ores that cannot be smelted economically. Advantages: both cause less habitat damage than traditional open-cast mining and require less energy than smelting. Disadvantages: both are slow processes compared to smelting. Phytomining requires suitable land for growing plants; bioleaching requires careful management of acidic leachate which can pollute water sources.

  • Correct description of phytomining mechanism (plants absorb copper / burned to extract from ash) (1m)
  • Correct description of bioleaching mechanism (bacteria break down ore / leachate contains copper ions) (1m)
  • Shared advantage: both work on low-grade ores / both cause less damage than mining / both less energy-intensive than smelting (1m)
  • Shared or contrasting disadvantage: slow process / bioleaching produces acidic leachate pollution / phytomining needs large land area (1m)

Phytomining vs Bioleaching comparison: Phytomining — plants absorb copper, burned, copper extracted from ash. Bioleaching — bacteria break down sulfide ores, copper ions in leachate collected and copper displaced by scrap iron. Shared advantages: both work on low-grade ores unsuitable for smelting; both less energy-intensive. Disadvantages: both slow; bioleaching produces acidic waste leachate (environmental risk); phytomining needs large land areas and specific climate conditions.

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6.

State what is meant by sustainable development and give two examples of how chemistry can contribute to it.

3 marks · standard

Sustainable development means meeting the needs of people today without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs. Chemistry contributes by developing alternative materials to replace finite resources, such as synthetic materials to replace natural ones. Chemistry also contributes by improving recycling processes so that finite metals and materials can be reused rather than discarded.

  • Definition: meeting needs of present/today without compromising future generations (1m)
  • Chemistry example 1: developing synthetic/alternative materials to replace finite resources OR improving extraction methods (phytomining/bioleaching) to reduce impact (1m)
  • Chemistry example 2: recycling processes for metals/plastics to reduce need for new finite resources OR use of renewable feedstocks (biofuels, plant-based materials) (1m)

Sustainable development requires balancing present use of resources with future availability. Chemistry contributes through: (1) alternative extraction methods like phytomining and bioleaching that reduce land damage; (2) recycling of metals which reduces the need to mine finite ores; (3) development of synthetic alternatives to natural products and biofuels as renewable fuel sources.

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7.

Explain how agriculture provides both food and useful materials for industry. Give two examples of materials obtained from agriculture.

3 marks · standard

Agriculture provides food such as cereals, fruit and vegetables to meet human nutritional needs. It also provides raw materials for industry, such as cotton (a plant-based fibre used in textiles) and wool (an animal-based fibre used in clothing). These materials are renewable because crops and animals can be grown and raised repeatedly within human timescales.

  • Agriculture provides food (e.g. cereals, vegetables, meat, dairy) to meet nutritional needs (1m)
  • Named material 1: cotton (from plants/cotton plant) used in textiles/clothing (1m)
  • Named material 2: wool (from sheep/animals) used in clothing OR timber/wood from forestry OR biofuels/ethanol from crops (1m)

Agriculture is a source of renewable resources: it provides food (cereals, fruit, vegetables, meat, dairy) and industrial materials. Natural fibres include cotton (from the cotton plant) and wool (from sheep). Other agricultural products include timber (from managed forests) and biofuels (ethanol from sugar cane or maize).

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8.

Give one advantage and one disadvantage of using phytomining to extract copper compared to traditional smelting.

3 marks · standard

One advantage of phytomining is that it can extract copper from low-grade ores that are not economical to smelt, meaning more copper can be obtained from the Earth's crust. It also causes less environmental damage than open-cast mining. One disadvantage is that it is a slow process because the plants need time to grow and accumulate copper.

  • Advantage: can be used on low-grade ores (that cannot economically be smelted) / causes less environmental damage / does not require high temperatures / less energy intensive (1m)
  • Disadvantage: slow process / plants take time to grow / requires large areas of land / produces less copper per unit area than smelting (1m)
  • Comparison clearly linked to smelting (e.g. 'compared to smelting which requires high temperatures and rich ores') (1m)

Phytomining advantages: works on low-grade ores too poor for smelting; less energy-intensive; less surface damage than open-cast mining. Disadvantages: slow (plants must grow); requires large land areas; produces less copper per year than conventional methods. Traditional smelting is faster and produces more copper but requires higher-grade ore and consumes large amounts of energy at very high temperatures.

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9.

In bioleaching, a copper sulfate solution (leachate) is produced. Explain how scrap iron can be used to obtain copper metal from this solution. Write a word equation for the reaction.

3 marks · higher

Scrap iron is added to the copper sulfate leachate solution. Iron is more reactive than copper, so iron displaces copper from the solution. The iron dissolves into solution and copper metal forms as a solid deposit. The word equation is: iron + copper sulfate -> iron sulfate + copper.

  • Iron is more reactive than copper (or: iron is higher in the reactivity series than copper) (1m)
  • Iron displaces copper from the copper sulfate solution (iron goes into solution, copper deposits as a solid) (1m)
  • Word equation: iron + copper sulfate -> iron sulfate + copper (1m)

Displacement reactions occur when a more reactive metal displaces a less reactive one from a salt solution. Iron (Fe) is above copper (Cu) in the reactivity series. When scrap iron is added to copper sulfate (CuSO4) leachate: Fe(s) + CuSO4(aq) -> FeSO4(aq) + Cu(s). The iron dissolves into solution as iron(II) ions and copper metal deposits as a solid that can be collected.

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10.

State one difference between a finite resource and a renewable resource.

2 marks · foundation

A finite resource cannot be replaced within human timescales (e.g. coal takes millions of years to form), whereas a renewable resource can be replenished naturally within human timescales (e.g. timber from trees that are replanted).

  • Finite resources cannot be replaced/replenished within human timescales (or: they run out / take millions of years to form) (1m)
  • Renewable resources can be replaced/replenished within human timescales (or: they can be regrown / replaced by natural processes) (1m)

Finite resources such as coal and oil take millions of years to form and cannot be replaced within human timescales. Renewable resources such as timber and biofuels can be replenished by natural processes (growing trees, growing crops) within human timescales.

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11.

Describe how phytomining is used to extract copper from low-grade ores.

2 marks · foundation

Plants called hyperaccumulators absorb copper compounds through their roots. The plants are harvested and then burned. The ash contains a high concentration of copper compounds, which are processed to extract the copper.

  • Plants (hyperaccumulators) absorb copper compounds through their roots from the soil (1m)
  • Plants are harvested and burned; copper compounds are extracted from the ash (1m)

Phytomining uses plants that naturally accumulate high concentrations of metals (hyperaccumulators). When grown in copper-rich soil, they absorb copper compounds. After harvesting and burning, the copper-rich ash is processed (using smelting or leaching) to obtain copper metal.

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12.

Describe how bioleaching is used to obtain copper from low-grade ores.

2 marks · foundation

Bacteria are used to break down low-grade copper ores. The bacteria produce a leachate solution that contains copper ions. The copper is then extracted from this solution, for example by displacement using scrap iron.

  • Bacteria break down/react with the copper ore, producing a leachate/solution containing copper ions (1m)
  • Copper is extracted from the leachate solution (e.g. by adding scrap iron / displacement / electrolysis) (1m)

Bioleaching uses naturally occurring bacteria to break down low-grade copper ores (such as copper sulfide). The bacteria oxidise the sulfide, releasing copper ions into a leachate solution. Copper is then extracted from this solution by adding scrap iron — the more reactive iron displaces the less reactive copper.

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13.

Which of the following best describes a finite resource?

  • A. A resource that can be replaced within a human lifetime
  • B. A resource that exists in limited amounts and cannot be replaced within human timescales
  • C. A resource produced by photosynthesis in plants
  • D. A resource that is always found underground
1 mark · foundation

Finite resources exist in limited amounts and cannot be replaced within human timescales. Examples include fossil fuels and metal ores.

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14.

Which of the following is an example of a renewable resource?

  • A. Coal
  • B. Crude oil
  • C. Uranium
  • D. Timber
1 mark · foundation

Timber is a renewable resource because trees can be replanted and regrown within human timescales. Coal, crude oil and uranium are all finite resources.

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15.

In phytomining, how do plants help in the extraction of copper?

  • A. Plants absorb copper compounds through their roots and copper is extracted from the ash when burned
  • B. Plants are burned to release copper as a gas
  • C. Plants produce bacteria that dissolve copper ores
  • D. Plants chemically react with sulfuric acid to release copper ions
1 mark · foundation

In phytomining, hyperaccumulator plants absorb copper compounds through their roots. The plants are then harvested and burned; the ash contains a high concentration of copper compounds which can be processed to extract copper.

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16.

In bioleaching, which organisms are used to extract copper from low-grade ores?

  • A. Fungi
  • B. Plants
  • C. Algae
  • D. Bacteria
1 mark · foundation

In bioleaching, bacteria are used to break down low-grade copper ores. The bacteria produce a leachate solution containing copper ions, which is then processed (e.g. using scrap iron) to obtain copper metal.

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17.

Which of the following is the best definition of sustainable development?

  • A. Meeting the needs of today without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs
  • B. Using only renewable energy sources such as wind and solar
  • C. Recycling all waste materials produced by industry
  • D. Reducing the human population to lower resource consumption
1 mark · foundation

Sustainable development is defined as meeting the needs of present generations without compromising future generations' ability to meet their own needs. It involves balancing economic growth, environmental protection and social wellbeing.

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18.

A manufacturer switches from using copper ore mined from the ground to using recycled copper from old appliances. Which principle of sustainable development does this BEST demonstrate?

  • A. Increasing energy production from fossil fuels
  • B. Replacing a finite resource with a synthetic alternative
  • C. Reducing consumption of finite resources by reusing materials
  • D. Extracting copper using phytomining to reduce habitat destruction
1 mark · standard

Recycling copper from old appliances reduces the need to mine new copper ore (a finite resource), demonstrating the principle of conserving finite resources for future generations.

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19.

Cotton and wool are natural fibres obtained from agriculture. Which statement explains why synthetic fibres such as nylon are increasingly used as alternatives?

  • A. Synthetic fibres are always cheaper to produce than natural fibres
  • B. Synthetic fibres can be manufactured at scale using finite chemical feedstocks, reducing reliance on agricultural land
  • C. Synthetic fibres are biodegradable and cause no pollution
  • D. Natural fibres are renewable, so synthetic alternatives conserve land for food production
1 mark · standard

Synthetic fibres like nylon are made from petrochemicals (finite resources). They can be produced in factories independent of agricultural land, but this does come with the disadvantage of depleting finite fossil fuel resources.

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20.

Which of the following is an advantage of recycling metals compared to extracting them from ores?

  • A. Recycling produces a purer metal than smelting
  • B. Recycling requires more energy than smelting from ores
  • C. Recycling reduces the amount of finite ore resources used
  • D. Recycling eliminates all carbon dioxide emissions
1 mark · standard

Recycling metals means fewer finite ore resources need to be extracted from the ground. It also generally requires less energy than extracting metal from its ore, reducing both cost and environmental impact.

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